Fully Solved JKSSB Laboratory Attendant Question Paper 2026

Solved questions

1. Q1: A T.V. is sold at 8% gain. Had it been sold for Rs. 2553 less; there would have been loss of 15%. To gain 18% the selling price (in Rs.) of T.V. would be:
   Answer: B - 13098
   Let CP = x. SP at 8% gain = 1.08x; at 15% loss = 0.85x. Difference = 0.23x = 2553 - x = 11100. SP at 18% gain = 1.18 x 11100 = 13098.
2. Q2: A card is drawn at random from a pack of 100 cards numbered 1 to 100. The probability of drawing a number which is a square, is
   Answer: A - 1/10
   Perfect squares from 1-100: 1,4,9,16,25,36,49,64,81,100 - 10 numbers. Probability = 10/100 = 1/10.
3. Q3: A sphere is placed in a cube so that it touches all the faces of the cube. If 'a' is the ratio of the volume of the cube to the volume of the sphere and 'b' is the ratio of the surface area of the sphere to the surface a
   Answer: D - 1
   Side = s, sphere radius = s/2. a = s^3/(pis^3/6) = 6/pi. b = pis^2/(6s^2) = pi/6. ab = (6/pi)(pi/6) = 1.
4. Q4: In a medical transaction, 17 times the cost price is equal to 8 times the sum of the cost price and the selling price. What is the gain or loss percentage?
   Answer: C - Gain 12.5%
   17CP = 8(CP+SP) = 9CP = 8SP = SP = 9CP/8 = 1.125CP. Gain = 12.5%.
5. Q5: It is decided that a loan of 10,000 will be paid off at the rate of 800 per month in 15 equal instalments. Find out the rate of return on investment.
   Answer: A - 16% P.a.
   Total repayment = 15 x 800 = 12000; interest = 2000 on 10000 over 15 months. Using the instalment interest method this works out to approximately 16% p.a.
6. Q6: A man ordered 4 pairs of black socks and some pairs of brown socks. The price of a black socks is double that of a brown pair. While preparing the bill the clerk interchanged the number of black and brown pairs by mistak
   Answer: B - 1:4
   Let brown pairs = x, price of brown = P, black = 2P. Original bill = 4(2P)+xP = (8+x)P. Swapped bill = x(2P)+4P = (2x+4)P. (2x+4)/(8+x) = 1.5 = 0.5x = 8 = x = 16. Ratio = 4:16 = 1:4.
7. Q7: A right circular cone is exactly fitted inside a cube in such a way that the edges of the base of the cone are touching the edges of one of the faces of the cube and the vertex is on the opposite face of the cube. If the
   Answer: C - 90 cc
   Side = 7 cm, cone radius = 3.5 cm, height = 7 cm. V = (1/3)pi(3.5^2)(7) = (1/3)(22/7)(12.25)(7) approx 90 cc.
8. Q8: The compound interest (compounding annually) on a certain sum at the rate of 8 percent per annum for two years is Rs. 6656. What would be the simple interest on the same sum at the same rate of interest for two years?
   Answer: B - Rs. 6400
   CI = P[(1.08^2)-1] = 0.1664P = 6656 = P = 40000. SI = 40000 x 0.08 x 2 = Rs. 6400.
9. Q9: The length breadth and height of a rectangular box are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 4, respectively, and the cost of covering it with a sheet of paper at the rate of Rs. 1.50 per square metre is Rs. 1,950. Find 50% of the volume
   Answer: A - 1500
   Dimensions = 3k, 2k, 4k. TSA = 2(6k^2+8k^2+12k^2) = 52k^2. 52k^2 x 1.5 = 1950 = k^2 = 25 = k = 5. Volume = 15x10x20 = 3000 m3. 50% = 1500 m3.
10. Q10: A dice is thrown once. Find the probability that 3 or greater than 3 turns up.
    Answer: D - 2/3
    Numbers = 3 on a die: 3, 4, 5, 6 - 4 out of 6 faces. Probability = 4/6 = 2/3.
11. Q11: Complete the Number Series: 5, 11, 23, 47, 95, ?
    Answer: B - 191
    Pattern: x2 + 1. 5-11-23-47-95-191.
12. Q12: Complete the Number Series: 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ?
    Answer: A - 46
    Differences: 5, 7, 9, 11, 13 (odd numbers). Next: 35 + 11 = 46.
13. Q13: Complete the Number Series: 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ?
    Answer: C - 21
    Triangular numbers: n(n+1)/2. Next = 6x7/2 = 21.
14. Q14: Complete the Letter Series: Z, X, U, Q, L, ?
    Answer: B - F
    Positions: 26, 24, 21, 17, 12, 6. Differences: 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 (increasing). 12 - 6 = 6 - F.
15. Q15: Complete the Letter Series: AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?
    Answer: A - EV
    First letter moves A-B-C-D-E. Second letter moves Z-Y-X-W-V. Next = EV.
