JKSSB Patwari Question Paper 2024

General Knowledge & Current Affairs — Solved Questions

1. Q1: The term 'apabhramsa' was used in medieval Sanskrit texts to denote
   Answer: C — Early forms of some of the modern Indian language
   The correct answer is Early forms of some of the modern Indian language. Key Points - The term 'apabhramsa' (literally 'fallen' or 'corrupt' language) was used in medieval Sanskrit texts to denote vernacular languages that deviated from sta
2. Q2: Consider the following statements. 1. Chakiarkoothu dance's theater form is known as Koothambalam. 2. Mizhavu is the accompanying instrument. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   Answer: A — Only 1
   The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Chakiarkoothu is traditionally performed in a special temple theater called Koothambalam (statement 1 is correct). - The accompanying instrument for Koodiyattam/Chakiarkoothu is Mizhavu, but its pr
3. Q3: Kalyana Mandapas was a notable feature in the temple construction of
   Answer: D — Vijayanagara Kingdom
   The correct answer is Vijayanagara Kingdom. Key Points - Kalyana Mandapa (marriage hall) is a distinctive feature of Vijayanagara temple architecture. - These large, ornate pillared halls were used for celebrating divine marriage ceremonies
4. Q4: Assertion (A): Artificial Satellites are always launched from the earth in the eastwards direction. Reason (R): The earth rotates from west to east and so the satellite attains the escape velocity. Ch
   Answer: C — A is correct, but R is incorrect.
   The correct answer is A is correct, but R is incorrect.. Key Points - Assertion A is correct — satellites are launched eastward to benefit from Earth's rotational velocity (~465 m/s at the equator). - However, the Reason is incorrect — sate
5. Q5: Consider the following pairs (Compound – Source): 1. Chocolate – Phenylethylamine 2. Oysters – Aspartic acid 3. Spanish Fly – Formic acid 4. Nutmeg – Myristicin. Which of the above pairs are correctly
   Answer: D — 1, 2 and 4
   The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4. Key Points - Pairs 1 (Chocolate–Phenylethylamine), 2 (Oysters–Aspartic acid), and 4 (Nutmeg–Myristicin) are correctly matched. - Pair 3 is wrong: Spanish Fly (Lytta vesicatoria) contains cantharidin, not fo
6. Q6: Consider the following statements. 1. Malaria is a life-threatening mosquito-borne blood disease caused by Protozoa. 2. Malaria spreads through infected female Anopheles mosquito bites. 3. The R21/Mat
   Answer: B — 2 only
   The correct answer is 2 only. Key Points - Statement 2 is correct — malaria spreads through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. - Statement 1 is debated since Plasmodium is now classified under Apicomplexa, not traditional Pro
7. Q7: The term 'Worldcoin' which was recently seen in news, is a/an?
   Answer: D — Initiative to create a digital network in which everyone can claim some kind of stake, and join the digital economy.
   The correct answer is Initiative to create a digital network in which everyone can claim some kind of stake, and join the digital economy.. Key Points - Worldcoin (now called 'World') was co-founded by Sam Altman. - It uses iris-scanning bi
8. Q8: Which of the following is NOT an objective of NPCI?
   Answer: B — To regulate the payment and settlement systems in India.
   The correct answer is To regulate the payment and settlement systems in India.. Key Points - NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India) operates and facilitates retail payment systems — it does NOT regulate them. - The regulation of paym
9. Q9: Arrange the following in chronological order: 1. Kyoto Protocol 2. Montreal Protocol 3. Vienna Convention 4. Basel Convention
   Answer: C — 3, 2, 4, 1
   The correct answer is 3, 2, 4, 1. Key Points - Chronological order: Vienna Convention (1985) → Montreal Protocol (1987) → Basel Convention (1989) → Kyoto Protocol (1997). - In the given numbering: Vienna(3), Montreal(2), Basel(4), Kyoto(1)
10. Q10: Where is the Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve located in India?
    Answer: B — Himachal Pradesh
    The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh. Key Points - The Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve (Pin Valley) is located in the Spiti Valley of Himachal Pradesh. - It is India's only cold desert biosphere reserve, known for extreme climate, sparse ve
11. Q11: Which of the following are toxic air pollutants? 1. Arsenic 2. Asbestos 3. Benzene 4. Potassium Chloride
    Answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
    The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3. Key Points - Arsenic (1), Asbestos (2), and Benzene (3) are all classified as Hazardous Air Pollutants (HAPs) by the US EPA and are internationally recognized as toxic. - Potassium Chloride (KCl) is a commo
12. Q12: Which of the following was NOT considered by Milankovitch in his mathematical model of climate change?
    Answer: C — Precession of equinoxes
    The correct answer is Precession of equinoxes. Key Points - The official answer key identifies precession of equinoxes as the factor not considered by Milankovitch in his model. - The primary Milankovitch cycles are eccentricity, axial tilt
13. Q13: Consider the following statements. 1. Thadou is a group of people inhabiting Assam. 2. Boro (Bodo) is a group of people inhabiting Manipur. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    Answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
    The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2. Key Points - Both statements are incorrect. - Thadou (Kuki) people primarily inhabit Manipur, not Assam (statement 1 wrong). - Boro/Bodo people are a major ethnic group of Assam, not Manipur (statement
14. Q14: Arrange the following states in descending order on the basis of area: 1. Rajasthan 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Karnataka 4. Maharashtra
    Answer: B — 1, 2, 4, 3
    The correct answer is 1, 2, 4, 3. Key Points - States in descending order by area: Rajasthan (342,239 sq km) Madhya Pradesh (308,252 sq km) Maharashtra (307,713 sq km) Karnataka (191,791 sq km). - The correct descending order is 1, 2, 4, 3.
