Fully Solved JKSSB Finance Accounts Assistant Question Paper 2024

Solved questions

1. Q1: Which of the following is NOT a communicable disease?
   Answer: C - Diabetes
   Tuberculosis, Influenza, and Ringworm are all communicable (infectious) diseases. Diabetes is a non-communicable, lifestyle/metabolic disease — it cannot be transmitted from person to person.
2. Q2: Consider the following pairs. Vitamin — Deficiency A. Vitamin A — Anaemia B. Vitamin C — Skin Diseases C. Vitamin D — Rickets D. Vitamin B1 — Beri Beri Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
   Answer: C - C and D
   Vitamin D deficiency causes Rickets ✓. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency causes Beri-Beri ✓. Vitamin A deficiency causes Night Blindness (not anaemia). Vitamin C deficiency causes Scurvy (not skin diseases). So C and D are correctly matched.
3. Q3: Food cans are coated with tin instead of zinc due to
   Answer: B - Zinc is more reactive than tin.
   Zinc is more reactive than tin in the electrochemical series. If zinc coating were damaged, zinc would react with food acids. Tin is less reactive and safer for food preservation.
4. Q4: Which of the following constitute a food-chain?
   Answer: B - Grass, goat and human
   A food chain must start with a producer (plant). Grass→Goat→Human is a valid grazing food chain. The others either have no producer or are incorrectly ordered.
5. Q5: Consider the following pairs. A. Power — Watts B. Current — Volt C. Frequency — Hertz D. Resistance — Ampere Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
   Answer: B - A and C
   Power is measured in Watts ✓. Frequency is measured in Hertz ✓. Current is measured in Ampere (not Volt). Resistance is measured in Ohm (not Ampere). A and C are correctly matched.
6. Q6: Consider the following pairs. a. Sodium — S b. Carbon — Co c. Sulphur — Na d. Cobalt — C Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
   Answer: C - a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
   Correct chemical symbols: Sodium=Na, Carbon=C, Sulphur=S, Cobalt=Co. The pairs given are intentionally incorrect; the correct matching aligns with the standard periodic table symbols.
7. Q7: Forces that act for a limited period of time are referred to as
   Answer: A - Impulsive forces
   Impulsive forces (also called impulsive forces or shock forces) are forces that act for a very short, limited duration — such as a bat hitting a ball or a hammer strike.
8. Q8: Who was the first scientist to use the term SMOG and define its layers?
   Answer: D - Dr. Henry Antoine
   Dr. Henry Antoine Des Voeux first used the term "SMOG" (a portmanteau of smoke and fog) in 1905 at a conference in Britain, and defined its characteristics.
9. Q9: Consider the following statements: 1. Life on earth is possible due to the greenhouse effect 2. Increased emission of greenhouse gases is a natural process Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   Answer: A - Only 1
   Statement 1: TRUE — the natural greenhouse effect keeps Earth warm enough for life (~15°C vs −18°C without it). Statement 2: FALSE — the INCREASED emission of GHGs is primarily caused by human activities (burning fossil fuels, deforestation), not natural proce
10. Q10: Consider the following statements: a. There is infinite storage of fossil fuel inside the earth b. Sun can be taken as an inexhaustible source of energy c. Waste from a nuclear power plant can be easily disposed off Whic
    Answer: C - a and c
    Statement a: FALSE — fossil fuels are finite resources. Statement b: TRUE — the Sun is considered an inexhaustible energy source on human timescales. Statement c: FALSE — nuclear waste is extremely difficult and costly to dispose of safely. Statements a and c
11. Q11: Which hill is the Vaishno Devi Mandir located on?
    Answer: D - Trikuta
    Vaishno Devi temple is located in the Trikuta hills (Trikuta Parvat) near Katra in Reasi district of Jammu. Katra is the base camp town, not the hill itself.
12. Q12: Arrange the following in chronological order: a. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre b. Dandi March c. Lucknow Pact d. Quit India Movement
    Answer: B - c, a, b, d
    Chronological order: Lucknow Pact (1916) → Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (1919) → Dandi March (1930) → Quit India Movement (1942). Order: c, a, b, d.
13. Q13: The first legislature of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir was called the
    Answer: A - Praja Sabha
    The first legislature of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir was called the Praja Sabha, established in 1934 under Maharaja Hari Singh.
14. Q14: Which of the following is NOT a tributary of Jhelum River?
    Answer: C - Verinag
    Tributaries of Jhelum River include Vishaw, Sind Nallah, Roumushi, and others. Verinag is the spring source of the Jhelum — it is where the river originates, not a tributary of it.
15. Q15: As per J & K Reorganisation Act, 2019, UT created without legislature is:
    Answer: D - Ladakh
    Under the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019, Jammu & Kashmir became a UT with a legislature (Vidhan Sabha), while Ladakh became a UT WITHOUT a legislature — governed directly by the Centre.
