JKSSB Laboratory Attendant Question Paper 2026

Quantitative Aptitude — Solved Questions

1. Q1: A T.V. is sold at 8% gain. Had it been sold for Rs. 2553 less; there would have been loss of 15%. To gain 18% the selling price (in Rs.) of T.V. would be:
   Answer: B — 13098
   The correct answer is 13098. Key Points - Let CP = x. SP at 8% gain = 1.08x; at 15% loss = 0.85x. - Difference = 0.23x = 2553 - x = 11100. - SP at 18% gain = 1.18 x 11100 = 13098.
2. Q2: A card is drawn at random from a pack of 100 cards numbered 1 to 100. The probability of drawing a number which is a square, is
   Answer: A — 1/10
   The correct answer is 1/10. Key Points - This is a probability question. - The formula is P = favourable outcomes ÷ total outcomes. - The pack has cards numbered 1 to 100, so the total number of outcomes = 100. - The perfect squares from 1
3. Q3: A sphere is placed in a cube so that it touches all the faces of the cube. If 'a' is the ratio of the volume of the cube to the volume of the sphere and 'b' is the ratio of the surface area of the sph
   Answer: D — 1
   The correct answer is 1. Key Points - Side = s, sphere radius = s/2. a = s^3/(pis^3/6) = 6/pi. b = pis^2/(6s^2) = pi/6. ab = (6/pi)(pi/6) = 1.
4. Q4: In a medical transaction, 17 times the cost price is equal to 8 times the sum of the cost price and the selling price. What is the gain or loss percentage?
   Answer: C — Gain 12.5%
   The correct answer is Gain 12.5%. Key Points - Translate the statement into an equation relating Cost Price (CP) and Selling Price (SP). - '17 times the cost price = 8 times the sum of CP and SP': - 17 × CP = 8 × (CP + SP) - 17 CP = 8 CP +
5. Q5: It is decided that a loan of 10,000 will be paid off at the rate of 800 per month in 15 equal instalments. Find out the rate of return on investment.
   Answer: A — 16% P.a.
   The correct answer is 16% P.a.. Key Points - Total repayment = 15 x 800 = 12000; interest = 2000 on 10000 over 15 months. - Using the instalment interest method this works out to approximately 16% p.a. Additional Information - Total repaid
6. Q6: A man ordered 4 pairs of black socks and some pairs of brown socks. The price of a black socks is double that of a brown pair. While preparing the bill the clerk interchanged the number of black and b
   Answer: B — 1:4
   The correct answer is 1:4. Key Points - Let brown pairs = x, price of brown = P, black = 2P. - Original bill = 4(2P)+xP = (8+x)P. Swapped bill = x(2P)+4P = (2x+4)P. (2x+4)/(8+x) = 1.5 = 0.5x = 8 = x = 16. Ratio = 4:16 = 1:4.
7. Q7: A right circular cone is exactly fitted inside a cube in such a way that the edges of the base of the cone are touching the edges of one of the faces of the cube and the vertex is on the opposite face
   Answer: C — 90 cc
   The correct answer is 90 cc. Key Points - Side = 7 cm, cone radius = 3.5 cm, height = 7 cm. V = (1/3)pi(3.5^2)(7) = (1/3)(22/7)(12.25)(7) approx 90 cc.
8. Q8: The compound interest (compounding annually) on a certain sum at the rate of 8 percent per annum for two years is Rs. 6656. What would be the simple interest on the same sum at the same rate of intere
   Answer: B — Rs. 6400
   The correct answer is Rs. 6400. Key Points - First recover the principal from the two-year compound interest, then compute the simple interest. - For 2 years at 8%, the CI multiplier is (1.08)² − 1 = 1.1664 − 1 = 0.1664. Given CI = Rs. 6656
9. Q9: The length breadth and height of a rectangular box are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 4, respectively, and the cost of covering it with a sheet of paper at the rate of Rs. 1.50 per square metre is Rs. 1,950. Fi
   Answer: A — 1500
   The correct answer is 1500. Key Points - Dimensions = 3k, 2k, 4k. - TSA = 2(6k^2+8k^2+12k^2) = 52k^2. 52k^2 x 1.5 = 1950 = k^2 = 25 = k = 5. Volume = 15x10x20 = 3000 m3. 50% = 1500 m3.
10. Q10: A dice is thrown once. Find the probability that 3 or greater than 3 turns up.
    Answer: D — 2/3
    The correct answer is 2/3. Key Points - A single die has 6 equally likely outcomes: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6. The event is '3 or greater than 3', i.e. the outcomes 3, 4, 5, 6 — that is 4 favourable outcomes. - P = favourable ÷ total = 4 ÷ 6 = 2/3.
11. Q25: A car covers a distance at 50 km/h and returns at 40 km/h. What is the average speed for the whole journey?
    Answer: A — 44.4 km/h
    The correct answer is 44.4 km/h. Key Points - The car covers the same distance each way at two different speeds, so the average speed is the harmonic mean: - Average speed = 2ab ÷ (a + b), with a = 50 km/h and b = 40 km/h. - Average speed =
12. Q26: If a man increases his speed by 25%, he takes 1 hour less to cover a certain distance. What was the original time?
    Answer: C — 5 hours
    The correct answer is 5 hours. Key Points - New speed = 1.25v, new time = t-1. Distance d = vt = 1.25v(t-1) = t = 1.25t-1.25 = 0.25t = 1.25 = t = 5 hours.
13. Q27: Two trains of lengths 120 m and 180 m are moving in opposite directions at 54 km/h and 72 km/h respectively. How long will they take to cross each other?