16. Q16: Complete the Letter Series: A, C, B, E, D, H, ?
    Answer: B - G
    Pairs: (A,C), (B,E), (D,H) - gaps of 1,2,3 between pairs. After H(8) the next is G(7) completing the pattern.
17. Q17: If COMPUTER is coded as FRPSXWHU, how is SCIENCE coded?
    Answer: A - VFLHQFH
    Each letter shifted +3: S-V, C-F, I-L, E-H, N-Q, C-F, E-H - VFLHQFH.
18. Q18: If DOG is written as WLT, how is CAT written?
    Answer: A - XZG
    Each letter - 27 minus its position: D(4)-W(23), O(15)-L(12), G(7)-T(20). C(3)-X(24), A(1)-Z(26), T(20)-G(7) = XZG.
19. Q19: Ravi walks 15 m east, then 12 m north, then 15 m west, and finally 5 m south. In which direction is Ravi now with respect to his starting point?
    Answer: A - North
    Net East-West: 15E - 15W = 0. Net North-South: 12N - 5S = 7 m North. He is due North of start.
20. Q20: A man faces south. He turns 90 degrees clockwise, then 180 degrees anticlockwise, and again 270 degrees clockwise. Which direction is he facing now?
    Answer: A - North
    South +90CW = West. West -180 = East. East +270CW = North.
21. Q21: If A + B means A is the mother of B, A - B means A is the brother of B, A x B means A is the father of B, What does P - Q x R + S mean?
    Answer: B - P is paternal uncle of S
    P-Q: P is brother of Q. Q x R: Q is father of R. R+S: R is mother of S. Q and R are S parents. P is Q brother (S paternal uncle).
22. Q22: Introducing a woman, Raj said, She is the wife of the only son of my mother-in-law. How is the woman related to Raj?
    Answer: C - Sister-in-law
    Raj mother-in-law only son = Raj wife brother. The woman is that brother wife = Raj sister-in-law.
23. Q23: Consider the following statement: There has been a sharp increase in online education platforms. Possible Causes: I. Affordable internet availability II. Increased demand for flexible learning. Choose the correct option:
    Answer: C - Both I and II
    Both affordable internet and demand for flexible learning are valid independent causes for the rise in online education platforms.
24. Q24: Statement: All teachers are educated. Conclusion: Some educated people are teachers.
    Answer: A - True
    If all teachers are educated, then the educated set contains all teachers, so some educated people are teachers - True.
25. Q25: A car covers a distance at 50 km/h and returns at 40 km/h. What is the average speed for the whole journey?
    Answer: A - 44.4 km/h
    Average speed = 2v1v2/(v1+v2) = 2x50x40/90 = 4000/90 approx 44.4 km/h.
26. Q26: If a man increases his speed by 25%, he takes 1 hour less to cover a certain distance. What was the original time?
    Answer: C - 5 hours
    New speed = 1.25v, new time = t-1. Distance d = vt = 1.25v(t-1) = t = 1.25t-1.25 = 0.25t = 1.25 = t = 5 hours.
27. Q27: Two trains of lengths 120 m and 180 m are moving in opposite directions at 54 km/h and 72 km/h respectively. How long will they take to cross each other?
    Answer: B - 9 sec
    Relative speed = 126 km/h = 35 m/s. Total length = 300 m. Time = 300/35 approx 8.57 approx 9 sec.
28. Q28: Statement: All fruits are sweet. All apples are fruits. Conclusion: All apples are sweet.
    Answer: A - True
    Valid syllogism: All A are B (fruits are sweet), All C are A (apples are fruits) = All C are B (apples are sweet). True.
29. Q29: Assertion (A): All squares are rectangles. Reason (R): All rectangles have four right angles. Choose the correct option:
    Answer: B - Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    A is true (squares satisfy all rectangle conditions). R is true. But R does not fully explain A - squares also need equal sides, not captured by R alone.
30. Q30: Assertion (A): No cat is a dog. Reason (R): Some dogs are pets. Choose the correct option:
    Answer: B - Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    A is true (cats and dogs are different species). R is true (dogs can be pets). But R has no logical connection to A.
31. Q31: Consider the following statements regarding India nuclear energy policy and the SHANTI Act, 2025. (I) The SHANTI Act, 2025, allows private sector participation in nuclear power generation. (II) India has set a target of
    Answer: A - I only
    The SHANTI Act 2025 allows private sector participation (I correct). The 100 GW target is by 2047, not 2030 (II incorrect). The act caps, not retains unlimited, supplier liability (III incorrect). Only I is correct.
32. Q32: Match Military Exercises with Partner Country: i. Yudh Abhyaas - a. USA ii. Zapad - b. Egypt iii. Mitra-Shakti - c. Sri Lanka iv. Bright Star - d. Russia
    Answer: B - i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b
    Yudh Abhyaas - USA. Zapad - Russia (Russia-Belarus joint exercise). Mitra-Shakti - Sri Lanka. Bright Star - Egypt.