16. Q16: Consider the following statements: 1. Kud dance is performed to honour the gods ''Lok Devtas'' as a thanks giving ritual. 2. It is practiced on festive occasions like Eid and Ramzan days. Which of the above statements is
    Answer: A - Only 1
    Statement 1: Kud dance is performed to honour local gods (Lok Devtas) as a thanksgiving ritual by Dogra communities ✓. Statement 2: It is performed on Hindu festivals, NOT on Eid or Ramzan days ✗. Only Statement 1 is correct.
17. Q17: Which of the places is known as the ''Gateway to the Kashmir valley''?
    Answer: A - Jammu
    Jammu is known as the "Gateway to the Kashmir Valley" because it is the main entry point from the plains of India into the Kashmir region via the Jammu-Srinagar highway.
18. Q18: Which pass connects Jammu and Kashmir with Ladakh?
    Answer: B - Zoji La Pass
    Zoji La Pass (altitude ~3,528 m) on the Jammu–Srinagar–Leh highway connects the Kashmir Valley with Ladakh. It is a critical strategic and transport link.
19. Q19: What is the official language of Jammu and Kashmir?
    Answer: Deleted - Deleted
    This question was officially deleted/cancelled from the paper. No explanation applicable.
20. Q20: Arrange the following states in an order from north to south: a. Himachal Pradesh b. Tamil Nadu c. Telangana d. Madhya Pradesh
    Answer: C - a, d, c, b
    From north to south: Himachal Pradesh → Madhya Pradesh → Telangana → Tamil Nadu. Order: a, d, c, b.
21. Q21: Consider the following pairs (National Parks → State): a) Kaziranga National Park b) Jim Corbett National Park c) Ranthambore National Park d) Gir National Park 1. Gujarat 2. Rajasthan 3. Uttarakhand 4. Assam
    Answer: C - a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
    National Parks correctly matched: Kaziranga–Assam(4), Jim Corbett–Uttarakhand(3), Ranthambore–Rajasthan(2), Gir–Gujarat(1). Match: a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1.
22. Q22: Arrange the following events in chronological order: a. G20 Summit in India b. ICC World Cup Final 2023 c. Launch of Chandrayaan 3 d. COP28 climate summit in Dubai
    Answer: A - c, a, b, d
    Chronological order of 2023 events: Chandrayaan-3 launch (July 14) → G20 Summit in India (Sept 9-10) → ICC World Cup Final (Nov 19) → COP28 in Dubai (Nov 30–Dec 12). Order: c, a, b, d.
23. Q23: Consider the following statements about Rabi crops: a. Rabi crops are sowed between October and November. b. Rabi crops require a lot of water. c. Rabi crops need warm weather for growth. Which of the above statements is
    Answer: A - Only a
    Rabi crops are sown between October and November ✓. They require MODERATE water (grown under irrigation in winter, not a lot of water). They need COOL weather for growth (not warm). Only statement a is correct.
24. Q24: The population growth rate means:
    Answer: D - Difference between birth rate and death rate
    Population growth rate = Birth Rate − Death Rate. It represents the net natural increase in population per thousand persons per year.
25. Q25: In which tourist place is Kolahoi glacier located?
    Answer: B - Pahalgam
    Kolahoi Glacier, the largest glacier in the Kashmir Valley, is located near Pahalgam in the Lidder valley. It feeds the Lidder River and is a popular trekking destination from Pahalgam/Aru.
26. Q26: Consider the following pairs (Lakes → State): a) Hussain Sagar b) Pulicate Lake c) Dal Lake d) Loktak Lake 1. Manipur 2. Jammu and Kashmir 3. Andhra Pradesh 4. Telangana
    Answer: D - a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
    Lakes matched: Hussain Sagar–Telangana(4), Pulicate–Andhra Pradesh(3), Dal–J&K(2), Loktak–Manipur(1). Match: a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1.
27. Q27: Consider the following statements about Ajanta caves: a. Ajanta caves were tagged as the UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 1983. b. Currently, these caves are taken care of by the Archaeological Survey of India. c. The cave
    Answer: B - a and b
    Ajanta Caves were designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1983 ✓. They are maintained by the Archaeological Survey of India ✓. The caves were created in two phases: Hinayana (2nd c BCE–1st c CE) and Vakataka/Gupta era (5th–6th century CE). Statements a and
28. Q28: Who is popularly known as the ''Grand Old Man of India''?
    Answer: B - Dadabhai Naoroji
    Dadabhai Naoroji (1825–1917) is known as the "Grand Old Man of India." He was the first Indian to be elected to the British House of Commons and pioneered the economic drain theory.
29. Q29: Consider the following pairs (Dam → State): a) Sardar Sarovar Dam b) Bhavani Sagar Dam c) Koyna Dam d) Tehri Dam 1. Uttarakhand 2. Maharashtra 3. Gujarat 4. Tamil Nadu
    Answer: C - a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
    Dams matched: Sardar Sarovar–Gujarat(3), Bhavani Sagar–Tamil Nadu(4), Koyna–Maharashtra(2), Tehri–Uttarakhand(1). Match: a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1.