    Answer: B — 9 sec
    The correct answer is 9 sec. Key Points - When two trains move in opposite directions, their speeds add (relative speed), and to cross each other they must together cover the sum of their lengths. - Total length = 120 + 180 = 300 m. - Conve
14. Q111: The sum of the 3rd and the 4th term of an A.P. is 19 and that of the 1st and the 7th term is 22. Find the 9th term.
    Answer: D — 26
    The correct answer is 26. Key Points - Let a = first term, d = common difference. a3+a4 = 2a+5d = 19. a1+a7 = 2a+6d = 22. Solving: d = 3, a = 2. a9 = a+8d = 2+24 = 26.
15. Q112: Which one of the following is true?
    Answer: A — sqrt(5) + sqrt(3) sqrt(6) + sqrt(2)
    The correct answer is sqrt(5) + sqrt(3) sqrt(6) + sqrt(2). Key Points - Square both: (sqrt5+sqrt3)^2 = 8+2sqrt15, (sqrt6+sqrt2)^2 = 8+2sqrt12. - Since sqrt15 sqrt12, sqrt5+sqrt3 sqrt6+sqrt2.
16. Q113: A right circular cone of largest volume is cut out from a solid wooden hemisphere. The remaining material is what percentage of the volume of the original hemisphere?
    Answer: B — 50%
    The correct answer is 50%. Key Points - Hemisphere volume = (2/3)pir^3. Largest inscribed cone: h = r, base radius = r. Cone volume = (1/3)pir^3. Remaining = (1/3)pir^3. Percentage = (1/3)/(2/3) x 100 = 50%.
17. Q114: If x and y are real numbers, then the minimum value of x^2 + 4xy + 6y^2 - 4y + 4 is
    Answer: C — 2
    The correct answer is 2. Key Points - Rewrite: (x+2y)^2 + 2y^2 - 4y + 4 = (x+2y)^2 + 2(y-1)^2 + 2. Minimum when x+2y=0 and y=1: value = 0+0+2 = 2.
18. Q115: The sum of the height and radius of the base of a solid right circular cylinder is 46 cm. If the total surface area of the solid cylinder is 6072 cm2, what is the volume (in cm3) of the cylinder? (tak
    Answer: D — 11025 pi
    The correct answer is 11025 pi. Key Points - TSA = 2pir(r+h) = 2pir46 = 6072 = r = 6072/(92pi) = 60727/(9222) = 21 cm. h = 25 cm. V = pi44125 = 11025pi cm3.
19. Q116: Two metallic right circular cones having heights 3.8 cm and 4.6 cm and radii of their bases 2.1 cm each, have been melted together and recast into a sphere. The diameter (in cm) of the sphere is:
    Answer: A — 4.2
    The correct answer is 4.2. Key Points - Total cone volume = (1/3)pi(2.1^2)(3.8+4.6) = (1/3)pi(4.41)(8.4) = 12.348pi. - (4/3)pir^3 = 12.348pi = r^3 = 9.261 = r = 2.1. Diameter = 4.2 cm.
20. Q117: Shopkeeper bought 40 pieces of an article at a rate of Rs. 50 per item. He sold 35 pieces with 20% profit. The remaining 5 pieces were sold with 10% loss. Find his overall profit percentage.
    Answer: C — 16.25%
    The correct answer is 16.25%. Key Points - Total CP = 2000. SP of 35 = 35x60 = 2100. SP of 5 = 5x45 = 225. Total SP = 2325. Profit = 325. - Profit% = 325/2000 x 100 = 16.25%.
21. Q118: If the difference between the compound interest and simple interest at 17% on a sum of money for 2 years (compounded annually) is Rs. 433.50, then the sum (in Rs.) is:
    Answer: B — 15,000
    The correct answer is 15,000. Key Points - For 2 years, the difference between compound interest and simple interest depends only on the principal and rate through a fixed formula: - CI − SI (2 years) = P × (R/100)². - Given the difference
22. Q119: X and Y are two numbers whose A.M. is 41 and G.M. is 9. Which of the following may be a value of X?
    Answer: B — 81
    The correct answer is 81. Key Points - Use the definitions of the two means for the numbers X and Y. - Arithmetic Mean (A.M.) = (X + Y)/2 = 41 → X + Y = 82. - Geometric Mean (G.M.) = √(XY) = 9 → XY = 81. - So X and Y are the roots of the qu
23. Q120: The cost price of articles X and Y is the same. Article X is sold at 20% profit and article Y is sold for Rs. 126 less than the selling price of X. If the net profit by selling both the articles is 14
    Answer: D — 1,050
    The correct answer is 1,050. Key Points - Let CP = x. SP of X = 1.2x. SP of Y = 1.2x-126. Total SP = 2.4x-126. Net 14% on 2x: 2.28x. - 2.4x-126 = 2.28x = 0.12x = 126 = x = 1050.

Reasoning Ability — Solved Questions

1. Q11: Complete the Number Series: 5, 11, 23, 47, 95, ?
   Answer: B — 191
   The correct answer is 191. Key Points - This number series follows a multiply-and-add rule. - Series: 5, 11, 23, 47, 95, ? - 5 × 2 + 1 = 11 - 11 × 2 + 1 = 23 - 23 × 2 + 1 = 47 - 47 × 2 + 1 = 95 - 95 × 2 + 1 = 191 - Each term is the previous
2. Q12: Complete the Number Series: 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ?
   Answer: A — 46
   The correct answer is 46. Key Points - Differences: 5, 7, 9, 11, 13 (odd numbers). Next: 35 + 11 = 46.