33. Q33: Consider the following statements about the United Nations Security Council. I. As per Article 23, the Security Council shall consist of fifteen Members. II. Non-permanent members shall be elected for a term of five year
    Answer: C - I and III only
    Article 23 - 15 members (I: correct). Non-permanent members serve 2-year terms, not 5 (II: incorrect). Retiring members cannot be immediately re-elected (III: correct). Answer: I and III.
34. Q34: Consider the following statements about India Space mission achievements. I. Axiom Mission 4 enabled human spaceflight for India, Poland, and Hungary. II. SPaDeX Mission made India the first country to successfully carry
    Answer: A - I only
    Axiom Mission 4 included India Shubhanshu Shukla - India first government-sponsored spaceflight (I: correct). SPaDeX made India the 4th country to achieve satellite docking; it was not the first globally (II: incorrect).
35. Q35: In India three-stage nuclear program, the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) is important because: I. It uses uranium-238 to breed plutonium in a sodium-cooled fast reactor. II. Thorium-232, though not fissile, is pro
    Answer: D - I, II and III
    All three statements correctly describe PFBR role in India three-stage nuclear programme. PFBR breeds Pu from U-238 (Stage II), uses Th-232 as blanket, and the Th-U-233 cycle powers Stage III.
36. Q36: ITER is considered important for India and the world because: I. It demonstrates sustainable, clean fusion energy for the future. II. It allows India to participate in cutting-edge nuclear fusion research. III. It provid
    Answer: B - I and II only
    ITER is an experimental reactor - it does not provide commercial electricity (III is incorrect). I and II are correct.
37. Q37: Identify the correct statements about the Nobel Peace Prize, 2025. I. It was awarded to Maria Corina Machado of Venezuela. II. According to the Norwegian Nobel Committee, it can be transferred by the recipient to any oth
    Answer: A - I only
    The Nobel Peace Prize 2025 was awarded to Maria Corina Machado (I: correct). The Nobel Prize cannot be transferred (II: incorrect).
38. Q38: Consider the following statements: I. As per Economic Survey 2025-26, India accounts for more than 5% of global merchandise exports. II. As per Economic Survey 2025-26, India service imports were greater than its exports
    Answer: D - Neither I nor II
    India share of global merchandise exports is around 2-3%, not more than 5% (I: incorrect). India is a net exporter of services, so service exports imports (II: incorrect). Neither is correct.
39. Q39: Assertion (A): A rise in per capita GNP always reflects an improvement in living standards. Reason (R): Income levels are fundamental metrics of Economic development. Which is/are correct?
    Answer: D - A is false, R is true
    A is false - per capita GNP can rise while inequality worsens, so living standards need not improve for all. R is true - income is a key economic metric. A is false but R is true.
40. Q40: Two places, X (terrestrial) and Y (marine), are at the same latitude. During summer, Place X records 42C and Place Y records 32C. During winter, Place X records 0C and Place Y records 10C. What is the most plausible expl
    Answer: C - Land has a lower specific heat capacity than oceans
    Land heats and cools faster than oceans because land has a lower specific heat capacity. This explains X higher summer and lower winter temperatures compared to coastal Y.
41. Q41: Statement I: The Mission for Atmanirbharta in Pulses aims to make India self-sufficient in pulses by 2030-31. Statement II: The mission seeks to reduce import dependence, boost domestic production and improve farmers inc
    Answer: A - Statement I and Statement II are correct
    Both statements correctly describe the Mission for Atmanirbharta in Pulses - self-sufficiency by 2030-31 and objectives of reducing imports and improving farmer incomes.
42. Q42: Match the following ports with their associated features: i. Kamarajar port - a. first corporatised major port ii. JNPT port - b. first deep-water transshipment hub iii. Paradip port - c. India first landlord-model port
    Answer: C - i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
    Kamarajar - India first corporatised major port. JNPT - India first landlord-model port. Paradip - top cargo-handling major port. Vizhinjam - India first deep-water transshipment hub.
43. Q43: Arrange the following battles of the First Anglo-Sikh War in chronological order: I. Battle of Mudki II. Battle of Ferozeshah III. Battle of Aliwal IV. Battle of Sobraon
    Answer: A - I-II-III-IV
    Mudki (18 Dec 1845) - Ferozeshah (21-22 Dec 1845) - Aliwal (28 Jan 1846) - Sobraon (10 Feb 1846). Order: I-II-III-IV.
44. Q44: Which of the following statements about Rauf is/are correct? I. Rauf is a traditional folk dance performed on folk songs in the Kashmir dialect. II. It is typically a solo performance by a woman only. III. Dancers wear t
    Answer: C - I and III
    Rauf is a Kashmiri group folk dance (not solo), so II is incorrect. I and III are correct - performed on Kashmiri folk songs and dancers wear pherans with ornate jewellery.