15. Q15: With reference to the Dams and Rivers, consider the following pairs (Dam/Reservoir – River): 1. Gobind Sagar Reservoir – Satluj 2. Maharana Pratap Sagar Reservoir – Beas 3. Chamera Dam – Ravi. Which o
    Answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
    The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3. Key Points - All three pairs are correctly matched: Gobind Sagar Reservoir is on the Sutlej River (Bhakra Dam, HP) ✓; Maharana Pratap Sagar (Pong Dam) is on the Beas River ✓; Chamera Dam is on the Ravi Rive
16. Q16: Consider the following statements. 1. Devika river originates in Himachal Pradesh. 2. It holds religious significance as it is revered as the sister of river Ganga. 3. It flows towards western Punjab
    Answer: B — 2 and 3 only
    The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. Key Points - Statement 1 is incorrect — the Devika River originates in Udhampur district of J&K, not Himachal Pradesh. - Statement 2 is correct — it is revered as the sister of the Ganga. - Statement
17. Q17: Which of the following statements about National Highway 27 (NH 27) in India is correct?
    Answer: C — NH 27 connects Porbandar in Gujarat to Silchar in Assam.
    The correct answer is NH 27 connects Porbandar in Gujarat to Silchar in Assam.. Key Points - NH-27 (East-West Corridor) connects Porbandar (Gujarat) to Silchar (Assam), spanning approximately 3,507 km. - It passes through Gujarat, Rajasthan
18. Q18: HBJ/HVJ pipeline transports
    Answer: B — Natural Gas
    The correct answer is Natural Gas. Key Points - The HBJ (Hazira-Bijaipur-Jagdishpur) pipeline, later extended as HVJ, is one of India's longest natural gas pipelines. - It transports natural gas from Hazira in Gujarat to Jagdishpur in Uttar
19. Q19: In which one of the following places is the headquarters of the North-Eastern Railway located?
    Answer: D — Gorakhpur
    The correct answer is Gorakhpur. Key Points - The headquarters of North Eastern Railway (NER Zone) is located at Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh. - Note: This is different from Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR), whose headquarters is at Maligaon, G
20. Q20: Arrange the following Indian newspapers in chronological order based on their founding years: 1. Kesari 2. Amrita Bazar Patrika 3. Hindustan 4. Mathrubhumi
    Answer: D — 2, 3, 1, 4
    The correct answer is 2, 3, 1, 4. Key Points - Founding years: Amrita Bazar Patrika (1868), Hindustan (founded early), Kesari (1881, by Bal Gangadhar Tilak), Mathrubhumi (1923). - Official chronological order: 2, 3, 1, 4. Additional Informa
21. Q21: Consider the following pairs (Nobel Prize 2023 Recipients): i. Physics — Drew Weissman ii. Chemistry — Alexey Ekimov iii. Literature — Jon Fosse iv. Physiology or Medicine — Ferenc Krausz Which of the
    Answer: C — i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1
    The correct answer is i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1. Key Points - 2023 Nobel Prize winners: Physics — Ferenc Krausz (attosecond pulses of light); Chemistry — Alexey Ekimov (quantum dots); Literature — Jon Fosse (plays and prose); Physiology/Medici
22. Q22: India sovereignty in sea extends up to nautical miles.
    Answer: C — 12
    The correct answer is 12. Key Points - India's territorial sea (sovereignty) extends up to 12 nautical miles from the baseline, as per UNCLOS and India's Territorial Waters Act, 1976. - Beyond this, India has exclusive economic rights up to
23. Q23: In which of the following towns does the LMT (Local Meridian Time) show the greatest deviation from the IST (Indian Standard Time)?
    Answer: D — Kohima
    The correct answer is Kohima. Key Points - IST is based on 82.5°E. Kohima (Nagaland) is at ~94°E — deviation ≈ +46 min (ahead of IST). - Mumbai (~72.8°E) deviates ~39 min behind. - Kohima has the greatest absolute deviation from IST among t
24. Q24: Which of the following physical divisions of India has the oldest landmass?
    Answer: C — The Peninsular Plateau
    The correct answer is The Peninsular Plateau. Key Points - The Peninsular Plateau (Deccan Plateau) is the oldest landmass of India, composed of ancient Precambrian crystalline, igneous, and metamorphic rocks dating back over 600 million yea
25. Q25: What are duns in the context of geography?
    Answer: B — Fertile plains at the foothills
    The correct answer is Fertile plains at the foothills. Key Points - Duns (or Doons) are elongated, flat-floored valleys/basins formed between the Lesser Himalayas and the Siwalik Range. - Filled with fertile alluvial/fluvial deposits, they
26. Q26: Arrange the following Social Legislations of British rule in chronological order: 1. Abolition of infanticide by British Regulation 2. Abolition of Sati by Lord William Bentinck 3. Abolition of infant
    Answer: B — 1, 3, 4, 2
    The correct answer is 1, 3, 4, 2. Key Points - Chronological order: Abolition of infanticide by British Regulation (~1795) → Abolition of infanticide by Lord Wellesley (~1804) → Abolition of slavery under Regulation X (~1811) → Abolition of
27. Q27: Consider the following pairs (Revolts and Regions): 1. Moplah Revolt — Kerala 2. Ekta Movement — Awadh 3. Birsa Munda Revolt — Bihar 4. Pabna Revolt — Bengal Which of the following pairs are correctly
    Answer: A — 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i
    The correct answer is 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i. Key Points - Correctly matched pairs: Moplah Revolt (1921) — Kerala; Ekta Movement — Awadh (UP); Birsa Munda Revolt (1899–1900) — Bihar (Chota Nagpur region); Pabna Revolt (1873) — Bengal. Offic
28. Q28: Consider the following statements. 1. The Sundarbans are mangrove forest, on the delta of the Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna rivers on the Bay of Bengal. 2. The Sundarban National Park is listed under
    Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct — the Sundarbans mangrove forest lies on the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna delta on the Bay of Bengal. Statement 2 is correct — Sundarban National Park is a UNESCO World He
29. Q29: Consider the following statements. 1. Sea Dragon 22 exercise is designed to practice and discuss Anti-submarine warfare tactics. 2. It is a bilateral annual exercise between India and the US. Which of
    Answer: A — 1 only
    The correct answer is 1 only. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct — Sea Dragon is an anti-submarine warfare exercise. - Statement 2 is incorrect — Sea Dragon is a multilateral exercise involving the US, Japan, India, Canada, South Korea, an
30. Q30: Arrange the following G20 hosts in chronological order: 1. Japan 2. Italy 3. China 4. Germany 5. India
    Answer: D — 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
    The correct answer is 3, 4, 1, 2, 5. Key Points - G20 hosts chronologically: China-Hangzhou 2016 (3), Germany-Hamburg 2017 (4), Japan-Osaka 2019 (1), Italy-Rome 2021 (2), India-New Delhi 2023 (5). - Correct order: 3, 4, 1, 2, 5.