3. Q13: Complete the Number Series: 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ?
   Answer: C — 21
   The correct answer is 21. Key Points - These are the triangular numbers — the running sums 1, 1+2, 1+2+3, and so on. - Series: 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ? - The differences increase by 1 each time: +2, +3, +4, +5, so the next difference is +6: - 15
4. Q14: Complete the Letter Series: Z, X, U, Q, L, ?
   Answer: B — F
   The correct answer is F. Key Points - This is a letter series where the gaps between letters grow. - Series: Z, X, U, Q, L, ? Look at the backward jumps in alphabet position: - Z → X: −2 - X → U: −3 - U → Q: −4 - Q → L: −5 - The jumps incre
5. Q15: Complete the Letter Series: AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?
   Answer: A — EV
   The correct answer is EV. Key Points - Each pair has two independent letters; treat them as two separate series. - Series: AZ, BY, CX, DW, ? - First letters: A, B, C, D, … move forward by one → next is E. - Second letters: Z, Y, X, W, … mov
6. Q16: Complete the Letter Series: A, C, B, E, D, H, ?
   Answer: B — G
   The correct answer is G. Key Points - Pairs: (A,C), (B,E), (D,H) - gaps of 1,2,3 between pairs. - After H(8) the next is G(7) completing the pattern.
7. Q17: If COMPUTER is coded as FRPSXWHU, how is SCIENCE coded?
   Answer: A — VFLHQFH
   The correct answer is VFLHQFH. Key Points - This is a letter-shift code. - Find the shift from the given word, then apply it. - COMPUTER → FRPSXWHU. Comparing positions: C → F (+3), O → R (+3), M → P (+3), P → S (+3), and so on — every lett
8. Q18: If DOG is written as WLT, how is CAT written?
   Answer: A — XZG
   The correct answer is XZG. Key Points - Each letter - 27 minus its position: D(4)-W(23), O(15)-L(12), G(7)-T(20). - C(3)-X(24), A(1)-Z(26), T(20)-G(7) = XZG.
9. Q19: Ravi walks 15 m east, then 12 m north, then 15 m west, and finally 5 m south. In which direction is Ravi now with respect to his starting point?
   Answer: A — North
   The correct answer is North. Key Points - Resolve the walk into east–west and north–south components. - Moves: 15 m East, 12 m North, 15 m West, 5 m South. - East–West: 15 East − 15 West = 0 (they cancel). - North–South: 12 North − 5 South
10. Q20: A man faces south. He turns 90 degrees clockwise, then 180 degrees anticlockwise, and again 270 degrees clockwise. Which direction is he facing now?
    Answer: A — North
    The correct answer is North. Key Points - Track the facing direction through each turn, remembering 90° = a quarter turn. - The man starts facing South. - 90° clockwise: South → West. - 180° anticlockwise: West → East (half turn reverses th
11. Q21: If A + B means A is the mother of B, A - B means A is the brother of B, A x B means A is the father of B, What does P - Q x R + S mean?
    Answer: B — P is paternal uncle of S
    The correct answer is P is paternal uncle of S. Key Points - P-Q: P is brother of Q. Q x R: Q is father of R. R+S: R is mother of S. Q and R are S parents. - P is Q brother (S paternal uncle).
12. Q22: Introducing a woman, Raj said, She is the wife of the only son of my mother-in-law. How is the woman related to Raj?
    Answer: C — Sister-in-law
    The correct answer is Sister-in-law. Key Points - Work through the blood-relation chain from Raj's point of view. - 'The only son of my mother-in-law' — Raj's mother-in-law is his wife's mother, so her only son is Raj's wife's brother (Raj'
13. Q23: Consider the following statement: There has been a sharp increase in online education platforms. Possible Causes: I. Affordable internet availability II. Increased demand for flexible learning. Choose
    Answer: C — Both I and II
    The correct answer is Both I and II. Key Points - Both affordable internet and demand for flexible learning are valid independent causes for the rise in online education platforms.
14. Q24: Statement: All teachers are educated. Conclusion: Some educated people are teachers.
    Answer: A — True
    The correct answer is True. Key Points - If all teachers are educated, then the educated set contains all teachers, so some educated people are teachers - True.
15. Q28: Statement: All fruits are sweet. All apples are fruits. Conclusion: All apples are sweet.
    Answer: A — True
    The correct answer is True. Key Points - Valid syllogism: All A are B (fruits are sweet), All C are A (apples are fruits) = All C are B (apples are sweet). True.
16. Q29: Assertion (A): All squares are rectangles. Reason (R): All rectangles have four right angles. Choose the correct option:
    Answer: B — Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    The correct answer is Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Key Points - A is true (squares satisfy all rectangle conditions). R is true. - But R does not fully explain A - squares also need equal sides, not captu
17. Q30: Assertion (A): No cat is a dog. Reason (R): Some dogs are pets. Choose the correct option:
    Answer: B — Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    The correct answer is Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Key Points - A is true (cats and dogs are different species). - R is true (dogs can be pets). - But R has no logical connection to A.

General Knowledge & Current Affairs — Solved Questions

1. Q31: Consider the following statements regarding India nuclear energy policy and the SHANTI Act, 2025. (I) The SHANTI Act, 2025, allows private sector participation in nuclear power generation. (II) India
   Answer: A — I only
   The correct answer is I only. Key Points - The SHANTI Act 2025 allows private sector participation (I correct). - The 100 GW target is by 2047, not 2030 (II incorrect). - The act caps, not retains unlimited, supplier liability (III incorrec
2. Q32: Match Military Exercises with Partner Country: i. Yudh Abhyaas - a. USA ii. Zapad - b. Egypt iii. Mitra-Shakti - c. Sri Lanka iv. Bright Star - d. Russia
   Answer: B — i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b
   The correct answer is i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b. Key Points - Yudh Abhyaas - USA. - Zapad - Russia (Russia-Belarus joint exercise). - Mitra-Shakti - Sri Lanka. Bright Star - Egypt.