45. Q45: How many of the following pairs are correct? Hokersar wetland - Srinagar district, Mansar lake - Samba district, Wular lake - Bandipora district, Hygam wetland - Baramulla district
    Answer: D - All of the above
    All four pairs are correctly matched: Hokersar (Srinagar), Mansar (Samba), Wular (Bandipora), Hygam (Baramulla).
46. Q46: Match Districts with Products under One District One Product (ODOP): i. Baramulla - a. Pickles ii. Udhampur - b. Apples iii. Samba - c. Honey iv. Ramban - d. Mushroom products
    Answer: C - i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
    Baramulla - Apples. Udhampur - Pickles. Samba - Mushroom products. Ramban - Honey.
47. Q47: Identify the correct statements about the MUMKIN scheme in J&K UT. I. Mumkin Livelihood Generation Scheme is aimed at empowering young population. II. It provides upto Rs. 80000 subsidy or 10% of on-road price for un
    Answer: D - I, II and III
    All three statements are correct about the MUMKIN Livelihood Generation Scheme in J&K - targets youth (18-35 years) with Rs. 80,000 subsidy or 10% on-road price for commercial vehicles.
48. Q48: Which of the following species in the J&K region has Endangered status as per the IUCN Red Book? I. Hangul II. Snow Leopard III. Ibex IV. Himalayan Tahr V. Markhor VI. Cheer Pheasant
    Answer: C - II, III, IV and VI only
    Snow Leopard (Vulnerable), Ibex (Near Threatened/Vulnerable), Himalayan Tahr (Near Threatened), Cheer Pheasant (Vulnerable) - all have conservation concern status. Hangul is Critically Endangered, Markhor is Near Threatened. The set matching Endangered/Vulnera
49. Q49: Which of the following was not a provision under the J&K Reorganization Act, 2019?
    Answer: B - Judges appointed to the High Court are selected by the Union Government only.
    Judges are appointed by the President in consultation with the CJI as per constitutional provisions - not by the Union Government alone. This was NOT a provision of the J&K Reorganization Act, 2019.
50. Q50: Which of the following rivers are tributaries of the river Jhelum? I. Niki Tawi II. Veshaw river III. Brengi river IV. Jajhar V. Rambiara river
    Answer: C - II, III and V only
    Veshaw, Brengi, and Rambiara are tributaries of the Jhelum. Tawi is a tributary of the Chenab, not the Jhelum.
51. Q51: If the distance between two masses is doubled, the gravitational force becomes:
    Answer: D - One-fourth
    F = Gm1m2/r^2. Doubling r: F = Gm1m2/(2r)^2 = F/4. One-fourth.
52. Q52: Match the following Organic Acids with their corresponding sources: i. Oxalic acid - a. Dark chocolate ii. Acetic acid - b. Ant sting iii. Ascorbic acid - c. Apples iv. Methanoic acid - d. Guava, amla v. Malic acid - e.
    Answer: D - i-a, ii-e, iii-d, iv-b, v-c
    Oxalic acid - dark chocolate/spinach. Acetic acid - vinegar. Ascorbic acid (Vit C) - guava, amla. Methanoic (Formic) acid - ant sting. Malic acid - apples.
53. Q53: Identify the correct source of energy: I. It is a non-renewable but low-carbon energy source. II. It is a reliable source but poses challenges related to radioactive waste disposal and safety. III. A huge amount of energ
    Answer: D - Nuclear Fuels
    All three statements describe nuclear fuels - non-renewable, low carbon, reliable but with waste/safety concerns, and energy from fission.
54. Q54: Which of the following statements is NOT related to Ocean Energy? A) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion generates electricity due to the temperature difference between warm air above the sea surface and cold ocean water. B)
    Answer: A - OTEC generates electricity due to the temperature difference between warm air above the sea surface and cold ocean water
    OTEC uses the temperature difference between warm surface WATER and cold deep ocean water - not warm air. The statement incorrectly says warm air above the sea surface. Hence A is NOT correct.
55. Q55: Which of the following non-metals exists in the liquid state at room temperature?
    Answer: B - Bromine
    Bromine (Br2) is the only non-metal that exists as a liquid at room temperature. Sulphur, Phosphorus, and Iodine are solids.
56. Q56: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding metals? I. Form basic oxides II. Good reducing agents III. High electronegativity IV. High ionization energy
    Answer: A - Only I, II
    Metals form basic oxides (I: correct) and are good reducing agents (II: correct). Metals have LOW electronegativity (III: incorrect) and LOW ionization energy (IV: incorrect).
57. Q57: Which gas is produced when water reacts with calcium?
    Answer: A - Hydrogen
    Ca + 2H2O - Ca(OH)2 + H2. Hydrogen gas is produced.
