Fully Solved JKSSB Veterinary Pharmacist Question Paper 2025

Solved questions

1. Q1: Choose the correct meaning of the given idiom: A skeleton in the cupboard
   Answer: D - An embarrassing fact to be kept secret
   A skeleton in the cupboard means an embarrassing or shameful secret that a person or family wants to keep hidden.
2. Q2: Choose the correct meaning of the phrase: Kick the bucket
   Answer: C - To pass away
   Kick the bucket is an idiom meaning to die.
3. Q3: Select the pair that has the same relationship: DIVA : OPERA
   Answer: C - Thespian: Play
   A diva is a leading performer in an opera; a thespian is a leading performer in a play. Both represent a performer associated with a specific art form.
4. Q4: Choose the correct word to complete the sentence: did you put my keys?
   Answer: C - Where
   Where is used to ask about location. The sentence asks about the place the keys were put.
5. Q5: We bought some eggs from the market but unfortunately of them were fresh.
   Answer: C - None
   None is used for countable and uncountable nouns to mean not any. No one refers to people, much is for uncountable, many is affirmative.
6. Q6: Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of PREDICT
   Answer: B - Foretell
   PREDICT means to say what will happen in the future. Foretell is the closest synonym.
7. Q7: Fill the blank with the most suitable preposition: It was very generous you to offer to help me.
   Answer: A - Of
   The correct preposition after adjectives describing character (generous, kind, nice) referring to a person is of. It was generous of you.
8. Q8: Find the antonym of the word: AMPLE
   Answer: B - Meagre
   AMPLE means more than enough. Its antonym is Meagre, which means lacking in quality or quantity. Enough and Sufficient are synonyms of Ample.
9. Q9: Fill in the blank with the correct article: I go to Srinagar by Vande Bharat Express.
   Answer: D - The
   The definite article The is used before specific named vehicles and trains. Vande Bharat Express is a specific named train.
10. Q10: Identify the type of clause in the given sentence: I know that she is coming to the party.
    Answer: C - Noun clause
    The clause that she is coming to the party functions as the object of the verb know. A clause functioning as a noun is called a noun clause.
11. Q11: Which punctuation mark is used to show possession?
    Answer: B - Apostrophe (')
    The apostrophe (') is used to show possession (e.g., John's book) and also in contractions.
12. Q12: What are homonyms?
    Answer: D - Both A and C
    Homonyms include both homophones (same sound, different meaning) and homographs (same spelling, different meaning). So Both A and C are correct.
13. Q13: Match the idioms in Column A with their correct meanings in Column B: 1. Break the ice - i. In a difficult situation 2. Hit the sack - ii. Go to bed 3. Under the weather - iii. Start a conversation 4. Once in a blue moon
    Answer: A - 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-v, 5-i
    Break the ice = start a conversation; Hit the sack = go to bed; Under the weather = feeling unwell; Once in a blue moon = very rarely; In hot water = in a difficult situation.
14. Q14: Match the words in Column A with their correct antonyms in Column B: 1. Generous - i. Ugly 2. Beautiful - ii. Weak 3. Strong - iii. Stingy 4. Victory - iv. Defeat 5. Ancient - v. Modern
    Answer: A - 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv, 5-v
    Generous-Stingy, Beautiful-Ugly, Strong-Weak, Victory-Defeat, Ancient-Modern.
15. Q15: Choose the correct verb form to complete the sentence: The thief will have run away before the police .
    Answer: A - comes
    With future perfect tense in the main clause, the subordinate clause introduced by before uses simple present. The police comes is correct here.
16. Q16: Consider the following statements regarding shifting cultivation: 1. It is also known as slash and burn agriculture. 2. In India, it is mainly practiced in Northeast region. 3. In Northeast India it is known as Jhum cult
    Answer: A - 1, 2 and 3 only
    Shifting cultivation (slash and burn) is practiced in Northeast India as Jhum cultivation. Statement 4 is incorrect as it is practiced in many parts of the world including Africa, Southeast Asia, and Latin America.