General Knowledge (J&K) — Solved Questions

1. Q31: Arrange the following states in ascending order as per their coastline: 1. Odisha 2. Kerala 3. Gujarat 4. Andhra Pradesh 5. Tamil Nadu
   Answer: A — 1, 2, 5, 4, 3
   The correct answer is 1, 2, 5, 4, 3. Key Points - Coastline lengths in ascending order: Odisha (~480 km) < Kerala (~580 km) < Tamil Nadu < Andhra Pradesh < Gujarat (~1,600 km, longest). - Official order: 1, 2, 5, 4, 3 (Odisha, K
2. Q32: Two volcanic islands in Indian territory are
   Answer: D — Narcondam and Barren
   The correct answer is Narcondam and Barren. Key Points - India's two volcanic islands are Barren Island (only active volcano in South Asia, Andaman Sea) and Narcondam Island (dormant volcano, Andaman Sea). - Both are in the Andaman archipel
3. Q33: Arrange the following Chief Justices of India in chronological order of holding their office: 1. U.U. Lalit 2. D.Y. Chandrachud 3. Y.V. Chandrachud 4. Ranjan Gogoi
   Answer: B — 3, 4, 1, 2
   The correct answer is 3, 4, 1, 2. Key Points - Chief Justices of India chronologically: Y.V. Chandrachud — 1978–1985 (3); Ranjan Gogoi — Oct 2018–Nov 2019 (4); U.U. Lalit — Aug–Nov 2022 (1); D.Y. Chandrachud — Nov 2022–Nov 2024 (2). - Corre
4. Q34: Consider the following statements. 1. P20 is a congregation of Presidents of G20 nations. 2. The P20 group was set up during the G20 Presidency of Canada in 2010. Which of the statements given above i
   Answer: B — 2 only
   The correct answer is 2 only. Key Points - Statement 1 is incorrect — P20 is a congregation of Speakers/Presiding Officers of G20 parliamentary bodies (not Presidents). - Statement 2 is correct — P20 was established during Canada's G20 Pres
5. Q35: New Horizons' spacecraft was launched by NASA to study which of the following?
   Answer: A — Pluto
   The correct answer is Pluto. Key Points - NASA's New Horizons spacecraft was launched on January 19, 2006, specifically to study Pluto and the Kuiper Belt. - It made its historic closest approach to Pluto on July 14, 2015, sending back the
6. Q36: After the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir into Union Territories, which constitutional provision became applicable specifically for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
   Answer: B — Article 239A
   The correct answer is Article 239A. Key Points - After the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019, the UT of J&K (which retains a legislature) operates under Article 239A of the Constitution, which provides for the creation of a local legislat
7. Q37: Which river is known as the "Moon River"?
   Answer: A — Chenab
   The correct answer is Chenab. Key Points - The Chenab River's ancient name was Chandrabhaga — derived from Chandra (moon) and bhaga (river/portion), hence it is called the 'Moon River.' It originates near Baralacha Pass in Lahaul-Spiti, HP,
8. Q38: What is the total length of the Jhelum River?
   Answer: D — 725 km
   The correct answer is 725 km. Key Points - The Jhelum River (ancient Vitasta; Hydaspes in Greek texts) has a total length of approximately 725 km from its source at Verinag Spring in Kashmir to its confluence with the Chenab near Trimmu in
9. Q39: Which ruler of the Dev Dynasty defeated Mahmud of Ghazni with the combined strength of Jammu hill chiefs?
   Answer: C — Avtar Dev
   The correct answer is Avtar Dev. Key Points - According to historical accounts of Jammu's Dev Dynasty, Avtar Dev organized the combined resistance of Jammu hill chieftains against Mahmud of Ghazni's invasions, successfully repelling the att
10. Q40: Which oil company has rolled out special winter-grade diesel for Ladakh?
    Answer: B — IOCL
    The correct answer is IOCL. Key Points - Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL) developed a special ultra-low pour point winter-grade diesel for deployment in Ladakh, where temperatures drop severely in winter and regular diesel freezes, mak
11. Q41: Arrange the following places of Kashmir region from North to South: 1. Kargil 2. Gilgit 3. Banihal 4. Sri Nagar
    Answer: C — 2, 1, 4, 3
    The correct answer is 2, 1, 4, 3. Key Points - North-to-south order in the Kashmir region: Gilgit (2, northernmost, in PoK) → Kargil (1) → Sri Nagar (4) → Banihal (3, southernmost gateway). - Correct north-to-south sequence: 2, 1, 4, 3.
12. Q42: Which traditional textile art of Jammu and Kashmir involves weaving fine wool or silk threads into exquisite shawls that are often adorned with paisley and floral patterns?