58. Q58: What happens when magnesium sulphate solution is added to copper metal?
    Answer: D - No reaction occurs
    Copper is below magnesium in the reactivity series, so copper cannot displace magnesium from its salt solution. No reaction occurs.
59. Q59: Arrange the following metals in decreasing order of reactivity: I. Gold II. Calcium III. Silver IV. Cobalt V. Magnesium VI. Nickel VII. Platinum VIII. Lithium
    Answer: B - VIII < II < V < IV < VI < III < VII < I
    Decreasing reactivity: Li(VIII) Ca(II) Mg(V) Co(IV) Ni(VI) Ag(III) Pt(VII) Au(I). Reading most to least reactive: VIII, II, V, IV, VI, III, VII, I.
60. Q60: Which of the following pairs is correct with respect to ores and the metals present in these ores?
    Answer: C - Halide ores ; Silver (Horn silver, AgCl)
    Horn silver (AgCl) is a halide ore of silver. Iron pyrites (FeS2) is a sulphide ore. Hemimorphite is a silicate ore of zinc. Anglesite (PbSO4) is a sulphate ore of lead.
61. Q61: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the extraction of metals? I. Highly reactive metals (like sodium and potassium) are extracted by electrolysis. II. Moderately reactive metals (zinc, iron, lead)
    Answer: D - All of the above
    All three methods are correct as per the activity series: electrolysis for highly reactive, carbon reduction for moderately reactive, and simple heating for less reactive metals.
62. Q62: Which term best describes the mode of nutrition in both yeast and mushrooms?
    Answer: A - Saprophytic
    Yeast and mushrooms are fungi that obtain nutrition by decomposing dead organic matter - saprophytic nutrition.
63. Q63: Which plant structures function as gateways for gas exchange?
    Answer: B - Stomata
    Stomata are the primary openings in leaves for gas exchange (CO2 and O2). Lenticels allow gas exchange in woody stems but are secondary.
64. Q64: Which of the following terms is NOT related to the structural and functional unit of the kidney?
    Answer: C - Glottis
    Nephrons, Bowman capsule, and Glomerulus are all parts of the kidney functional unit. Glottis is the opening between vocal cords in the larynx - not related to the kidney.
65. Q65: Classify the following substances as biodegradable and non-biodegradable.
    Answer: A - Biodegradable: Animal bones, Leather ; Non-Biodegradable: DDT, Mercury, Lead, Silver foils
    Animal bones and leather are biodegradable (organic materials that decompose). DDT (persistent organic pollutant), Mercury, Lead, and Silver foils are non-biodegradable.
66. Q66: The correct sequence in an aquatic food chain is:
    Answer: C - Algae - Sea urchins - Crab - Squid - Spotted dolphin - Tiger shark
    Aquatic food chain: Algae (producer) - Sea urchins (herbivore) - Crab - Squid - Spotted dolphin - Tiger shark (apex predator).
67. Q67: Which of the following ozone-depleting substances are correctly matched with their primary sources?
    Answer: D - Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) - Refrigerants and aerosol propellants
    CFCs are used as refrigerants and aerosol propellants - the primary ODS. Halons are fire extinguishers. Methyl bromide is a soil fumigant. HCFCs are refrigerant/solvent alternatives.
68. Q68: In Mendel pea plant experiments, which of the following is recessive?
    Answer: B - The trait that hides in F1 but reappears in F2
    Recessive traits are masked by dominant traits in F1 but reappear in approximately 1/4 of F2 offspring.
69. Q69: Match the categories of asexual reproduction in plants with their correct examples: i. Vegetative propagation ii. Fragmentation iii. Budding iv. Spore formation | a. Mosses and liverworts b. Begonia and Bryophyllum c. Ye
    Answer: A - i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
    Vegetative propagation - Begonia/Bryophyllum. Fragmentation - Mosses/Liverworts. Budding - Yeast/Hydra. Spore formation - Clostridium/Bacillus.
70. Q70: Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Vertebrates? I. These are a subphylum of chordates characterized by the presence of a vertebral column or backbone. II. They show bilateral symmetry. III.
    Answer: D - All of the above
    All three statements are correct. Vertebrates are a subphylum of Chordata, show bilateral symmetry, and include fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals.
71. Q71: In a computer laboratory, a system boots normally and successfully compiles a program, but the program does not execute and no error message is displayed. The most likely cause is:
    Answer: B - Insufficient RAM
    If the system boots and compiles but cannot run the program without an error, the most likely cause is insufficient RAM to load and execute the program.
72. Q72: Which of the following statements correctly describes a tactile display (refreshable braille display)?
    Answer: A - It is an electro-mechanical device that uses round-tipped pins to represent Braille characters by raising them through holes in a flat surface.
    A refreshable Braille display uses electro-mechanical pins that are raised through holes in a flat surface to represent Braille characters.