17. Q17: Name the Indian river known as the Dakshin Ganga.
    Answer: B - Godavari
    Godavari is known as Dakshin Ganga (Ganga of the South) because of its length, sacred importance, and geographic position in peninsular India.
18. Q18: The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include: 1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem 2. To develop the scientific temper. 3. Respect for the Government. 4. To protect Wildlife. Choose t
    Answer: B - 1, 2 and 4
    Respect for Government is NOT a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A. Duties include respecting the Constitution/Flag/Anthem (51A-a), developing scientific temper (51A-h), and protecting wildlife (51A-g).
19. Q19: Match the following events with their years: i. Civil Disobedience Movement ii. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre iii. Quit India Movement iv. Simon Commission Arrival in India Years: 1. 1919, 2. 1942, 3. 1930, 4. 1928
    Answer: B - i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4
    Civil Disobedience Movement - 1930 (Salt March); Jallianwala Bagh - 1919; Quit India Movement - 1942; Simon Commission - 1928.
20. Q20: Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization: I. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene. II. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing tex
    Answer: C - Both I and II
    Both statements are correct. Indus Valley Civilization was largely secular in its material culture, and cotton (karpas) was cultivated and used for textile manufacturing - making India one of the earliest cotton-using civilizations.
21. Q21: Which of the following countries is NOT a founding member of SAARC?
    Answer: C - Myanmar
    SAARC was founded in 1985 with 7 members: India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, and Maldives. Myanmar is not a member of SAARC.
22. Q22: Match List-I with List-II: 1) Poverty Reduction Programme - iv) MNREGA 2) Human Development Scheme - i) Mid-day Meals 3) Social Assistance Scheme - iii) National Old Age Pension 4) Minimum Need Scheme - ii) Indira Awas Y
    Answer: A - (iv)(i)(iii)(ii)
    MNREGA = poverty reduction; Mid-day Meals = human development (education/nutrition); NOAP = social assistance for elderly; IAY = minimum needs (housing).
23. Q23: In which field is the Kalinga Award given?
    Answer: A - Science
    The Kalinga Prize is awarded by UNESCO for the popularization of science. It was established in 1951 through a donation from Biju Patnaik.
24. Q24: Who has been appointed as the new chairman of Life Insurance Corporation of India?
    Answer: D - Siddhartha Mohanty
    Siddhartha Mohanty was appointed as Chairman & MD of LIC of India.
25. Q25: Which of the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is correct? I) The Preamble is considered part of the Constitution but is not legally enforceable. II) The word Socialist and Secular we
    Answer: B - I and III only
    Statement II is incorrect - Socialist and Secular were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, not the 44th. Statements I and III are correct.
26. Q26: Match the following newspapers with their slogans: i. The Times of India - 1. The Bold Voice of Jammu & Kashmir ii. Hindustan Times - 2. Journalism of Courage iii. The Indian Express - 3. First Voice. Last Word iv. S
    Answer: D - i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
    The Indian Express = Journalism of Courage; State Times = The Bold Voice of Jammu & Kashmir; Times of India = Let Truth Prevail; Hindustan Times = First Voice. Last Word.
27. Q27: Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct? (i) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government. (ii) Parliament is Supreme. (iii) The Supreme Court is the guard
    Answer: C - (ii) and (iii)
    In India, the President is Head of State while the PM is Head of Government (i is wrong). The Constitution, not Parliament, is supreme (ii is wrong). DPSPs are not justiciable (iv is wrong). Only the Supreme Court being guardian of the Constitution (iii) is co
28. Q28: Match the following Indian languages with their respective states: i. Konkani - 1. Jammu & Kashmir ii. Dogri - 2. Meghalaya iii. Khasi - 3. Bihar iv. Maithili - 4. Goa
    Answer: B - i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
    Konkani - Goa; Dogri - Jammu & Kashmir; Khasi - Meghalaya; Maithili - Bihar. All are scheduled languages of India.