3. Q33: Consider the following statements about the United Nations Security Council. I. As per Article 23, the Security Council shall consist of fifteen Members. II. Non-permanent members shall be elected for
   Answer: C — I and III only
   The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Article 23 - 15 members (I: correct). - Non-permanent members serve 2-year terms, not 5 (II: incorrect). - Retiring members cannot be immediately re-elected (III: correct). Answer: I and II
4. Q34: Consider the following statements about India Space mission achievements. I. Axiom Mission 4 enabled human spaceflight for India, Poland, and Hungary. II. SPaDeX Mission made India the first country t
   Answer: A — I only
   The correct answer is I only. Key Points - Axiom Mission 4 included India Shubhanshu Shukla - India first government-sponsored spaceflight (I: correct). - SPaDeX made India the 4th country to achieve satellite docking; it was not the first
5. Q35: In India three-stage nuclear program, the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) is important because: I. It uses uranium-238 to breed plutonium in a sodium-cooled fast reactor. II. Thorium-232, though
   Answer: D — I, II and III
   The correct answer is I, II and III. Key Points - All three statements correctly describe PFBR role in India three-stage nuclear programme. - PFBR breeds Pu from U-238 (Stage II), uses Th-232 as blanket, and the Th-U-233 cycle powers Stage
6. Q36: ITER is considered important for India and the world because: I. It demonstrates sustainable, clean fusion energy for the future. II. It allows India to participate in cutting-edge nuclear fusion rese
   Answer: B — I and II only
   The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - ITER is an experimental reactor - it does not provide commercial electricity (III is incorrect). I and II are correct.
7. Q37: Identify the correct statements about the Nobel Peace Prize, 2025. I. It was awarded to Maria Corina Machado of Venezuela. II. According to the Norwegian Nobel Committee, it can be transferred by the
   Answer: A — I only
   The correct answer is I only. Key Points - The Nobel Peace Prize 2025 was awarded to Maria Corina Machado (I: correct). - The Nobel Prize cannot be transferred (II: incorrect).
8. Q38: Consider the following statements: I. As per Economic Survey 2025-26, India accounts for more than 5% of global merchandise exports. II. As per Economic Survey 2025-26, India service imports were grea
   Answer: D — Neither I nor II
   The correct answer is Neither I nor II. Key Points - India share of global merchandise exports is around 2-3%, not more than 5% (I: incorrect). - India is a net exporter of services, so service exports imports (II: incorrect). Neither is co
9. Q39: Assertion (A): A rise in per capita GNP always reflects an improvement in living standards. Reason (R): Income levels are fundamental metrics of Economic development. Which is/are correct?
   Answer: D — A is false, R is true
   The correct answer is A is false, R is true. Key Points - A is false - per capita GNP can rise while inequality worsens, so living standards need not improve for all. - R is true - income is a key economic metric. - A is false but R is true
10. Q40: Two places, X (terrestrial) and Y (marine), are at the same latitude. During summer, Place X records 42C and Place Y records 32C. During winter, Place X records 0C and Place Y records 10C. What is the
    Answer: C — Land has a lower specific heat capacity than oceans
    The correct answer is Land has a lower specific heat capacity than oceans. Key Points - Land heats and cools faster than oceans because land has a lower specific heat capacity. - This explains X higher summer and lower winter temperatures c
11. Q41: Statement I: The Mission for Atmanirbharta in Pulses aims to make India self-sufficient in pulses by 2030-31. Statement II: The mission seeks to reduce import dependence, boost domestic production and
    Answer: A — Statement I and Statement II are correct
    The correct answer is Statement I and Statement II are correct. Key Points - Both statements correctly describe the Mission for Atmanirbharta in Pulses - self-sufficiency by 2030-31 and objectives of reducing imports and improving farmer in
12. Q42: Match the following ports with their associated features: i. Kamarajar port - a. first corporatised major port ii. JNPT port - b. first deep-water transshipment hub iii. Paradip port - c. India first
    Answer: C — i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
    The correct answer is i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b. Key Points - Kamarajar - India first corporatised major port. - JNPT - India first landlord-model port. - Paradip - top cargo-handling major port. - Vizhinjam - India first deep-water transshipm
13. Q43: Arrange the following battles of the First Anglo-Sikh War in chronological order: I. Battle of Mudki II. Battle of Ferozeshah III. Battle of Aliwal IV. Battle of Sobraon
    Answer: A — I-II-III-IV
    The correct answer is I-II-III-IV. Key Points - Mudki (18 Dec 1845) - Ferozeshah (21-22 Dec 1845) - Aliwal (28 Jan 1846) - Sobraon (10 Feb 1846). Order: I-II-III-IV.
14. Q44: Which of the following statements about Rauf is/are correct? I. Rauf is a traditional folk dance performed on folk songs in the Kashmir dialect. II. It is typically a solo performance by a woman only.
    Answer: C — I and III
    The correct answer is I and III. Key Points - Rauf is a Kashmiri group folk dance (not solo), so II is incorrect. - I and III are correct - performed on Kashmiri folk songs and dancers wear pherans with ornate jewellery.
15. Q45: How many of the following pairs are correct? Hokersar wetland - Srinagar district, Mansar lake - Samba district, Wular lake - Bandipora district, Hygam wetland - Baramulla district
    Answer: D — All of the above
    The correct answer is All of the above. Key Points - All four pairs are correctly matched: Hokersar (Srinagar), Mansar (Samba), Wular (Bandipora), Hygam (Baramulla).
16. Q46: Match Districts with Products under One District One Product (ODOP): i. Baramulla - a. Pickles ii. Udhampur - b. Apples iii. Samba - c. Honey iv. Ramban - d. Mushroom products
    Answer: C — i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c. Key Points - This matches districts of Jammu & Kashmir with their One District One Product (ODOP) items. The correct pairing is: - i. Baramulla → b. Apples — Baramulla in the Kashmir Valley
17. Q47: Identify the correct statements about the MUMKIN scheme in J&K UT. I. Mumkin Livelihood Generation Scheme is aimed at empowering young population. II. It provides upto Rs. 80000 subsidy or 10% of
    Answer: D — I, II and III
    The correct answer is I, II and III. Key Points - All three statements are correct about the MUMKIN Livelihood Generation Scheme in J&K - targets youth (18-35 years) with Rs. 80,000 subsidy or 10% on-road price for commercial vehicles.