30. Q30: Consider the following pairs (Dogra history): a) Founder of Dogra Dynasty b) Dar-Ul-Alam c) Mian Deedo d) Treaty of Lahore 1. Maharaja Ranjit Dev 2. Rebellion Group Head 3. Gujarat 4. Gulab Singh
    Answer: D - a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
    Dogra history: Gulab Singh was the founder of the modern Dogra dynasty and signed the Treaty of Amritsar. Per the official answer, the correct matching is a-4 (Gulab Singh), b-1 (Maharaja Ranjit Dev), c-2 (Mian Deedo as rebellion leader), d-3 (Gujarat location
31. Q31: Fixed cost is a cost:
    Answer: C - Which do not change in total during a given period despite changes in output
    Fixed cost is a cost that remains constant in total regardless of changes in output during a given period. Examples include rent, salaries, and depreciation. It does not change with production volume.
32. Q32: Calculate the prime cost from the following information: Direct material purchased: Rs. 1,00,000; Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000; Direct labour: Rs. 60,000; Direct expenses: Rs. 20,000; Manufacturing overheads: Rs.
    Answer: C - Rs. 1,70,000
    Prime Cost = Direct Materials consumed + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses = 90,000 + 60,000 + 20,000 = Rs. 1,70,000. Manufacturing overheads are NOT part of prime cost.
33. Q33: Suppliers personal a/c are seen in the
    Answer: C - Purchases Ledger
    Suppliers' personal accounts (accounts payable/creditors) are maintained in the Purchases Ledger (also called the Creditors' Ledger). The Sales Ledger holds debtors' accounts.
34. Q34: Book Keeping is regarded as the step of accounting.
    Answer: D - First
    Book-keeping is the first (primary/foundational) step of accounting. It involves systematically recording financial transactions before they are analysed and reported.
35. Q35: Which of the following is correct?
    Answer: C - asset = liability + equity
    The fundamental accounting equation is: Assets = Liabilities + Equity (Owner's Equity). This equation forms the basis of the double-entry bookkeeping system.
36. Q36: Which concept suggests the exclusion of human Resource in balance sheet?
    Answer: B - Money Measurement Concept
    The Money Measurement Concept states that only transactions expressible in monetary terms are recorded. Human resources, while valuable, cannot be objectively measured in money, so they are excluded from the balance sheet.
37. Q37: Which of the following procedures should an accountant follow while preparing a voucher?
    Answer: D - All of the above
    When preparing a voucher, an accountant should: verify date/amount/signature/details (a), confirm authorised approval (b), and select the correct voucher type (c). All three procedures must be followed.
38. Q38: Which of the following business documents is a proof of payment for a business transaction?
    Answer: A - Receipt
    A Receipt is a document issued as proof that payment has been received for a business transaction. An Invoice is a demand for payment; a Debit Note records a return or adjustment.
39. Q39: In bank statement, cash deposited is shown as
    Answer: A - debit
    In the Cash Book (bank column), cash deposited into the bank is shown as a DEBIT entry — the company's bank asset increases. Note: in the bank's passbook (from bank's side), it appears as a credit.
40. Q40: What is ''Deposit in transit'' in bank reconciliation?
    Answer: A - Added to Bank Balance
    Deposit in transit = deposits recorded in the company's books but not yet processed by the bank. In bank reconciliation, these are ADDED to the bank balance to reconcile with the book balance.
41. Q41: What type of cheques is that which is issued by a firm but not yet presented to the bank?
    Answer: B - Outstanding cheques
    Outstanding cheques (also called unpresented cheques) are cheques issued/written by a firm but not yet presented to or cleared by the bank.
42. Q42: The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) was earlier known as
    Answer: A - Central Plan Schemes Monitoring System (CPSMS)
    PFMS (Public Financial Management System) was earlier known as the Central Plan Schemes Monitoring System (CPSMS). It was rebranded to PFMS to expand its scope beyond plan schemes.
43. Q43: Statement of financial position produced from incomplete accounting record is commonly known as
    Answer: B - Statement of affairs
    When accounts are prepared from incomplete records (single-entry or partial records), the statement showing assets, liabilities and net worth is called a "Statement of Affairs" — not a formal Balance Sheet.
44. Q44: What happens when interest on drawings is charged to partner?
    Answer: C - Debited to partner''s capital a/c
    Interest on drawings is charged to the partner as a penalty for withdrawing funds. It is DEBITED to the partner's Capital Account (reducing their capital) and credited to the Profit & Loss Appropriation Account.
45. Q45: M and N are two partners sharing profit and losses in 3:2 ratio. They admit P as a new partner with 1/5 share. What will be the new profit-sharing ratio?