29. Q29: Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT correct about the Attorney General of India? I. Qualified to be a Judge of a High Court II. Has the right of audience in all courts III. Has the right to take part in procee
    Answer: D - IV only
    Statement I is incorrect - AG must be qualified to be a Judge of the Supreme Court (not High Court) per Article 76. Statement IV is incorrect - AG holds office during the pleasure of the President (no fixed tenure). II and III are correct.
30. Q30: In 2024, which spacecraft successfully retrieved lunar samples from the far side of the Moon?
    Answer: B - Chang''e-6
    China''s Chang''e-6 mission (2024) successfully collected and returned samples from the far side of the Moon for the first time in history, landing in the South Pole-Aitken Basin.
31. Q31: In which year did the Right to Information (RTI) Act come into force in Jammu & Kashmir?
    Answer: C - 2009
    After the abrogation of Article 370 and the J&K Reorganization Act in August 2019, the Central RTI Act 2005 became applicable to Jammu & Kashmir effective October 31, 2019.
32. Q32: Assertion (A): Jammu & Kashmir was granted special status under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution. Reason (R): Article 370 allowed J&K to have its own constitution and autonomy over all matters except defens
    Answer: A - Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    A is correct - J&K had special status under Article 370. R is partially incorrect - the Instrument of Accession covered only defense, external affairs, and communications. Finance was NOT one of the original excepted matters, making R false.
33. Q33: Who probably invented the Dogri script?
    Answer: B - Shakti Karan
    The Dogri script (Dogra script) is attributed to Puran Karan in J&K historical records.
34. Q34: Consider the following statements about the climate of Jammu: Statement I: Kashmir valley influences climate of Northern Jammu. Statement II: Southern plains of Jammu experience temperate climate. Which is/are correct?
    Answer: A - Only I
    Statement I is correct - the Kashmir valley does influence the climate of Northern Jammu regions. Statement II is incorrect - the southern plains of Jammu experience a subtropical/semi-arid climate, not temperate.
35. Q35: Match the following: i) Established first legislature in J&K ii) First Speaker of J&K Legislative Assembly iii) First Chairman of J&K Legislative Council 1) Ghulam Rasool Renzoo 2) Hari Singh 3) ShivNarayan F
    Answer: B - i-2, ii-1, iii-3
    Maharaja Hari Singh established the first legislature (Praja Sabha) in J&K. Ghulam Rasool Renzoo was the first Speaker of the J&K Legislative Assembly. ShivNarayan Fotedar was the first Chairman of the J&K Legislative Council.
36. Q36: If the price of a product increases by 25%, by what percentage must a consumer reduce the consumption to maintain the same expenditure?
    Answer: A - 20%
    If price increases by 25%, new price = 1.25P. To keep expenditure same: Qnew = Q/1.25 = 0.8Q. Reduction = 20%.
37. Q37: Complete the series: 22, 33, 46, 61, 78, ?
    Answer: B - 97
    Differences: 11, 13, 15, 17, 19 (increasing by 2 each time). Next = 78 + 19 = 97.
38. Q38: Consider the following statements: Statement I: The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11. Statement II: In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal value as 0.625. Which state
    Answer: B - S II Only
    Decimal 11 = 11. Hexadecimal 11 = 1x16+1 = 17. So decimal 11 < hex 11, making Statement I FALSE. Binary 0.101 = 0.5+0+0.125 = 0.625. Statement II is TRUE.
39. Q39: Assertion: No man is perfect. Reasoning: Some men are not perfect. Select the correct code:
    Answer: A - Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).
    Both statements are true. However, Some men are not perfect (R) is a weaker statement than No man is perfect (A). R does not provide sufficient justification for A.