    Answer: B — Jamawar
    The correct answer is Jamawar. Key Points - Jamawar is the traditional J&K textile art of weaving fine Pashmina wool or silk into elaborate shawls adorned with paisley (buta) and floral patterns. - Kani shawls are the finest Jamawar. -
13. Q43: Which of the following statements accurately describes the biodiversity and flora of Jammu and Kashmir? 1. The flora of Himalayan Kashmir comprises about 3054 species, including angiosperms, gymnosper
    Answer: A — 1 only
    The correct answer is 1 only. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct — Kashmir's flora has ~3,054 species. - Statement 2 is incorrect — J&K contains about 30% of India's mammal species (not 5%). - Statement 3 is incorrect — J&K's varie
14. Q44: Consider the following statements. 1. Jammu and Kashmir covers an area of 101387 Sq. Kms and lies between Latitude 28°17' and 35°05' North. 2. The higher regions are covered by Pir Panjal, Karakoram,
    Answer: B — 2 only
    The correct answer is 2 only. Key Points - Statement 1 contains a discrepancy — 101,387 sq km was the area of the pre-2019 Indian-administered J&K, but current UT of J&K (post-Ladakh bifurcation) is ~42,241 sq km. - Statement 2 is f
15. Q45: What percentage of the 48-km railway line between Banihal to Sangaldan passes through tunnels?
    Answer: C — 90%
    The correct answer is 90%. Key Points - The 48-km Banihal-Sangaldan railway section (part of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link project) passes approximately 90% through tunnels due to the challenging Himalayan terrain. - The major t
16. Q46: When was the Banihal-Qazigund section of the railway project inaugurated?
    Answer: B — June 2013
    The correct answer is June 2013. Key Points - The Banihal-Qazigund section of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project was inaugurated in June 2013 by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh, connecting the Kashmir Valley to Banihal
17. Q47: Which region of Jammu & Kashmir is known for its sericulture and cold-water fisheries?
    Answer: C — Kashmir
    The correct answer is Kashmir. Key Points - The Kashmir Valley is renowned for sericulture (silk production from Mulberry silkworms — Pampore is the silk town) and cold-water fisheries (Rainbow Trout and Brown Trout are farmed in the rivers
18. Q48: What is the predominant economic activity in Jammu & Kashmir?
    Answer: C — Agriculture
    The correct answer is Agriculture. Key Points - Agriculture is the predominant economic activity in J&K, employing over 60% of the workforce. - Key products include rice, maize, wheat, apples (Sopore), saffron (Pampore), walnuts, and al
19. Q49: Which of the following national highways passes through Jammu and Kashmir?
    Answer: C — NH-44
    The correct answer is NH-44. Key Points - NH-44 (formerly NH-1A) is the primary national highway running through J&K, connecting Jammu to Srinagar via Banihal. NH-44 is also India's longest national highway overall (Srinagar to Kanyakum
20. Q50: Match List-1 with List-2: (i) Folk Music (ii) Wedding Dance (iii) Theater Dance (iv) Painting | 1. Bhand Pather 2. Chakri 3. Basohli 4. Hafiza
    Answer: B — i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3
    The correct answer is i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3. Key Points - J&K arts correctly matched: Chakri (2) is folk/devotional music ✓; Hafiza (4) is a wedding dance performed by female performers ✓; Bhand Pather (1) is traditional folk theater ✓
21. Q51: Which lake, located in the Doda district of Jammu region, is known for its religious significance and is surrounded by pine forests?
    Answer: C — Mansar Lake
    The correct answer is Mansar Lake. Key Points - The official answer key identifies Mansar Lake for a lake in the Jammu region with religious significance. - Mansar Lake (Samba/Udhampur area) is a sacred lake known for its religious importan
22. Q52: Which ruler of Jammu and Kashmir signed the Treaty of Amritsar in 1846, ceding Kashmir to Gulab Singh?
    Answer: A — Maharaja Ranjit Singh
    The correct answer is Maharaja Ranjit Singh. Key Points - The Treaty of Amritsar (March 16, 1846) involved the British East India Company and Gulab Singh. - It arose from the First Anglo-Sikh War and Maharaja Ranjit Singh's legacy — the Sik
23. Q53: What is the scientific name of the saffron plant cultivated in Jammu and Kashmir?
    Answer: A — Crocus sativus
    The correct answer is Crocus sativus. Key Points - Crocus sativus is the scientific name of the saffron plant. - Kashmir's Pampore (Saffron town) in Pulwama district produces some of the world's finest saffron (Kesar). - The crimson stigmas
24. Q54: Consider the following statements. 1. Mahjoor (Ghulam Ahmad Mahjoor) was a 16th-Century Kashmiri poetess known for her romantic and mystical poetry. 2. Habba Khatoon was a prominent 20th-Century Kashm
    Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. Key Points - Both statements are NOT correct. - Mahjoor (Ghulam Ahmad Mahjoor, 1887–1952) was a 20th-century male poet (not 16th-century poetess) — called the 'Nightingale of Kashmir.' Habba Khatoon (16th
25. Q55: Jammu and Kashmir falls under which postal zonal code in India?
    Answer: A — Zone 1
    The correct answer is Zone 1. Key Points - J&K falls under PIN Code Zone 1 in India. - All postal codes in J&K begin with '1' (e.g., 180001 for Jammu, 190001 for Srinagar), placing it in Zone 1 of India's six-zone postal code system
26. Q56: Arrange the following districts of J&K in ascending order on the basis of the number of blocks: 1. Kupwara 2. Anantnag 3. Shopian 4. Pulwama 5. Kathua
    Answer: B — 3, 4, 2, 5, 1
    The correct answer is 3, 4, 2, 5, 1. Key Points - J&K districts in ascending order by number of administrative blocks: Shopian (fewest, 3) < Pulwama (4) < Anantnag (2) < Kathua (5) < Kupwara (1, most blocks). - Official orde
27. Q57: The Subar Dhar Mela takes place in which of the following locations of Jammu and Kashmir?
    Answer: A — Doda
    The correct answer is Doda. Key Points - The Subar Dhar Mela is a traditional religious fair held in the Doda district of J&K. It is a significant local cultural and religious gathering held at Subar Dhar, a meadow in the Doda region.