18. Q48: Which of the following species in the J&K region has Endangered status as per the IUCN Red Book? I. Hangul II. Snow Leopard III. Ibex IV. Himalayan Tahr V. Markhor VI. Cheer Pheasant
    Answer: C — II, III, IV and VI only
    The correct answer is II, III, IV and VI only. Key Points - Snow Leopard (Vulnerable), Ibex (Near Threatened/Vulnerable), Himalayan Tahr (Near Threatened), Cheer Pheasant (Vulnerable) - all have conservation concern status. - Hangul is Crit
19. Q49: Which of the following was not a provision under the J&K Reorganization Act, 2019?
    Answer: B — Judges appointed to the High Court are selected by the Union Government only.
    The correct answer is Judges appointed to the High Court are selected by the Union Government only.. Key Points - Judges are appointed by the President in consultation with the CJI as per constitutional provisions - not by the Union Governm
20. Q50: Which of the following rivers are tributaries of the river Jhelum? I. Niki Tawi II. Veshaw river III. Brengi river IV. Jajhar V. Rambiara river
    Answer: C — II, III and V only
    The correct answer is II, III and V only. Key Points - Veshaw, Brengi, and Rambiara are tributaries of the Jhelum. - Tawi is a tributary of the Chenab, not the Jhelum.

General Science — Solved Questions

1. Q51: If the distance between two masses is doubled, the gravitational force becomes:
   Answer: D — One-fourth
   The correct answer is One-fourth. Key Points - This uses Newton's law of universal gravitation, which states that the gravitational force between two masses is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them: - F = G·m₁·m₂
2. Q52: Match the following Organic Acids with their corresponding sources: i. Oxalic acid - a. Dark chocolate ii. Acetic acid - b. Ant sting iii. Ascorbic acid - c. Apples iv. Methanoic acid - d. Guava, amla
   Answer: D — i-a, ii-e, iii-d, iv-b, v-c
   The correct answer is i-a, ii-e, iii-d, iv-b, v-c. Key Points - Oxalic acid - dark chocolate/spinach. Acetic acid - vinegar. - Ascorbic acid (Vit C) - guava, amla. - Methanoic (Formic) acid - ant sting. Malic acid - apples.
3. Q53: Identify the correct source of energy: I. It is a non-renewable but low-carbon energy source. II. It is a reliable source but poses challenges related to radioactive waste disposal and safety. III. A
   Answer: D — Nuclear Fuels
   The correct answer is Nuclear Fuels. Key Points - All three statements describe nuclear fuels - non-renewable, low carbon, reliable but with waste/safety concerns, and energy from fission.
4. Q54: Which of the following statements is NOT related to Ocean Energy? A) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion generates electricity due to the temperature difference between warm air above the sea surface and
   Answer: A — OTEC generates electricity due to the temperature difference between warm air above the sea surface and cold ocean water
   The correct answer is OTEC generates electricity due to the temperature difference between warm air above the sea surface and cold ocean water. Key Points - OTEC uses the temperature difference between warm surface WATER and cold deep ocean
5. Q55: Which of the following non-metals exists in the liquid state at room temperature?
   Answer: B — Bromine
   The correct answer is Bromine. Key Points - Bromine (Br2) is the only non-metal that exists as a liquid at room temperature. - Sulphur, Phosphorus, and Iodine are solids.
6. Q56: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding metals? I. Form basic oxides II. Good reducing agents III. High electronegativity IV. High ionization energy
   Answer: A — Only I, II
   The correct answer is Only I, II. Key Points - Metals form basic oxides (I: correct) and are good reducing agents (II: correct). - Metals have LOW electronegativity (III: incorrect) and LOW ionization energy (IV: incorrect).
7. Q57: Which gas is produced when water reacts with calcium?
   Answer: A — Hydrogen
   The correct answer is Hydrogen. Key Points - Calcium is a reactive alkaline-earth metal that reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide and release hydrogen gas: - Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂↑. - The reaction is less violent than that of sodi
8. Q58: What happens when magnesium sulphate solution is added to copper metal?
   Answer: D — No reaction occurs
   The correct answer is No reaction occurs. Key Points - Copper is below magnesium in the reactivity series, so copper cannot displace magnesium from its salt solution. No reaction occurs.
9. Q59: Arrange the following metals in decreasing order of reactivity: I. Gold II. Calcium III. Silver IV. Cobalt V. Magnesium VI. Nickel VII. Platinum VIII. Lithium
   Answer: B — VIII < II < V < IV < VI < III < VII < I
   The correct answer is VIII < II < V < IV < VI < III < VII < I. Key Points - Decreasing reactivity: Li(VIII) Ca(II) Mg(V) Co(IV) Ni(VI) Ag(III) Pt(VII) Au(I). - Reading most to least reactive: VIII, II, V, IV, VI, III, V
10. Q60: Which of the following pairs is correct with respect to ores and the metals present in these ores?
    Answer: C — Halide ores ; Silver (Horn silver, AgCl)
    The correct answer is Halide ores ; Silver (Horn silver, AgCl). Key Points - Horn silver (AgCl) is a halide ore of silver. - Iron pyrites (FeS2) is a sulphide ore. - Hemimorphite is a silicate ore of zinc. - Anglesite (PbSO4) is a sulphate
11. Q61: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the extraction of metals? I. Highly reactive metals (like sodium and potassium) are extracted by electrolysis. II. Moderately reactive metals
    Answer: D — All of the above
    The correct answer is All of the above. Key Points - All three methods are correct as per the activity series: electrolysis for highly reactive, carbon reduction for moderately reactive, and simple heating for less reactive metals.