40. Q40: Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails. Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads.
    Answer: C - (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    This is the gambler fallacy. Each coin flip is independent (probability always 50/50). R is factually true (5 heads in a row). However, R does NOT logically explain or justify A - past flips do not affect future probability.
41. Q41: P is the father of Q. Q is the sister of R. R is the father of S. How is P related to S?
    Answer: A - Grandfather
    P is father of Q. Q is sister of R, so P is also the father of R. R is father of S. Therefore P is the grandfather of S.
42. Q42: The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. Mark the right choice for the second set: AST : BRU :: NQV : ?
    Answer: A - ORW
    A-B (+1), S-R (-1), T-U (+1). Applying same: N-O (+1), Q-P (-1), V-W (+1) = OPW.
43. Q43: Match the mathematical concepts with their corresponding formulas: 1. Compound Interest - iii. A=P(1+R/100)^n 2. Trigonometry - iv. sin^2(theta)+cos^2(theta)=1 3. Speed, Distance and Time - i. (Speed x Time)=Distance 4.
    Answer: A - 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-v, 5-ii
    Compound Interest: A=P(1+R/100)^n; Trigonometry: sin^2+cos^2=1; Speed formula: Speed x Time = Distance; P&L: (SP-CP)/CP x 100; SI: PRT/100.
44. Q44: Assertion (A): If a person moves 10 km north, then 5 km east, the total distance travelled is 15 km. Reason (R): The shortest distance between the starting and ending point is given by the Pythagorean theorem.
    Answer: B - Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
    A is true - total distance travelled = 10+5 = 15 km. R is also true - displacement = sqrt(10^2+5^2) = sqrt(125). However, R explains the displacement (shortest path), NOT the total distance (15 km). So R does not explain A.
45. Q45: Match the word with its coded form (each letter shifted +2): i) CAT - 1) DCNN ii) DOG - 2) ECV iii) APPLE - 3) FQI iv) BALL - 4) CRRNG
    Answer: B - i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1
    Each letter shifted +2: CAT-ECV, DOG-FQI, APPLE-CRRNG, BALL-DCNN. So i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1.
46. Q46: Consider the following statements: I. A 10% increase followed by a 10% decrease returns the original number. II. 50% of 200 is 100. III. If a number is increased by 20%, then decreased by 20%, the final result is less th
    Answer: D - Only II, III, and IV
    Statement I is FALSE: 100-110-99 (not 100). Statement II is TRUE: 50% of 200=100. Statement III is TRUE: 100-120-96 (less than 100). Statement IV is TRUE: 200% increase = original + 2x original = 3x original (triple).
47. Q47: Two goods trains, each 500 m long, are running in opposite directions on parallel tracks. Their speeds are 45 km/hr and 30 km/hr. Find the time taken by the slower train to pass the driver of the faster one.
    Answer: B - 24 sec
    To pass the driver (a point), the slower train covers its own length = 500 m. Relative speed = 45+30 = 75 km/hr = 75000/3600 = 125/6 m/s. Time = 500/(125/6) = 500x6/125 = 24 seconds.
48. Q48: Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so. Assumptions: I. At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn. II. The schools do not admit children aft
    Answer: A - Only assumption I is implicit
    Assumption I is implicit - the statement implies readiness for school at age 5 suggests developmental readiness. Assumption II is NOT implicit - the statement says nothing about schools not admitting older children.
49. Q49: Find the number of triangles in the given figure.
    Answer: B - 18
    Counting all triangles including overlapping and nested ones in the standard figure pattern gives 18 triangles.
50. Q50: Identify the figure that completes the pattern.
    Answer: C - 3
    Based on the pattern shown in the figure, option 3 correctly completes the visual sequence.
51. Q51: Read the following two statements: Statement I: Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of Information Technology (IT). Statement II: The right to use a piece of software is termed as copyri
    Answer: B - Neither I nor II
    Statement I is incorrect - ICT is broader than or equivalent to IT, not a subset. Statement II is incorrect - the right to use software is called a software license, not copyright. Copyright protects the creator.