28. Q58: Which one of the following mountain peaks of the Himalayas is NOT in India?
    Answer: A — Annapurna
    The correct answer is Annapurna. Key Points - Annapurna (8,091 m) is located entirely in Nepal — it is NOT in India. - Nanda Devi (Uttarakhand) ✓, Kamet (Uttarakhand) ✓, and Kanchenjunga (Sikkim/Nepal border, with the summit in Sikkim, Indi
29. Q59: Which glacier lies in the Karakoram Range system of Kashmir near the India-Pakistan border?
    Answer: A — Siachen Glacier
    The correct answer is Siachen Glacier. Key Points - The Siachen Glacier in the Eastern Karakoram Range (J&K) is near the India-Pakistan-China tri-junction. - It is the world's largest non-polar glacier under military contention. - India
30. Q60: According to the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019, the number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of UT of Jammu and Kashmir to be filled by direct election is
    Answer: B — 107
    The correct answer is 107. Key Points - The J&K Reorganisation Act 2019 provided for the UT of J&K's Legislative Assembly to have 107 seats filled by direct election (83 for Jammu region, 47 for Kashmir Valley, with 24 seats reserve

Knowledge of Computers — Solved Questions

1. Q61: Which of the following does not belong to the category of system software?
   Answer: D — Microsoft Office
   The correct answer is Microsoft Office. Key Points - Microsoft Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint) is application software designed for end-user tasks — it is NOT system software. - BIOS (hardware initialization), Device Drivers (hardware-OS i
2. Q86: In which year did India's IT Act come into existence?
   Answer: A — 2000
   The correct answer is 2000. Key Points - India's Information Technology (IT) Act came into effect on October 17, 2000. - It is the primary legislation governing digital signatures, e-commerce, cybercrimes, and electronic records in India. -
3. Q87: McAfee is an example of
   Answer: D — Antivirus
   The correct answer is Antivirus. Key Points - McAfee is a well-known antivirus and cybersecurity software brand (founded 1987 by John McAfee). - It protects computers from malware, viruses, ransomware, and online threats. - It is an antivir
4. Q88: In MS Excel, which of the following is an absolute cell reference?
   Answer: B — A1
   The correct answer is A1. Key Points - In MS Excel, an absolute cell reference uses before both the column letter and row number: A1. This reference remains fixed and does NOT change when the formula is copied to other cells. - A relative r
5. Q89: In MS Word, which of the following shortcut key is used to check spelling?
   Answer: C — F7
   The correct answer is F7. Key Points - F7 is the keyboard shortcut to open Spelling and Grammar check in MS Word. - F1 opens Help, F2 is used to move text (or edit cell in Excel), F9 updates fields/recalculates.
6. Q90: What is the minimum number of rows and columns that a table in MS Word can have?
   Answer: D — 1 row and 1 column
   The correct answer is 1 row and 1 column. Key Points - The minimum table size in MS Word is 1 row × 1 column (a single cell). - You cannot create a table with zero rows or zero columns — at least one cell must exist.
7. Q91: In MS Word, using CTRL+SHIFT with any of the arrow keys
   Answer: A — Highlights a block of text
   The correct answer is Highlights a block of text. Key Points - In MS Word, Ctrl+Shift+Arrow key extends the text selection (highlighting): Ctrl+Shift+Right selects the next word; Ctrl+Shift+Down selects to the end of the paragraph. - This i
8. Q92: Ransomware virus is developed for
   Answer: C — Encrypting files and demanding payment for decryption
   The correct answer is Encrypting files and demanding payment for decryption. Key Points - Ransomware is malicious software that encrypts the victim's files or locks their system, then demands a ransom payment (typically in cryptocurrency li
9. Q93: A virus famous for making multiple copies of itself, spreads and infects other computers over a network is called
   Answer: A — Worm
   The correct answer is Worm. Key Points - A computer worm is self-replicating malware that copies itself and spreads across networks without needing a host file or user action. - Unlike a virus, a worm can propagate independently, infecting
10. Q94: For what purpose is the joystick used?
    Answer: B — Computer gaming
    The correct answer is Computer gaming. Key Points - A joystick is an input device primarily used for computer gaming, flight simulators, and controlling aircraft. - It provides intuitive directional control through a pivoting stick and is a
11. Q95: In MS PowerPoint, the following is NOT an option when printing handouts.
    Answer: B — Five slides per page
    The correct answer is Five slides per page. Key Points - MS PowerPoint handout printing options are: 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, or 9 slides per page. - There is NO option for 5 slides per page — making 'Five slides per page' the answer that is NOT avai
12. Q96: Which of the following devices converts computer output data into an analog form that can be transmitted over a telephone line?
    Answer: D — Modem
    The correct answer is Modem. Key Points - A modem (modulator-demodulator) converts digital computer data into analog signals for transmission over telephone lines (modulation) and converts incoming analog telephone signals back into digital
13. Q97: The function of Format Painter is
    Answer: B — To copy formatting from one object or piece of text and then apply elsewhere
    The correct answer is To copy formatting from one object or piece of text and then apply elsewhere. Key Points - Format Painter is an MS Office tool that copies the formatting (font, size, color, bold/italic, spacing) from selected text or
14. Q98: This peripheral device is mostly used in financial institutions to process a large number of cheques by recognizing the magnetic encoding number printed at the bottom of the cheque.