    Answer: B - 12:8:5
    M:N = 3:2. Old total = 5 parts. P gets 1/5. Remaining = 4/5. M's new share = (3/5)×(4/5) = 12/25. N's new share = (2/5)×(4/5) = 8/25. P's share = 5/25. New ratio = 12:8:5.
46. Q46: The method of transferring items from a journal into their respective ledger accounts or journals is known as:
    Answer: D - Posting
    Posting is the process of transferring entries from the journal (book of original entry) to the respective ledger accounts. It is the second step after journalising in the accounting cycle.
47. Q47: When audit is undertaken to check the financial controls and irregularities in the organization, it is which type of audit?
    Answer: C - Internal audit
    Internal audit is conducted by an organisation's own staff to check financial controls, detect irregularities, and ensure compliance with internal policies. It differs from statutory (external) audit.
48. Q48: Current Ratio =
    Answer: A - Current assets / Current liabilities
    Current Ratio = Current Assets ÷ Current Liabilities. It measures short-term liquidity — a ratio ≥2:1 is generally considered healthy.
49. Q49: A bank pass book is a copy of
    Answer: C - The customer account in the bank''s ledger
    A bank passbook is a copy of the customer's account as maintained in the bank's ledger. It shows all transactions from the bank's perspective of the customer's account.
50. Q50: Trial balance helps to check the accuracy of the:
    Answer: B - Ledger
    The Trial Balance checks the arithmetic accuracy of the Ledger by verifying that total debits equal total credits across all ledger accounts.
51. Q51: Which of the following entities generally prepare their books of accounts under single entry system?
    Answer: B - Sole traders
    Sole traders and small businesses typically maintain books under the single-entry system due to its simplicity. Joint-stock companies, government bodies, and NGOs generally use double-entry.
52. Q52: GST is a consumption of goods and service tax based on
    Answer: D - Destination
    GST (Goods and Services Tax) is a destination-based consumption tax — the tax revenue goes to the state where the goods/services are consumed, not where they are produced.
53. Q53: What does financial leverage measure?
    Answer: C - The sensibility of EPS w.r.t % change in the EBIT level
    Financial leverage measures the sensitivity of EPS (Earnings Per Share) with respect to a percentage change in EBIT (Earnings Before Interest and Tax). High financial leverage amplifies both gains and losses.
54. Q54: Finance Bill becomes the Finance Act when it is passed by
    Answer: D - Both House of Parliament and signed by Prime Minister
    This question was officially deleted/cancelled from the paper. No explanation applicable.
55. Q55: Income which accrue or arise outside India & also received outside India is taxable in case of
    Answer: A - Resident and Ordinary Resident
    Income accrued AND received outside India is taxable ONLY for Resident and Ordinarily Resident (ROR) taxpayers. RNOR and Non-Residents are not taxed on such foreign income under the Income Tax Act.
56. Q56: Which of the following is/are included in definition of ''Goods'' as defined under section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017?
    Answer: B - Actionable claim
    "Goods" under Section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017 includes actionable claims. However, Money, Securities, and immovable property are specifically excluded from the definition of "goods."
57. Q57: Amount payable at the time of closure or opting out of National Pension Scheme referred to in section 80CCD shall be exempt to the extent of total amount payable:
    Answer: C - 40%
    Under Section 80CCD, when a subscriber closes or opts out of the National Pension Scheme, 40% of the total corpus/amount payable is exempt from tax. The remaining 60% is taxable.
58. Q58: Goodwill of a firm of X and Y is valued at Rs. 30,000. It is appearing in the books at Rs. 12,000. Z is admitted for 1/4 share. What amount is he supposed to bring for goodwill?
    Answer: B - Rs. 4,500
    Z is admitted for 1/4 share. Hidden goodwill = 30,000 − 12,000 = 18,000. Z's contribution for hidden goodwill = (1/4) × 18,000 = Rs. 4,500.
59. Q59: Assertion (A): If the interest is payable outside India, tax must be deducted at source. Reason (R): If tax has not been deducted at source, the amount paid as interest will not be allowed as a deduction in computing bus
    Answer: A - Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    Both the Assertion (TDS on interest payable outside India is mandatory) and the Reason (non-deduction disallows the interest as a business deduction) are correct, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
60. Q60: From the following information, find out the number of units that must be sold by the firm to earn profit of Rs. 1,80,000 per year. Sales price: Rs. 25 per unit; Variable manufacturing costs: Rs. 12 per unit; Variable se
    Answer: C - 98,000 units
    Contribution per unit = SP − Variable cost = 25 − (12+3) = Rs. 10. Fixed costs = 5,00,000+3,00,000 = 8,00,000. Required units = (8,00,000+1,80,000)/10 = 9,80,000/10 = 98,000 units.
61. Q61: A snake in the grass
    Answer: C - Unrecognizable danger
    "A snake in the grass" is an idiom meaning an unrecognised or hidden danger — a threat that lurks unseen. It does not mean a secret enemy or unreliable person specifically.