12. Q62: Which term best describes the mode of nutrition in both yeast and mushrooms?
    Answer: A — Saprophytic
    The correct answer is Saprophytic. Key Points - Yeast and mushrooms are fungi that obtain nutrition by decomposing dead organic matter - saprophytic nutrition.
13. Q63: Which plant structures function as gateways for gas exchange?
    Answer: B — Stomata
    The correct answer is Stomata. Key Points - Stomata are the primary openings in leaves for gas exchange (CO2 and O2). - Lenticels allow gas exchange in woody stems but are secondary.
14. Q64: Which of the following terms is NOT related to the structural and functional unit of the kidney?
    Answer: C — Glottis
    The correct answer is Glottis. Key Points - Nephrons, Bowman capsule, and Glomerulus are all parts of the kidney functional unit. - Glottis is the opening between vocal cords in the larynx - not related to the kidney.
15. Q65: Classify the following substances as biodegradable and non-biodegradable.
    Answer: A — Biodegradable: Animal bones, Leather ; Non-Biodegradable: DDT, Mercury, Lead, Silver foils
    The correct answer is Biodegradable: Animal bones, Leather ; Non-Biodegradable: DDT, Mercury, Lead, Silver foils. Key Points - Animal bones and leather are biodegradable (organic materials that decompose). - DDT (persistent organic pollutan
16. Q66: The correct sequence in an aquatic food chain is:
    Answer: C — Algae - Sea urchins - Crab - Squid - Spotted dolphin - Tiger shark
    The correct answer is Algae - Sea urchins - Crab - Squid - Spotted dolphin - Tiger shark. Key Points - Aquatic food chain: Algae (producer) - Sea urchins (herbivore) - Crab - Squid - Spotted dolphin - Tiger shark (apex predator).
17. Q67: Which of the following ozone-depleting substances are correctly matched with their primary sources?
    Answer: D — Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) - Refrigerants and aerosol propellants
    The correct answer is Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) - Refrigerants and aerosol propellants. Key Points - CFCs are used as refrigerants and aerosol propellants - the primary ODS. - Halons are fire extinguishers. - Methyl bromide is a soil fumig
18. Q68: In Mendel pea plant experiments, which of the following is recessive?
    Answer: B — The trait that hides in F1 but reappears in F2
    The correct answer is The trait that hides in F1 but reappears in F2. Key Points - Recessive traits are masked by dominant traits in F1 but reappear in approximately 1/4 of F2 offspring.
19. Q69: Match the categories of asexual reproduction in plants with their correct examples: i. Vegetative propagation ii. Fragmentation iii. Budding iv. Spore formation | a. Mosses and liverworts b. Begonia a
    Answer: A — i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d. Key Points - Vegetative propagation - Begonia/Bryophyllum. - Fragmentation - Mosses/Liverworts. Budding - Yeast/Hydra. - Spore formation - Clostridium/Bacillus.
20. Q70: Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Vertebrates? I. These are a subphylum of chordates characterized by the presence of a vertebral column or backbone. II. They show bilat
    Answer: D — All of the above
    The correct answer is All of the above. Key Points - All three statements are correct. - Vertebrates are a subphylum of Chordata, show bilateral symmetry, and include fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals.

Computer Knowledge — Solved Questions

1. Q71: In a computer laboratory, a system boots normally and successfully compiles a program, but the program does not execute and no error message is displayed. The most likely cause is:
   Answer: B — Insufficient RAM
   The correct answer is Insufficient RAM. Key Points - If the system boots and compiles but cannot run the program without an error, the most likely cause is insufficient RAM to load and execute the program.
2. Q72: Which of the following statements correctly describes a tactile display (refreshable braille display)?
   Answer: A — It is an electro-mechanical device that uses round-tipped pins to represent Braille characters by raising them through holes in a flat surface.
   The correct answer is It is an electro-mechanical device that uses round-tipped pins to represent Braille characters by raising them through holes in a flat surface.. Key Points - A refreshable Braille display uses electro-mechanical pins t
3. Q73: Which statement is correct regarding the interaction between computer hardware and system software?
   Answer: C — An operating system acts as an intermediary between hardware and application software by managing resources and providing hardware abstraction.
   The correct answer is An operating system acts as an intermediary between hardware and application software by managing resources and providing hardware abstraction.. Key Points - An operating system acts as an intermediary between hardware
4. Q74: Which of the following statements about input and output devices is MOST accurate?
   Answer: B — Optical Character Recognition (OCR) scanners are purely input devices because they convert physical text into digital form, and cannot provide feedback or output to the user.
   The correct answer is Optical Character Recognition (OCR) scanners are purely input devices because they convert physical text into digital form, and cannot provide feedback or output to the user.. Key Points - OCR scanners are purely input
5. Q75: A school computer lab has 20 identical computers. Several systems show: computer powers on (fans spin and lights turn on), but nothing appears on the monitor and no startup sound is heard. Monitors an
   Answer: C — A hardware failure in a core internal component
   The correct answer is A hardware failure in a core internal component. Key Points - Since the OS drive from a working system still fails, the OS is not the cause. - The issue must be hardware - likely RAM, GPU, or motherboard failure.
6. Q76: A student creates a VBA script in MS Access attached to the On Click event of a button. The script iterates through all records in the Students table. What does the script do?
   Answer: B — It automatically updates every record in the student table.
   The correct answer is It automatically updates every record in the student table.. Key Points - The VBA script iterates through all records and applies an update operation - it automatically updates every record in the Students table.