52. Q52: HTML is used to create
    Answer: C - web page
    HTML (HyperText Markup Language) is the standard language used to create and structure web pages.
53. Q53: Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which stands for
    Answer: B - American Standard Code for Information Interchange
    ASCII stands for American Standard Code for Information Interchange. It is a character encoding standard for electronic communication.
54. Q54: Microsoft Windows is an example of which type of operating system?
    Answer: A - Multitasking Operating System
    Microsoft Windows is primarily a Multitasking Operating System as it allows multiple programs to run simultaneously on a single processor.
55. Q55: Which search engine is owned by Microsoft?
    Answer: C - Bing
    Bing is the search engine owned and operated by Microsoft Corporation.
56. Q56: Which protocol is used to send emails?
    Answer: B - SMTP
    SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is the standard protocol used for sending emails. HTTP is for web pages, FTP for file transfer.
57. Q57: Assertion (A): The BIOS is responsible for initializing hardware components during the computer boot process. Reason (R): The BIOS loads the operating system into memory to start the computer.
    Answer: C - Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
    BIOS initializes hardware (POST) and then loads the OS bootloader. Both statements are true and R is the correct explanation of A - BIOS initializes hardware as part of the boot sequence that leads to loading the OS.
58. Q58: Match the following operating systems with their examples: i. Batch OS - 1. UNIX ii. Time-Sharing OS - 2. Windows Server iii. Distributed OS - 3. IBM iv. Network OS - 4. Google Android OS
    Answer: B - i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
    Batch OS - IBM (mainframes used for batch processing); Time-Sharing OS - UNIX; Distributed OS - Google Android (distributed computing); Network OS - Windows Server.
59. Q59: Match the following: i. Trackball - 3. Control the movement of the cursor on a monitor ii. Graphics tablet - 1. Used for drawing iii. Printer - 4. Convert digital data into a physical form iv. Joystick - 2. Control the m
    Answer: A - i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
    Trackball = cursor movement; Graphics tablet = drawing; Printer = digital to physical; Joystick = game control.
60. Q60: Which of the following statements about computer memory are correct? I. Cache memory is faster than RAM. II. SSDs are slower than HDDs. III. Virtual memory extends RAM using storage space. IV. DRAM is a type of non-volat
    Answer: A - I and III only
    I is TRUE - cache is faster than RAM. II is FALSE - SSDs are faster than HDDs. III is TRUE - virtual memory uses disk space to extend RAM. IV is FALSE - DRAM is volatile (loses data when power is off).
61. Q61: The function of kinetodesmata in ciliate protozoans is to:
    Answer: B - Coordinate ciliary movement
    Kinetodesmata are fibrils associated with kinetosomes (basal bodies) in ciliates. They function in coordinating the movement of cilia.
62. Q62: Match List-I (Porifera Class) with List-II (Characteristic Features): 1. Calcarea - iii. Calcium carbonate spicules 2. Hexactinellida - i. Siliceous spicules, deep-sea forms 3. Demospongiae - ii. Spongin fibers, commerci
    Answer: A - 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv
    Calcarea = CaCO3 spicules; Hexactinellida = siliceous/deep-sea (glass sponges); Demospongiae = spongin fibers (bath sponges); Sclerospongiae = both spicule types.
63. Q63: Assertion (A): Cnidarians have a gastrovascular cavity that serves both digestive and circulatory functions. Reason (R): Cnidarians lack a separate circulatory system and depend on diffusion for nutrient transport.
    Answer: A - Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
    Cnidarians do have a gastrovascular cavity serving both functions (A is true). They lack a separate circulatory system (R is true), and this is exactly WHY the gastrovascular cavity serves dual function - R correctly explains A.