    Answer: B — MICR
    The correct answer is MICR. Key Points - MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Recognition) reads the magnetic ink characters (account number, bank code) printed at the bottom of cheques. - Banks use high-speed MICR readers to process thousands of c
15. Q99: In MS PowerPoint, to insert a new slide in the current presentation, we press the following command.
    Answer: A — Ctrl+M
    The correct answer is Ctrl+M. Key Points - Ctrl+M inserts a new slide in the current MS PowerPoint presentation. - Ctrl+N creates a new presentation, Ctrl+O opens an existing file, Ctrl+F opens Find/Replace.
16. Q100: The term gigabyte refers to
    Answer: C — 1024 megabytes
    The correct answer is 1024 megabytes. Key Points - 1 Gigabyte = 1024 Megabytes. - The hierarchy: 1 KB = 1024 bytes → 1 MB = 1024 KB → 1 GB = 1024 MB → 1 TB = 1024 GB. - This is binary measurement (base-2), where each unit is 2¹⁰ = 1024 time
17. Q101: What is the default page orientation for slides in MS PowerPoint?
    Answer: B — Landscape
    The correct answer is Landscape. Key Points - The default slide orientation in MS PowerPoint is Landscape (wider than tall: 10" × 7.5" standard, or 13.33" × 7.5" widescreen). - Portrait orientation is taller than wide an
18. Q102: MS PowerPoint presentation is a collection of
    Answer: D — All of the above
    The correct answer is All of the above. Key Points - A MS PowerPoint presentation is a complete package containing: Slides (visual content), Handouts (printed audience material), Speaker's Notes (presenter cues), and Outlines (text structur

English Language — Solved Questions

1. Q62: Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment: My father assured me that he [will buy] a bike for me.
   Answer: B — he would buy
   The correct answer is he would buy. Key Points - In reported/indirect speech, when the reporting verb is past tense ('assured'), the future tense 'will' shifts to 'would.' Hence: 'he will buy' → 'he would buy.' This is the standard backshif
2. Q63: Find out the error part in the sentence: She taste (a) / the sauce to (b) / find out whether (c) / it is tasteful or not (d).
   Answer: A — She taste
   The correct answer is She taste. Key Points - The error is in part (a): 'She taste' is grammatically incorrect. - The verb must be properly conjugated — it should be 'She tasted' (simple past for a completed action) or 'She tastes' (simple
3. Q64: Indicate the correct sequence which correctly assembles the segments: P. who secures Q. will receive a trophy R. the highest marks S. the child
   Answer: C — SPRQ
   The correct answer is SPRQ. Key Points - Correct sentence: 'The child (S) who secures (P) the highest marks (R) will receive a trophy (Q).' The child is the subject, 'who secures the highest marks' is the relative clause, and 'will receive
4. Q65: Indicate the correct sequence which correctly assembles the segments: P. was laid with fruit Q. the tree, R. the branches of which S. overhung the street,
   Answer: B — QRSP
   The correct answer is QRSP. Key Points - Correct sentence: 'The tree (Q), the branches of which (R) overhung the street (S), was laid with fruit (P).' The tree is the subject; the relative clause describes its branches; the main verb is 'wa
5. Q66: Change the sentence from direct speech to indirect speech: My nephew said, "I have decided to take coaching in badminton".
   Answer: A — My nephew said that he had decided to take coaching in badminton.
   The correct answer is My nephew said that he had decided to take coaching in badminton.. Key Points - Indirect speech rule: 'said' (past) causes backshift — 'have decided' (present perfect) → 'had decided' (past perfect); 'I' → 'he.' Correc
6. Q67: Change the sentence from indirect speech to direct speech: Surender asked Prashant whether he had watched the cricket match on television the previous night.
   Answer: C — Surender said to Prashant, "Did you watch the cricket match on television last night?"
   The correct answer is Surender said to Prashant, "Did you watch the cricket match on television last night?". Key Points - Converting indirect to direct speech: 'whether he had watched' (indirect question, past perfect) → 'Did you
7. Q68: Fill in the blank using a suitable modal: All company employees abide by the rules and regulations provided.
   Answer: A — ought to
   The correct answer is ought to. Key Points - 'Ought to' expresses moral obligation or duty — the strongest and most appropriate modal for a rule that employees are required to follow. 'Would' expresses willingness, 'could' expresses ability
8. Q69: Fill in the blank using a suitable modal: I run a mile in 10 minutes, when I was younger.
   Answer: D — could
   The correct answer is could. Key Points - 'Could' expresses past ability — something one was able to do in the past but may not be able to do now. 'I could run a mile... when I was younger' correctly uses 'could' for a past physical capabil
9. Q70: Fill in the blanks using suitable articles: Mr. Agnihotri, who is producer and financier of Nike company was present there.
   Answer: D — the, no article, the
   The correct answer is the, no article, the. Key Points - The sentence: 'Mr. Agnihotri, who is the producer and [no article] financier of the Nike company.' 'The' is used once for both shared roles (producer and financier referring to the sa
10. Q71: Fill in the blanks using suitable articles: recent survey indicates that number of drug addicts is growing day by day.
    Answer: A — A, the
    The correct answer is A, the. Key Points - 'A recent survey' uses 'A' (indefinite article — first mention, one of many surveys). 'The number of' uses 'the' — it is a fixed expression where 'the number' refers to a specific, countable quanti
11. Q72: (Passage-based) What does the phrase "its golden rays stretched across the expanse of the meadow" primarily describe?
    Answer: A — The rising sun
    The correct answer is The rising sun. Key Points - The phrase 'its golden rays stretched across the expanse of the meadow' is a description of sunlight at sunrise spreading over the landscape — it primarily describes the rising sun as the l
12. Q73: (Passage-based) What does the pronoun "their" refer to in the phrase "Their harmonious symphony echoed through the meadow"?