7. Q77: Anaya is making a long report in MS Word. She wants pages 1-3 to use Roman numerals (i, ii, iii) and the rest to start from 1, 2, 3. What should she do?
   Answer: B — Add a section break and format page numbers separately
   The correct answer is Add a section break and format page numbers separately. Key Points - To use different page numbering styles in one Word document, insert a section break and format page numbers independently for each section.
8. Q78: Riya works in a small office where all computers are connected through a LAN using Ethernet cables, but the network is not connected to any ISP or the Internet. She tries to send an email to her boss
   Answer: D — No, because Gmail needs Internet access to contact its remote servers
   The correct answer is No, because Gmail needs Internet access to contact its remote servers. Key Points - Gmail is a web-based service that requires internet access to reach Google servers. - A LAN without an ISP connection cannot send emai
9. Q79: While sending an email with a large attachment, Aarav notices that the email client automatically uploads the file and shares it as a link instead of attaching it directly. Which Internet feature make
   Answer: A — Cloud storage integration
   The correct answer is Cloud storage integration. Key Points - Cloud storage integration allows email clients to upload large files to cloud servers (Google Drive, OneDrive) and share them as links instead of direct attachments.
10. Q80: Match the terms (Column-A) with their most accurate descriptions (Column-B): i. Cache Memory ii. Register iii. Interpreter iv. Compiler | a. Translates entire programs before execution b. Named memory
    Answer: D — i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a. Key Points - Cache Memory - named memory locations in processor (b). - Register - small storage inside CPU for immediate operations (d). - Interpreter - line-by-line execution (c). - Compiler -
11. Q81: A digital artist wants to create detailed digital drawings on his computer. He finds it difficult to draw accurately using only a mouse. Which device would help him draw naturally and precisely?
    Answer: A — Graphics tablet
    The correct answer is Graphics tablet. Key Points - A graphics tablet (drawing tablet) allows artists to draw naturally using a stylus, providing precise input for digital art.
12. Q82: A video editor installs a new high-end graphics card in her computer. The computer detects the card physically. Still, video editing software cannot use its advanced features. What does she need to in
    Answer: D — Device driver
    The correct answer is Device driver. Key Points - A device driver is required to allow the operating system and applications to communicate with hardware. - Without the correct driver, hardware cannot be utilised by software.
13. Q83: Which of the following statements is NOT true about virtual memory in an operating system?
    Answer: C — It permanently stores running processes in secondary storage
    The correct answer is It permanently stores running processes in secondary storage. Key Points - Virtual memory does not permanently store running processes in secondary storage - it uses demand paging, loading only required portions into R
14. Q84: Which component of an operating system is primarily responsible for maintaining the mapping between file names and their physical storage locations?
    Answer: A — File system directory structure
    The correct answer is File system directory structure. Key Points - The file system directory structure maintains the mapping between file names and their physical locations on storage devices.
15. Q85: A cybersecurity researcher needs an operating system for network testing, scripting, and advanced system customization, with strong command-line tools and open-source flexibility. Which OS is most sui
    Answer: B — Linux
    The correct answer is Linux. Key Points - Linux is the preferred OS for cybersecurity researchers due to its powerful command-line tools, scripting capabilities, open-source nature, and customization options.
16. Q86: Which of the following options best explains how a web browser loads a webpage when a user enters a URL?
    Answer: C — DNS finds the IP and HTTP/HTTPS loads the page
    The correct answer is DNS finds the IP and HTTP/HTTPS loads the page. Key Points - When a URL is entered, the DNS resolves the domain name to an IP address, then HTTP/HTTPS is used to fetch the webpage from the server.
17. Q87: Aarohi is creating a presentation and wants a logo to appear automatically in the same position on all current and future slides, without manually adding it to each slide. Which feature should she use
    Answer: D — Slide Master
    The correct answer is Slide Master. Key Points - Slide Master in PowerPoint allows elements to be placed once and appear automatically on all slides - ideal for logos and consistent branding.
18. Q88: Aditi wants Excel to calculate the average of cells A1 to A5 only if their total sum is greater than 100, otherwise display Low. She writes: =IF((SUM(A1:A5)100,(AVERAGE(A1:A5),Low))). Is this formula
    Answer: C — No, it will not work because of a syntax issue
    The correct answer is No, it will not work because of a syntax issue. Key Points - The formula has a syntax error - extra parentheses. - Correct syntax: =IF(SUM(A1:A5)100,AVERAGE(A1:A5),Low).
19. Q89: Which feature allows a user to apply a uniform layout, fonts, and design elements automatically across all pages or slides in a document or presentation?
    Answer: B — Master template system
    The correct answer is Master template system. Key Points - A master template system (like Slide Master in PowerPoint or Styles in Word) applies uniform design across all pages/slides automatically.
20. Q90: Which feature enables software to store, organize, and manipulate structured data in rows and columns for efficient analysis?
    Answer: B — Database management
    The correct answer is Database management. Key Points - Database management systems store, organise, and manipulate structured data in rows and columns (tables) for efficient retrieval and analysis.

English Language — Solved Questions

1. Q91: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: Persiflage
   Answer: B — Banter
   The correct answer is Banter. Key Points - 'Persiflage' means light, teasing, good-humoured talk — in other words, banter. - Its closest synonym among the options is therefore Banter. - The other choices are unrelated or opposite: 'Criticis
2. Q92: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: Recalcitrant
   Answer: C — Rebellious
   The correct answer is Rebellious. Key Points - 'Recalcitrant' means stubbornly resistant to authority or control — that is, rebellious and uncooperative. - So the correct synonym is Rebellious. - The distractors 'Compliant', 'Submissive' an
3. Q93: Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word: Succinct
   Answer: C — Long-winded
   The correct answer is Long-winded. Key Points - Succinct means brief and clearly expressed. - Antonym: Long-winded (verbose, using more words than necessary).