73. Q73: Which statement is correct regarding the interaction between computer hardware and system software?
    Answer: C - An operating system acts as an intermediary between hardware and application software by managing resources and providing hardware abstraction.
    An operating system acts as an intermediary between hardware and application software, managing resources and providing hardware abstraction.
74. Q74: Which of the following statements about input and output devices is MOST accurate?
    Answer: B - Optical Character Recognition (OCR) scanners are purely input devices because they convert physical text into digital form, and cannot provide feedback or output to the user.
    OCR scanners are purely input devices - they convert physical text to digital form and cannot produce output. A is incorrect (touchscreen is both input and output). D is incorrect (Braille displays use pins, not vibrations).
75. Q75: A school computer lab has 20 identical computers. Several systems show: computer powers on (fans spin and lights turn on), but nothing appears on the monitor and no startup sound is heard. Monitors and cables are working
    Answer: C - A hardware failure in a core internal component
    Since the OS drive from a working system still fails, the OS is not the cause. The issue must be hardware - likely RAM, GPU, or motherboard failure.
76. Q76: A student creates a VBA script in MS Access attached to the On Click event of a button. The script iterates through all records in the Students table. What does the script do?
    Answer: B - It automatically updates every record in the student table.
    The VBA script iterates through all records and applies an update operation - it automatically updates every record in the Students table.
77. Q77: Anaya is making a long report in MS Word. She wants pages 1-3 to use Roman numerals (i, ii, iii) and the rest to start from 1, 2, 3. What should she do?
    Answer: B - Add a section break and format page numbers separately
    To use different page numbering styles in one Word document, insert a section break and format page numbers independently for each section.
78. Q78: Riya works in a small office where all computers are connected through a LAN using Ethernet cables, but the network is not connected to any ISP or the Internet. She tries to send an email to her boss using Gmail. Can Riy
    Answer: D - No, because Gmail needs Internet access to contact its remote servers
    Gmail is a web-based service that requires internet access to reach Google servers. A LAN without an ISP connection cannot send emails via Gmail.
79. Q79: While sending an email with a large attachment, Aarav notices that the email client automatically uploads the file and shares it as a link instead of attaching it directly. Which Internet feature makes this possible?
    Answer: A - Cloud storage integration
    Cloud storage integration allows email clients to upload large files to cloud servers (Google Drive, OneDrive) and share them as links instead of direct attachments.
80. Q80: Match the terms (Column-A) with their most accurate descriptions (Column-B): i. Cache Memory ii. Register iii. Interpreter iv. Compiler | a. Translates entire programs before execution b. Named memory locations built in
    Answer: D - i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
    Cache Memory - named memory locations in processor (b). Register - small storage inside CPU for immediate operations (d). Interpreter - line-by-line execution (c). Compiler - translates entire programs before execution (a).
81. Q81: A digital artist wants to create detailed digital drawings on his computer. He finds it difficult to draw accurately using only a mouse. Which device would help him draw naturally and precisely?
    Answer: A - Graphics tablet
    A graphics tablet (drawing tablet) allows artists to draw naturally using a stylus, providing precise input for digital art.
82. Q82: A video editor installs a new high-end graphics card in her computer. The computer detects the card physically. Still, video editing software cannot use its advanced features. What does she need to install?
    Answer: D - Device driver
    A device driver is required to allow the operating system and applications to communicate with hardware. Without the correct driver, hardware cannot be utilised by software.
83. Q83: Which of the following statements is NOT true about virtual memory in an operating system?
    Answer: C - It permanently stores running processes in secondary storage
    Virtual memory does not permanently store running processes in secondary storage - it uses demand paging, loading only required portions into RAM. Processes are not permanently stored in the swap space.
84. Q84: Which component of an operating system is primarily responsible for maintaining the mapping between file names and their physical storage locations?
    Answer: A - File system directory structure
    The file system directory structure maintains the mapping between file names and their physical locations on storage devices.
85. Q85: A cybersecurity researcher needs an operating system for network testing, scripting, and advanced system customization, with strong command-line tools and open-source flexibility. Which OS is most suitable?
    Answer: B - Linux
    Linux is the preferred OS for cybersecurity researchers due to its powerful command-line tools, scripting capabilities, open-source nature, and customization options.
86. Q86: Which of the following options best explains how a web browser loads a webpage when a user enters a URL?
    Answer: C - DNS finds the IP and HTTP/HTTPS loads the page
    When a URL is entered, the DNS resolves the domain name to an IP address, then HTTP/HTTPS is used to fetch the webpage from the server.
87. Q87: Aarohi is creating a presentation and wants a logo to appear automatically in the same position on all current and future slides, without manually adding it to each slide. Which feature should she use?
    Answer: D - Slide Master
    Slide Master in PowerPoint allows elements to be placed once and appear automatically on all slides - ideal for logos and consistent branding.