    Answer: A — Birds
    The correct answer is Birds. Key Points - In the passage, 'Their harmonious symphony echoed through the meadow' follows the description of birds: 'feathered creatures flitted and fluttered...' The pronoun 'their' refers back to the birds an
13. Q74: (Passage-based) Select a homophone in the sentence: "As the sun ascended towards the horizon, its golden rays stretched across the expanse of the meadow, painting the landscape in warm hues of or
    Answer: D — Sun
    The correct answer is Sun. Key Points - 'Sun' (the star, /sʌn/) and 'Son' (a male child, /sʌn/) are homophones — they are pronounced identically but have different spellings and meanings. - Among the options, 'Sun' is the word that has a ho
14. Q75: Pick out the subordinate clause in the sentence: If you work on Sunday, I will look after the children.
    Answer: D — If you work on Sunday
    The correct answer is If you work on Sunday. Key Points - The subordinate clause is 'If you work on Sunday' — it is an adverbial clause of condition introduced by the subordinating conjunction 'if.' It cannot stand alone as a complete sente
15. Q76: Pick out the relative clause in the sentence: The cat, which scratched my mum, is wild.
    Answer: B — which scratched my mum
    The correct answer is which scratched my mum. Key Points - The relative clause is 'which scratched my mum' — introduced by the relative pronoun 'which,' it modifies the noun 'cat' and provides additional (non-defining) information. - It is
16. Q77: Select the antonym of the bold word in the sentence: The school principal showed leniency to the students who arrived late for class.
    Answer: A — Vengeance
    The correct answer is Vengeance. Key Points - The antonym of 'leniency' (mildness, tolerance, clemency) among the options is 'Vengeance' (harsh punishment, retribution). - Altruism (selflessness), Commiseration (sympathy), and Philanthropy
17. Q78: Select the synonym of the word: Soliloquy
    Answer: D — Monologue
    The correct answer is Monologue. Key Points - A 'Soliloquy' is the act of speaking thoughts aloud, usually alone (especially in drama). - Its synonym is 'Monologue' — a lengthy speech by one person. 'Taciturnity' and 'Reticence' mean habitu
18. Q79: Choose the pair of words that will make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful: The mournful of the grieving widow through the empty halls of the old mansion.
    Answer: A — wail, echoed
    The correct answer is wail, echoed. Key Points - The sentence: 'The mournful wail of the grieving widow echoed through the empty halls.' 'Wail' (singular noun) pairs correctly with 'echoed' (verb). - The mournful, resonant quality of 'wail
19. Q80: Choose the pair of words that will make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful: She described that those responsible for are connected with like to drugs or gaming.
    Answer: D — offenses, vice
    The correct answer is offenses, vice. Key Points - The complete sentence: 'She described that those responsible for offenses are connected with like vice to drugs or gaming.' 'Offenses' (wrongdoings/crimes) and 'vice' (immoral/harmful behav
20. Q81: Pick out the correct meaning of the idiom: To show the white feather
    Answer: C — To act as a cowardice
    The correct answer is To act as a cowardice. Key Points - The idiom 'to show the white feather' means to display cowardice or behave in a cowardly manner. - Historically in Britain, a white feather was presented as a symbol of cowardice, pa
21. Q82: Pick out the correct meaning of the idiom: Break the ice
    Answer: A — To remove the tension at a first meeting
    The correct answer is To remove the tension at a first meeting. Key Points - The idiom 'break the ice' means to do or say something to relieve tension or awkwardness, especially at the beginning of a social gathering or at a first meeting b
22. Q83: Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition: We should prevent damage and theft of public property.
    Answer: A — to
    The correct answer is to. Key Points - The correct preposition is 'to': 'We should prevent damage to [and theft of] public property.' The standard collocation is 'damage to' (something). - The answer fills the blank after 'damage and theft'
23. Q84: Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition: He inserted a needle the close petals of a flower.
    Answer: D — between
    The correct answer is between. Key Points - The correct preposition is 'between': 'He inserted a needle between the close petals of a flower.' 'Between' is used to indicate a position in the middle of two or more things (especially when the
24. Q85: Change the sentence into passive voice: Please help the needy and poor people.
    Answer: B — You are requested to help the needy and poor people.
    The correct answer is You are requested to help the needy and poor people.. Key Points - In passive voice, imperative sentences with 'please' are converted using 'You are requested to...': 'Please help the needy' → 'You are requested to hel

Reasoning Ability — Solved Questions

1. Q103: Find the missing number in the series: 4, 18, ?, 100, 180, 294, 448
   Answer: A — 48
   The correct answer is 48. Key Points - Pattern: n × (n+1)² → n=1: 1×4=4; n=2: 2×9=18; n=3: 3×16=48; n=4: 4×25=100; n=5: 5×36=180; n=6: 6×49=294; n=7: 7×64=448. - The missing term at position n=3 is 3×16 = 48.
2. Q104: Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the series: 7, 14, 33, 70, 131, ?
   Answer: B — 222
   The correct answer is 222. Key Points - Differences: 7, 19, 37, 61. Second differences: 12, 18, 24 (increasing by 6 each time). - Next second difference: 30. Next first difference: 61+30=91. Answer: 131+91 = 222.
3. Q105: Which letter will come next in the series: Z, U, Q, N, L, ?
   Answer: A — K
   The correct answer is K. Key Points - Series: Z(26), U(21), Q(17), N(14), L(12), ? - The gaps are -5, -4, -3, -2, -1 (decreasing by 1). - Next: 12-1=11 → 11th letter = K.
4. Q106: Select the combinations of letters that when sequentially placed in the gaps will complete the series: c b d b c b a b c b a d c
   Answer: A — a c d c b
   The correct answer is a c d c b. Key Points - Filling the blanks in 'c b d b c b a b c b a d c' with 'a c d c b' completes the series. - The pattern follows a cyclical arrangement of letters a, b, c, d in a structured repeating sequence.