62. Q62: Synonym of: ADMONISH
    Answer: A - Threaten
    ADMONISH means to warn or reprimand firmly. Among the options, THREATEN is the closest synonym in the sense of warning/cautioning with authority.
63. Q63: Antonym of: AGONY
    Answer: C - Ecstasy
    AGONY means extreme suffering. Its antonym (opposite) is ECSTASY — a state of extreme happiness or delight. Both Pleasure and Bliss are also opposites but Ecstasy is the strongest antonym.
64. Q64: Rearrange the jumbled phrases in meaningful sequence: 1. Are free from 2. Grow abundantly 3. Low plants 4. Tundra region 5. During the short summer 6. Like mosses and lichens 7. And 8. Ice
    Answer: B - 4, 1, 8, 5, 7, 3, 6, 2
    Correct rearrangement: "Tundra region(4) are free from(1) ice(8); during the short summer(5) and(7) low plants(3) like mosses and lichens(6) grow abundantly(2)." Order: 4-1-8-5-7-3-6-2.
65. Q65: Insert proper preposition: He hinted some loss of treasure.
    Answer: D - at
    "Hinted AT" is the correct collocation. One hints AT something — suggests it indirectly. "Hinted for/with/of" are all incorrect.
66. Q66: Choose the correct option: The boys were playing cricket.
    Answer: D - Cricket was being played by the boys.
    Active: "The boys were playing cricket." → Passive: "Cricket was being played by the boys." Past continuous active converts to past continuous passive.
67. Q67: Fill in the blanks with the suitable article: ''The Sun rises in the east and sets in west.''
    Answer: C - the
    The Sun rises in the east and sets in "the" west — specific, unique directions take the definite article "the."
68. Q68: Choose the correct option: ''If I had left early like every one else did, I sitting here, now listening to all this rubbish.''
    Answer: C - wouldn''t be
    "If I had left early... I wouldn't be sitting here now." This is a mixed conditional (past perfect in if-clause, present conditional in main clause). "Wouldn't be" is correct.
69. Q69: Pick out the clause in the following sentence: ''Neha played when evening came.''
    Answer: B - When Evening Came
    "When evening came" is the subordinate clause (adverbial clause of time) in the sentence "Neha played when evening came."
70. Q70: He said to us, ''Why are you all sitting about there doing nothing?'' — choose reported speech option
    Answer: C - He asked us why we were all sitting about there doing nothing.
    Reported speech: "Why are you all sitting...?" → He asked us WHY WE WERE ALL sitting about there doing nothing. (Tense shift: are → were; word order becomes statement order.)
71. Q71: Secondary data is primarily sourced from:
    Answer: B - Publicly available databases
    Secondary data is data that has already been collected and published by others — sourced from publicly available databases, published reports, journals, government records, etc.
72. Q72: What is an example of primary data collection method?
    Answer: D - Conducting interviews and surveys
    Primary data is first-hand data collected directly for a specific research purpose. Conducting interviews and surveys is the classic example of primary data collection.
73. Q73: Consider the following statements regarding questionnaire preparation: a. Questionnaires collect data by asking people to respond to different set of questions. b. The validity and reliability of the data depend largely
    Answer: D - b and d
    Correct statements about questionnaire design: a (questionnaires collect data through questions) ✓, b (validity depends on question design) ✓, d (wording must be considered) ✓. Statement c is wrong — a pilot test IS necessary. Statements b and d are most preci
74. Q74: Which of the following statement regarding tabulation is FALSE?
    Answer: D - Tabulation facilitates comparison between rows and not columns.
    The FALSE statement is D: "Tabulation facilitates comparison between rows and not columns." Tabulation facilitates comparison BOTH across rows AND columns — it is designed for multi-directional comparison.
75. Q75: Eight randomly selected college students were asked the number of hours they slept the previous night. The resulting data values are 4, 8, 7, 5, 3, 7, 7, 3. Arrange the following values in decreasing order: a. Mean of sl
    Answer: C - d, c, b, a
    Data: 4,8,7,5,3,7,7,3. Mean=(44/8)=5.5. Sorted: 3,3,4,5,7,7,7,8; Median=(5+7)/2=6. Mode=7. Sample size=8. Decreasing order: d(8) c(7) b(6) a(5.5). Order: d, c, b, a.
76. Q76: Consider the following statements regarding probabilities: P: Probabilities can never add up to more than one. Q: Probabilities of mutually exclusive events always add up to one. R: Probabilities can never be zero. S: Pr
    Answer: B - S only
    Among the four statements: P (probabilities never exceed 1 for individual events) is context-dependent; Q is false (mutually exclusive events don't always sum to 1 unless also exhaustive); R is false (P=0 is valid); S (probabilities are non-negative/positive)
77. Q77: In a class of 100 students, every student must pick exactly one sport to play. 28 students pick Football, 27 students pick Kho-Kho, 33 students pick volleyball and 12 students pick cricket. 13 boys play volleyball. Out o
    Answer: D - a-3, b-1, c-2, d-5
    From given data: Boys Kho-Kho = 27−13(girls)=14, Total boys=60, Girls cricket=2 (derived from total girl distribution), Boys cricket=12−2=10. Match: a-3(14), b-1(2), c-2(10), d-5(60).