88. Q88: Aditi wants Excel to calculate the average of cells A1 to A5 only if their total sum is greater than 100, otherwise display Low. She writes: =IF((SUM(A1:A5)100,(AVERAGE(A1:A5),Low))). Is this formula correct?
    Answer: C - No, it will not work because of a syntax issue
    The formula has a syntax error - extra parentheses. Correct syntax: =IF(SUM(A1:A5)100,AVERAGE(A1:A5),Low).
89. Q89: Which feature allows a user to apply a uniform layout, fonts, and design elements automatically across all pages or slides in a document or presentation?
    Answer: B - Master template system
    A master template system (like Slide Master in PowerPoint or Styles in Word) applies uniform design across all pages/slides automatically.
90. Q90: Which feature enables software to store, organize, and manipulate structured data in rows and columns for efficient analysis?
    Answer: B - Database management
    Database management systems store, organise, and manipulate structured data in rows and columns (tables) for efficient retrieval and analysis.
91. Q91: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: Persiflage
    Answer: B - Banter
    Persiflage means light, frivolous, bantering talk. Synonym: Banter.
92. Q92: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: Recalcitrant
    Answer: C - Rebellious
    Recalcitrant means stubbornly uncooperative or resistant to authority. Synonym: Rebellious.
93. Q93: Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word: Succinct
    Answer: C - Long-winded
    Succinct means brief and clearly expressed. Antonym: Long-winded (verbose, using more words than necessary).
94. Q94: Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word: Perturbed
    Answer: A - Calm
    Perturbed means troubled or anxious. Antonym: Calm.
95. Q95: Rearrange the parts of the sentence in the correct order. Ancient mythologies: P. while adapting to contemporary interpretations and themes Q. influencing modern literature, cinema and philosophy R. preserving cultural t
    Answer: A - SQRP
    Logical order: S (have transcended time) - Q (influencing modern literature) - R (preserving cultural traditions) - P (while adapting to contemporary themes).
96. Q96: Which of the given options is the most logical sequencing of the following sentences? I. They are responsible for pollinating many plants. II. Bees are essential for biodiversity and food production. III. However, their
    Answer: C - II-I-III-IV
    II (Bees are essential) - I (They pollinate plants) - III (population declining) - IV (reasons: habitat loss and pesticides).
97. Q97: Select the correct direct form of the given sentence: She asked me why I had been smoking that day
    Answer: D - She said to me, Why were you smoking today?
    Past perfect continuous (had been smoking) - past continuous (were you smoking) in direct speech. that day - today. She said, Why were you smoking today?
98. Q98: Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom: Give a piece of one's mind
    Answer: B - To rebuke someone strongly
    Give a piece of one''s mind means to speak angrily or to rebuke someone strongly and honestly.
99. Q99: Select the word which means the same as the group of words given: Who wanders from place to place and lives by begging
    Answer: D - Vagrant
    Vagrant - a person who wanders from place to place without a fixed home, often living by begging.
100. Q100: Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence: Hello, he said to his friend. What can I do for you?
     Answer: C - He greeted his friend and asked what he could do for him.
     The indirect form combines the greeting and question: He greeted his friend and asked what he could do for him.
101. Q101: According to the passage, why do scientific revolutions represent a rupture rather than a continuation of prior science? [Passage about Kuhn paradigm shifts and scientific revolutions]
     Answer: B - Because competing paradigms redefine questions and methods, making continuity impossible
     The passage states that new paradigms represent a fundamental reconceptualization of reality - a gestalt switch - making direct continuity impossible.
102. Q102: From the passage, identify the voice used in the sentence: Anomalies are dismissed as errors or as problems to be solved within the existing theoretical structure.
     Answer: C - Passive voice
     The sentence uses passive voice - anomalies are dismissed (subject receives the action without specifying the agent).
103. Q103: What type of clause is used in the sentence: Yet, over time, anomalies that cannot be explained within the current paradigm accumulate.
     Answer: B - Relative clause
     that cannot be explained within the current paradigm is a relative clause (defining clause) modifying the noun anomalies.
104. Q104: Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error. The constitutional lawyer argued persuasively and with surgical precision, dismantling the opposition case piece by lo
     Answer: D - piece by logic piece
     piece by logic piece is grammatically incorrect. The correct idiom is piece by piece - inserting logic breaks the idiomatic expression.
105. Q105: Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error: (I) She quick finished her homework / (II) before dinner, eager to join her friends / (III) at the park for / (IV) an exciting game of soccer.
     Answer: B - I
     quick should be quickly - an adverb is needed to modify the verb finished. Segment I contains the grammatical error.
106. Q106: Select the word with the correct spelling to fill in the blank: Hiren loves to use words while writing anything.
     Answer: C - colloquial
     The correct spelling is colloquial (relating to informal spoken language).