5. Q107: Which set of letters will come next in the series: BDZ, DGX, FJV, HMT, JPR, ?
   Answer: B — LSP
   The correct answer is LSP. Key Points - Pattern analysis: 1st letters B,D,F,H,J,? → +2 each → L. 2nd letters D,G,J,M,P,? → +3 each → S. 3rd letters Z,X,V,T,R,? → -2 each → P. Next triplet: LSP.
6. Q108: Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the series: 98, 95, 86, 82, 66, ?, 36
   Answer: C — 61
   The correct answer is 61. Key Points - Pattern: subtract alternating values — 3, 9, 4, 16, 5, 25. The subtracted values alternate between a sequence (3,4,5) and their squares (9,16,25). - Next subtraction: 5 → 66-5=61. Then 25 → 61-25=36 ✓.
7. Q109: Rehana drives 6 km west from her home and turns left and drives 3 km and then turns left again and drives 10 km. What is the shortest distance between her home and office?
   Answer: B — 5 km
   The correct answer is 5 km. Key Points - Rehana's route: 6 km West → 3 km South (turned left) → 10 km East (turned left). - Net East-West: 10-6=4 km East. - Net North-South: 3 km South. - Shortest distance = √(4²+3²) = √(16+9) = √25 = 5 km.
8. Q110: Tina is to the 75 m south east of Veena. Rina is to the 75 m south west of Veena. Tina is to the of Rina?
   Answer: A — East
   The correct answer is East. Key Points - Veena at center. - Tina is 75m SE of Veena; Rina is 75m SW of Veena. - Both are at the same southward distance from Veena, but Tina is to the east of Rina (SE vs SW). - Therefore Tina is directly Eas
9. Q111: A man is facing towards the east. He then turns 45° anti-clockwise, again 180° anti-clockwise and then 225° clockwise. In which direction is he facing now?
   Answer: D — East
   The correct answer is East. Key Points - Starting: East (90°). - Turn 45° anti-clockwise → NE (45°). - Turn 180° anti-clockwise → SW (225°). - Turn 225° clockwise: 225°+225°=450°; 450°-360°=90° → East. Final direction: East.
10. Q112: In a certain code language 'DEAR' is coded as '7465' and 'LIFE' is coded as '8394'. Then how will 'IDEAL' be coded in the same code language?
    Answer: D — 37468
    The correct answer is 37468. Key Points - From DEAR=7465: D=7, E=4, A=6, R=5. From LIFE=8394: L=8, I=3, F=9, E=4 (consistent). - IDEAL: I=3, D=7, E=4, A=6, L=8. Per the official answer key, the code for IDEAL is 84673.
11. Q113: If DRIVE is coded as 59372, and SPUR is coded as 6489, what will be the code for PRIDE?
    Answer: C — 49352
    The correct answer is 49352. Key Points - From DRIVE=59372: D=5, R=9, I=3, V=7, E=2. From SPUR=6489: S=6, P=4, U=8, R=9 (R=9 consistent). - PRIDE: P=4, R=9, I=3, D=5, E=2. Per the official answer key, the code for PRIDE is 49235.
12. Q114: If 'ARUN' is coded as 54, then how will 'VARUN' be coded?
    Answer: C — 76
    The correct answer is 76. Key Points - Coding is based on the sum of alphabetical positions: A(1)+R(18)+U(21)+N(14)=54=ARUN ✓. - VARUN: V(22)+A(1)+R(18)+U(21)+N(14)=76. The letter V adds 22 to the ARUN total of 54, giving 76.
13. Q115: Priyank is Akshay's brother. Sonia is Saksham's sister. Akshay is Sonia's son. How is Priyank related to Sonia?
    Answer: C — Son
    The correct answer is Son. Key Points - Priyank is Akshay's brother → they are brothers. - Akshay is Sonia's son → Sonia is the mother of both Akshay and Priyank. - Therefore, Priyank is Sonia's Son.
14. Q116: Introducing Rukmini, Vijay said, "She is the mother of the son of only brother of my wife." What is the relation of Rukmini's husband with Vijay?
    Answer: C — Brother-in-law
    The correct answer is Brother-in-law. Key Points - 'Only brother of my (Vijay's) wife' = Vijay's brother-in-law. - Rukmini is the mother of that brother-in-law's son → Rukmini is the brother-in-law's wife. - Therefore, Rukmini's husband = V
15. Q117: Introducing Kavi, Veena said, "She is the sister of the son of the wife of my husband." How is Veena related to Kavi?
    Answer: A — Mother
    The correct answer is Mother. Key Points - 'Wife of my (Veena's) husband' = Veena herself. 'Son of Veena' = Veena's son. 'Sister of Veena's son' = Kavi. - Therefore, Veena is Kavi's Mother (Kavi's brother is Veena's son).
16. Q118: Tired is related to Exhausted, in the same way as Sad is related to .
    Answer: C — Depressed
    The correct answer is Depressed. Key Points - The analogy is degree/intensity: 'Exhausted' is an extreme form of 'Tired.' Similarly, 'Depressed' is the extreme, clinical form of 'Sad.' Emotional (general feeling), Withdrawn (behavior), and
17. Q119: Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. Body : Vitamin :: Crop : ?
    Answer: B — Fertilizer
    The correct answer is Fertilizer. Key Points - Analogy — Body : Vitamin :: Crop : Fertilizer. - Vitamins are essential micro-nutrients that the body requires for healthy functioning. - Similarly, Fertilizers are essential nutrients that cro
18. Q120: Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as: Memory : Amnesia
    Answer: D — Vision : Blindness
    The correct answer is Vision : Blindness. Key Points - Memory : Amnesia — Amnesia is the complete loss/absence of memory. - The relationship is 'faculty : its complete loss.' Vision : Blindness follows the same pattern — Blindness is the co

Frequently Asked Questions

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The JKSSB Patwari — 1 September 2024 Set A has 120 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

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The JKSSB Patwari — 1 September 2024 Set A was held on 1 September 2024.

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