78. Q78: An economist estimated that a commodity Y had a price index of 10, calculated for 1993 with base year of 1990, and a quantity index of 0.5 when calculated for 1990 with base year taken to be 1993. What is the Fisher Idea
    Answer: C - 20
    Price index for 1993 (base 1990) = 10 means P₁₉₉₃/P₁₉₉₀=10. Quantity index of 1990 (base 1993) = 0.5 means Q₁₉₉₀/Q₁₉₉₃=0.5, so Q₁₉₉₃/Q₁₉₉₀=2. Fisher Value Index = Price Index × Quantity Index = 10 × 2 = 20.
79. Q79: One of the features of the census is:
    Answer: B - Simultaneity
    Simultaneity is a key feature of a census — all data is collected at the same reference point in time across the entire population. This distinguishes census from a rolling survey.
80. Q80: Consider the following statements regarding Measures of Mortality: a) Gross Reproduction Rate b) Age-Specific Fertility Rate c) Net Reproduction Rate d) Maternal Mortality Rate 1. Reduces the reproduction rates 2. Affect
    Answer: A - a-5, b-3, c-2, d-1
    Gross Reproduction Rate = daughters born over a lifetime(5). Age-Specific Fertility Rate = modal value between ages 20-25(3). Net Reproduction Rate = affected by mortality(2). Maternal Mortality Rate = per 1,000 live births in this context(4), with option 1 ma
81. Q81: The interest on Rs. 54,000 loan for nine months at 8% interest per year is
    Answer: C - 3240
    Simple Interest = (P × R × T)/100 = (54,000 × 8 × 9/12)/100 = (54,000 × 8 × 0.75)/100 = 3,24,000/100 = Rs. 3,240.
82. Q82: Tom and Jerry went to a restaurant for dinner. Tom ordered 2 hamburgers and 1 soft drink, totalling Rs. 70. Jerry ordered 1 hamburger and 2 soft drinks, totalling Rs. 50. Then the cost of one hamburger and one soft drink
    Answer: B - Hamburger – Rs. 30, Soft Drink – Rs. 10
    Let H=hamburger price, S=soft drink. 2H+S=70 and H+2S=50. Subtracting: H−S=20. Adding to H+2S=50: 2H+S=70. Solving: H=30, S=10.
83. Q83: Consider the following statements: a. The number of ways to arrange the letters of the word ''PEPPER'' is 60. b. In a group of 20 people, the number of ways to select a committee of 3 members where the order doesn''t mat
    Answer: C - a and b
    a: PEPPER arrangements = 6!/(3!×2!×1!) = 720/12 = 60 ✓. b: C(20,3) for committee of 3 from 20 ✓. c: (2+x)³ = 8+12x+6x²+x³ (not 6x+12x²) ✗. d: 6 people in a row = 6!=720, not 360 ✗. Statements a and b are correct.
84. Q84: Consider the following statements: a. The limit of (x² - 1)/(x - 1) as x→1 is 0. b. If f(x) = 1/x, then the derivative of f(x) with respect to x is 1/x². c. The limit of (eˣ - 1)/x as x→0 is 1. d. The limit definition of
    Answer: D - c and d
    a: lim(x²−1)/(x−1)=lim(x+1)=2 (not 0) ✗. b: d/dx(1/x) = −1/x² (not +1/x²) ✗. c: lim(eˣ−1)/x as x→0 = 1 ✓. d: Derivative definition = lim{h→0}[f(x+h)−f(x)]/h ✓. Statements c and d are correct.
85. Q85: Let A = { x ∈ R : |x| < 1 }, B = { x ∈ R : |x − 1| ≥ 1 } and A ∪ B = R \ D. Then the set D is
    Answer: A - { x ∈ R : 1 ≤ x < 2 }
    A={(−1,1)}, B=(−∞,0]∪[2,∞). A∪B=(−∞,1)∪[2,∞). D = R\(A∪B) = {x: 1≤x<2}. The complement of the union excludes (−∞,1) and [2,∞), leaving [1,2).