4. Q94: Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word: Perturbed
   Answer: A — Calm
   The correct answer is Calm. Key Points - This asks for the antonym (opposite) of 'Perturbed', which means anxious, worried or agitated. - The opposite state is calm and untroubled, so the answer is Calm. - The other options — 'Unsettled', '
5. Q95: Rearrange the parts of the sentence in the correct order. Ancient mythologies: P. while adapting to contemporary interpretations and themes Q. influencing modern literature, cinema and philosophy R. p
   Answer: A — SQRP
   The correct answer is SQRP. Key Points - Logical order: S (have transcended time) - Q (influencing modern literature) - R (preserving cultural traditions) - P (while adapting to contemporary themes).
6. Q96: Which of the given options is the most logical sequencing of the following sentences? I. They are responsible for pollinating many plants. II. Bees are essential for biodiversity and food production.
   Answer: C — II-I-III-IV
   The correct answer is II-I-III-IV. Key Points - II (Bees are essential) - I (They pollinate plants) - III (population declining) - IV (reasons: habitat loss and pesticides). Additional Information - Find the opening sentence first: it intro
7. Q97: Select the correct direct form of the given sentence: She asked me why I had been smoking that day
   Answer: D — She said to me, Why were you smoking today?
   The correct answer is She said to me, Why were you smoking today?. Key Points - Past perfect continuous (had been smoking) - past continuous (were you smoking) in direct speech. that day - today. - She said, Why were you smoking today?
8. Q98: Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom: Give a piece of one's mind
   Answer: B — To rebuke someone strongly
   The correct answer is To rebuke someone strongly. Key Points - The idiom 'to give someone a piece of one's mind' means to scold or rebuke them strongly — to express anger or criticism frankly and forcefully. - So the correct meaning is 'To
9. Q99: Select the word which means the same as the group of words given: Who wanders from place to place and lives by begging
   Answer: D — Vagrant
   The correct answer is Vagrant. Key Points - The one-word substitution for 'one who wanders from place to place and lives by begging' is 'Vagrant' — a homeless person who roams around without regular work, often subsisting by begging. - The
10. Q100: Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence: Hello, he said to his friend. What can I do for you?
    Answer: C — He greeted his friend and asked what he could do for him.
    The correct answer is He greeted his friend and asked what he could do for him.. Key Points - The indirect form combines the greeting and question: He greeted his friend and asked what he could do for him.
11. Q101: According to the passage, why do scientific revolutions represent a rupture rather than a continuation of prior science? [Passage about Kuhn paradigm shifts and scientific revolutions]
    Answer: B — Because competing paradigms redefine questions and methods, making continuity impossible
    The correct answer is Because competing paradigms redefine questions and methods, making continuity impossible. Key Points - The passage states that new paradigms represent a fundamental reconceptualization of reality - a gestalt switch - m
12. Q102: From the passage, identify the voice used in the sentence: Anomalies are dismissed as errors or as problems to be solved within the existing theoretical structure.
    Answer: C — Passive voice
    The correct answer is Passive voice. Key Points - The sentence uses passive voice - anomalies are dismissed (subject receives the action without specifying the agent).
13. Q103: What type of clause is used in the sentence: Yet, over time, anomalies that cannot be explained within the current paradigm accumulate.
    Answer: B — Relative clause
    The correct answer is Relative clause. Key Points - that cannot be explained within the current paradigm is a relative clause (defining clause) modifying the noun anomalies.
14. Q104: Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error. The constitutional lawyer argued persuasively and with surgical precision, dismantling the opposit
    Answer: D — piece by logic piece
    The correct answer is piece by logic piece. Key Points - piece by logic piece is grammatically incorrect. - The correct idiom is piece by piece - inserting logic breaks the idiomatic expression.
15. Q105: Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error: (I) She quick finished her homework / (II) before dinner, eager to join her friends / (III) at the park for / (IV) an exciting game of soccer.
    Answer: B — I
    The correct answer is I. Key Points - quick should be quickly - an adverb is needed to modify the verb finished. - Segment I contains the grammatical error.
16. Q106: Select the word with the correct spelling to fill in the blank: Hiren loves to use words while writing anything.
    Answer: C — colloquial
    The correct answer is colloquial. Key Points - The correctly spelt word is 'colloquial', meaning informal, everyday, conversational language — the kind used in ordinary speech rather than in formal writing. - The distractors are all misspel
17. Q107: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank: Despite the challenges faced during the expedition, the team managed to reach their destination.
    Answer: A — formidable
    The correct answer is formidable. Key Points - Formidable means inspiring fear or respect through being impressively large or difficult - the correct choice for significant expedition challenges.
18. Q108: Identify the correct type of pronoun in the following sentence: I enjoyed myself during the holidays. Here, Myself is a pronoun.
    Answer: D — reflexive
    The correct answer is reflexive. Key Points - In the sentence 'I enjoyed myself during the holidays,' the word 'myself' is a reflexive pronoun. - A reflexive pronoun ends in -self / -selves (myself, yourself, himself, herself, itself, ourse
19. Q109: Which word has a spelling mistake?
    Answer: B — Conflagaration
    The correct answer is Conflagaration. Key Points - The word with the spelling mistake is 'Conflagaration' — the correct spelling is 'Conflagration' (a large, destructive fire). - The misspelt version wrongly inserts an extra 'a' (confla-ga-
20. Q110: Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment: Can you give me so many examples of subordinate clauses?
    Answer: A — some more examples of
    The correct answer is some more examples of. Key Points - The original phrase 'so many examples of' is incorrect in this request; the idiomatic and grammatical form is 'some more examples of', meaning additional examples. - So the corrected

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