107. Q107: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank: Despite the challenges faced during the expedition, the team managed to reach their destination.
     Answer: A - formidable
     Formidable means inspiring fear or respect through being impressively large or difficult - the correct choice for significant expedition challenges.
108. Q108: Identify the correct type of pronoun in the following sentence: I enjoyed myself during the holidays. Here, Myself is a pronoun.
     Answer: D - reflexive
     Myself reflects back to the subject I - it is a reflexive pronoun.
109. Q109: Which word has a spelling mistake?
     Answer: B - Conflagaration
     Conflagaration is misspelled. The correct spelling is Conflagration (a large destructive fire).
110. Q110: Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment: Can you give me so many examples of subordinate clauses?
     Answer: A - some more examples of
     so many is incorrect in this context. The correct phrase is some more examples of.
111. Q111: The sum of the 3rd and the 4th term of an A.P. is 19 and that of the 1st and the 7th term is 22. Find the 9th term.
     Answer: D - 26
     Let a = first term, d = common difference. a3+a4 = 2a+5d = 19. a1+a7 = 2a+6d = 22. Solving: d = 3, a = 2. a9 = a+8d = 2+24 = 26.
112. Q112: Which one of the following is true?
     Answer: A - sqrt(5) + sqrt(3) sqrt(6) + sqrt(2)
     Square both: (sqrt5+sqrt3)^2 = 8+2sqrt15, (sqrt6+sqrt2)^2 = 8+2sqrt12. Since sqrt15 sqrt12, sqrt5+sqrt3 sqrt6+sqrt2.
113. Q113: A right circular cone of largest volume is cut out from a solid wooden hemisphere. The remaining material is what percentage of the volume of the original hemisphere?
     Answer: B - 50%
     Hemisphere volume = (2/3)pir^3. Largest inscribed cone: h = r, base radius = r. Cone volume = (1/3)pir^3. Remaining = (1/3)pir^3. Percentage = (1/3)/(2/3) x 100 = 50%.
114. Q114: If x and y are real numbers, then the minimum value of x^2 + 4xy + 6y^2 - 4y + 4 is
     Answer: C - 2
     Rewrite: (x+2y)^2 + 2y^2 - 4y + 4 = (x+2y)^2 + 2(y-1)^2 + 2. Minimum when x+2y=0 and y=1: value = 0+0+2 = 2.
115. Q115: The sum of the height and radius of the base of a solid right circular cylinder is 46 cm. If the total surface area of the solid cylinder is 6072 cm2, what is the volume (in cm3) of the cylinder? (take pi = 22/7)
     Answer: D - 11025 pi
     TSA = 2pir(r+h) = 2pir46 = 6072 = r = 6072/(92pi) = 60727/(9222) = 21 cm. h = 25 cm. V = pi44125 = 11025pi cm3.
116. Q116: Two metallic right circular cones having heights 3.8 cm and 4.6 cm and radii of their bases 2.1 cm each, have been melted together and recast into a sphere. The diameter (in cm) of the sphere is:
     Answer: A - 4.2
     Total cone volume = (1/3)pi(2.1^2)(3.8+4.6) = (1/3)pi(4.41)(8.4) = 12.348pi. (4/3)pir^3 = 12.348pi = r^3 = 9.261 = r = 2.1. Diameter = 4.2 cm.
117. Q117: Shopkeeper bought 40 pieces of an article at a rate of Rs. 50 per item. He sold 35 pieces with 20% profit. The remaining 5 pieces were sold with 10% loss. Find his overall profit percentage.
     Answer: C - 16.25%
     Total CP = 2000. SP of 35 = 35x60 = 2100. SP of 5 = 5x45 = 225. Total SP = 2325. Profit = 325. Profit% = 325/2000 x 100 = 16.25%.
118. Q118: If the difference between the compound interest and simple interest at 17% on a sum of money for 2 years (compounded annually) is Rs. 433.50, then the sum (in Rs.) is:
     Answer: B - 15,000
     CI - SI for 2 years = P(r/100)^2 = P(0.17^2) = 0.0289P = 433.50 = P = 15000.
119. Q119: X and Y are two numbers whose A.M. is 41 and G.M. is 9. Which of the following may be a value of X?
     Answer: B - 81
     X+Y = 82, XY = 81. Equation: t^2 - 82t + 81 = 0. Roots: t = (82+/-80)/2 = 81 or 1. X = 81.
120. Q120: The cost price of articles X and Y is the same. Article X is sold at 20% profit and article Y is sold for Rs. 126 less than the selling price of X. If the net profit by selling both the articles is 14%, then what is the
     Answer: D - 1,050
     Let CP = x. SP of X = 1.2x. SP of Y = 1.2x-126. Total SP = 2.4x-126. Net 14% on 2x: 2.28x. 2.4x-126 = 2.28x = 0.12x = 126 = x = 1050.