86. Q86: Consider the following pairs: a. F = { (x,y) ∈ R×R : x² + y = 2 } b. F = { (x,y) ∈ R×R : x² + y² = 25 } c. F = { (x,y) ∈ R×R : y = 2x + 1 } d. F = { (x,y) ∈ R×R : y = x² } Match with: 1. F∘F = { (x,z) : z = 4x + 3 } 2. F
    Answer: D - a-4, b-5, c-1, d-2
    For F={(x,y):y=2x+1}: composing gives z=4x+3 (option 1) ✓. For F={(x,y):x²+y²=25}: circle, fails vertical line test → not a function (option 5) ✓. For F={(x,y):y=x²}: increasing on (0,∞) but not all of R (option 2) ✓. For F={(x,y):x²+y=2}: y=2−x², range (−∞,2]
87. Q87: Consider the following pairs: a. Square matrix has two identical rows b. 3×3 Identity matrix c. 3×3 diagonal matrix with diagonal entries 1, 2 and 3 d. P and Q are two 3×3 matrices with det(P) = 2 and det(Q) = 4. Determi
    Answer: A - a-3, b-1, c-4, d-5
    a. Identical rows → det=0 (option 3) ✓. b. 3×3 Identity matrix → det=1 (option 1) ✓. c. Diagonal entries 1,2,3 → det=1×2×3=6 (option 4) ✓. d. det(PQ^T)=det(P)×det(Q)=2×4=8 (option 5) ✓. Match: a-3, b-1, c-4, d-5.
88. Q88: Arrange the following events in increasing order of probability: a. Picking a diamond from a well-shuffled deck of 52 playing cards. b. Drawing a King from a standard deck of 52 cards. c. Rolling a number between 1 and 6
    Answer: C - b, a, d, c
    Probabilities: b=King=4/52≈0.077, a=Diamond=13/52=0.25, d=Heads=0.5, c=rolling 1-6=1 (certain). Increasing order: b < a < d < c.
89. Q89: The area of the triangle determined by the three points A(1,2,3), B(3,2,1), and C(2,4,5) is
    Answer: D - √29
    Vectors AB=(2,0,−2), AC=(1,2,2). Cross product AB×AC=(4,−6,4). |AB×AC|=√(16+36+16)=√68=2√17. Area=(1/2)×2√17=√17 ≈ 4.12. Per the official answer key: √29.
90. Q90: The unit vector having the opposite direction of the vector (1, −1) is
    Answer: B - (-1/√2)(1, −1)
    Vector (1,−1) has magnitude √2. Unit vector in same direction = (1/√2)(1,−1). The OPPOSITE direction unit vector = (−1/√2)(1,−1).
91. Q91: Which of the below statement is correct?
    Answer: D - When economists study a market''s price, their main goal is to figure out why the price is what it is and how it might change.
    When economists study a market price, their primary goal is to understand why the price is at its current level and how/why it might change — not just to describe it.
92. Q92: What is the meaning of a ''Mixed Economy''?
    Answer: B - Both the public and private sectors are involved
    A Mixed Economy combines both public sector (government ownership and planning) and private sector (market-driven) activities. India is an example of a mixed economy.
93. Q93: Which of the following is the relation that the law of demand defines?
    Answer: B - Price and quantity of a commodity
    The Law of Demand defines the inverse relationship between the price of a commodity and the quantity demanded — when price rises, quantity demanded falls, ceteris paribus.
94. Q94: What is Gross Domestic Product?
    Answer: D - The monetary value of all finished goods and services made within a country during a specific period.
    GDP is the monetary value of all finished goods and services produced within a country's borders during a specific time period (usually a year or quarter), regardless of ownership.
95. Q95: ''Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT)'' is related with which institution?
    Answer: C - World Trade Organization
    The Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT) is a WTO agreement that ensures technical regulations, standards, and conformity assessment procedures do not create unnecessary obstacles to international trade.
96. Q96: Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a
    Answer: D - Promissory Note
    Commercial Paper (CP) is a short-term, unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a Promissory Note by creditworthy corporations to raise funds directly from the market.
97. Q97: Bank rate is the rate at which the RBI extends credit to the:
    Answer: C - Commercial Banks
    The Bank Rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) extends credit to commercial banks by rediscounting their eligible bills of exchange. It is a long-term monetary policy tool.
98. Q98: Which five year plan of India was based on Mahalanobis model?
    Answer: B - Second
    India's Second Five Year Plan (1956–61), drafted by P.C. Mahalanobis, was based on the Mahalanobis model which emphasised heavy industrialisation and the development of capital goods industries.
99. Q99: Which is not one of the four main factors of production?
    Answer: C - Manufacturing
    The four classic factors of production are: Land, Labour, Capital, and Enterprise (Entrepreneurship). Manufacturing is a process/activity, not a factor of production.
100. Q100: What does the Lorenz curve represent?
     Answer: C - Income distribution
     The Lorenz Curve is a graphical representation of income (or wealth) distribution in a society. The further it bows from the line of equality, the greater the inequality (measured by the Gini coefficient).
101. Q101: The thrust on the rocket is:
     Answer: B - In the opposite direction of the rocket
     By Newton's Third Law of Motion, the rocket expels gas in one direction (backward), and the reaction force (thrust) acts in the OPPOSITE direction (forward), propelling the rocket.
102. Q102: What causes the twinkling of stars?
     Answer: A - Atmospheric refraction of starlight
     Stars twinkle due to atmospheric refraction — their light bends as it passes through layers of the atmosphere with varying density and temperature, causing the apparent position and brightness to fluctuate.
103. Q103: Who invented the Light Bulb?
     Answer: A - Thomas Edison
     Thomas Edison invented the first practical incandescent light bulb in 1879. While others worked on earlier versions, Edison developed the long-lasting carbon filament bulb suitable for commercial use.
104. Q104: The Bacille Calmette-Guérin vaccine (BCG) is a vaccine to prevent which disease?
     Answer: A - Tuberculosis
     BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) is a vaccine used to prevent Tuberculosis (TB). It is one of the most widely used vaccines in the world and is given at birth under India's UIP.
105. Q105: Name the hardest material present in the body?
     Answer: C - Enamel
     Tooth enamel is the hardest substance in the human body (hardness ~5 on Mohs scale). It covers the crown of the teeth and protects them from wear and decay.
106. Q106: Which is the most malleable metal?
     Answer: A - Gold
     Gold is the most malleable metal — it can be beaten into extremely thin sheets (gold leaf). One gram of gold can be beaten into a sheet of 1 square metre.
107. Q107: What is dry ice?
     Answer: C - Solid Carbon dioxide
     Dry ice is the solid form of carbon dioxide (CO₂) at −78.5°C. It sublimates directly from solid to gas at atmospheric pressure, making it useful for cooling without leaving liquid residue.
108. Q108: What is the common name of Calcium Hypochlorite?
     Answer: B - Bleaching powder
     Calcium Hypochlorite [Ca(ClO)₂] is commonly known as bleaching powder. It is widely used as a disinfectant and bleaching agent in water treatment and textile industries.
109. Q109: The washing machine works on the principle of which of the following?
     Answer: D - Centrifugation
     A washing machine works on the principle of centrifugation — the drum spins at high speed, and centrifugal force pushes water out of the clothes through the drum's perforations.
110. Q110: ''Short-sight'' in human eye can be corrected by using proper:
     Answer: B - Concave Lens
     Short-sightedness (myopia) is caused by the eyeball being too long, focusing images in front of the retina. It is corrected using a concave (diverging) lens that diverges light before it enters the eye.
111. Q111: Which of the following memory is used for storing software that does not need updates?
     Answer: B - ROM
     ROM (Read-Only Memory) is used to store firmware — software permanently programmed into hardware that does not need frequent updates (e.g., BIOS). Flash memory is used for firmware that needs occasional updates.
112. Q112: Which of the following is an antivirus?
     Answer: D - Norton
     Norton (Norton Antivirus) is an antivirus software used to detect and remove malware. Trojan Horse, Worms, and Macro Virus are all types of malicious software (malware), not antivirus programs.
113. Q113: The term FLOSS is associated with
     Answer: C - Open source software
     FLOSS stands for Free/Libre and Open Source Software. It refers to software whose source code is freely available, can be modified, and redistributed. Examples include Linux, Firefox, and LibreOffice.
114. Q114: Daisy wheel printer is what type of printer?
     Answer: B - Impact
     A Daisy Wheel Printer is an impact printer — it works by pressing a wheel with embossed characters against an ink ribbon onto paper, similar to a typewriter mechanism.
115. Q115: Which of the following cloud storage service is owned by Microsoft?
     Answer: B - One drive
     OneDrive is Microsoft's cloud storage service. iCloud is Apple's, Google Drive is Google's. Floppy drive is a legacy physical storage medium, not a cloud service.
116. Q116: Storage of firmware is .
     Answer: D - ROM
     Firmware is stored in ROM (Read-Only Memory) or Flash memory. ROM is non-volatile and retains data without power. Firmware in ROM does not change during normal device operation.
117. Q117: In IT Act 2000, which section deals with the punishment for cyber terrorism?
     Answer: C - 66 (F)
     Section 66F of the IT Act, 2000 deals with cyber terrorism — acts that threaten the unity, integrity, security or sovereignty of India through computer systems or networks.
118. Q118: Digital signature service that has been launched on Aadhar platform is called .
     Answer: B - eSign Desk
     eSign is the digital signature service launched on the Aadhaar platform by the Government of India. It allows citizens to digitally sign documents using their Aadhaar-based OTP or biometric authentication.
119. Q119: What does ''Smart Governance'' involve?
     Answer: B - Integrating IT to improve service delivery and decision-making
     Smart Governance involves the use of information technology to streamline governance processes, improve service delivery to citizens, enhance transparency, and support data-driven decision-making.
120. Q120: The ''UMANG'' app allows citizens to access:
     Answer: C - Government services and information
     UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance) is a single platform that allows Indian citizens to access a wide range of Central and State Government services and information on a mobile app.