64. Q64: The definitive host for Taenia solium is:
    Answer: B - Human
    Taenia solium (pork tapeworm) has humans as the definitive host where the adult worm lives. Pigs are the intermediate host where cysticerci develop.
65. Q65: The flame cells present in Platyhelminthes are specialized for:
    Answer: C - Osmoregulation and excretion
    Flame cells (protonephridia) in Platyhelminthes function in osmoregulation and excretion. They filter body fluids and help maintain water balance.
66. Q66: Statement I: Sponges have a cellular level of organization, with water entering the body through ostia and exiting through the osculum. Statement II: Sponges exhibit extracellular digestion.
    Answer: C - Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
    Statement I is correct - sponges are cellular-level organisms, water enters through ostia (pores) and exits through osculum. Statement II is incorrect - sponges exhibit INTRACELLULAR digestion (food is engulfed by choanocytes and digested inside cells).
67. Q67: The figure shows cross-section of the body of an animal. This animal:
    Answer: D - I, II, III and IV are correct
    The cross-section described represents a platyhelminth (flatworm) - acoelomate, triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, and dorso-ventrally flattened. All four statements are correct.
68. Q68: Match List-I (Protozoan Group) with List-II (Example): 1. Amoeboid - i. Amoeba proteus 2. Ciliates - ii. Paramecium caudatum 3. Flagellates - iii. Euglena viridis 4. Sporozoans - iv. Plasmodium falciparum 5. Dinoflagella
    Answer: A - 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv, 5-v, 6-vi
    All matches are straightforward: Amoeba proteus (amoeboid), Paramecium (ciliate), Euglena (flagellate), Plasmodium (sporozoan), Gonyaulax (dinoflagellate), Physarum (slime mold).
69. Q69: Name the cells specialised for excretion and osmoregulation in Ascaris
    Answer: B - Renette Cells
    Ascaris (a nematode/roundworm) has renette cells (also called gland cells or H-cells) for excretion and osmoregulation. Flame cells are found in Platyhelminthes.
70. Q70: The members of Kingdom Monera and Kingdom Protista in Whittaker five-kingdom classification resemble each other in:
    Answer: A - Cell type
    Both Monera and Protista are predominantly unicellular organisms. They resemble each other in body organization (simple unicellular/colonial). Cell type (prokaryotic vs eukaryotic), cell wall composition, and nuclear membrane differ.
71. Q71: Match the Molluscan Classes with their Examples: i. Gastropoda - 3. Snail ii. Bivalvia - 4. Oyster iii. Cephalopoda - 1. Octopus iv. Polyplacophora - 2. Chiton
    Answer: A - i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
    Gastropoda = snails and slugs; Bivalvia = oysters, mussels, clams; Cephalopoda = octopus, squid, nautilus; Polyplacophora = chitons (8 shell plates).
72. Q72: Statement I: Cephalochordates retain their notochord throughout life. Statement II: They exhibit a dorsal tubular nerve cord and pharyngeal slits.
    Answer: A - Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
    Both statements are correct about cephalochordates (e.g., Amphioxus/Branchiostoma). They retain the notochord throughout life and possess all three chordate characteristics: notochord, dorsal nerve cord, and pharyngeal slits.
73. Q73: Match the Echinoderm Features with their Functions: i. Tube feet - 2. Locomotion and feeding ii. Madreporite - 1. Regulates water entry iii. Pedicellariae - 3. Defense and cleaning iv. Radial canal - 4. Distributes water
    Answer: A - i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4
    Tube feet = locomotion and feeding; Madreporite = water entry regulator (sieve plate); Pedicellariae = defense and cleaning appendages; Radial canal = distributes water in water vascular system.
74. Q74: Which enzyme is found in the resorptive cells of digestive glands of Pila?
    Answer: B - Protease
    In Pila (apple snail), the resorptive cells of the digestive gland contain lipase for fat digestion and absorption.
75. Q75: Johnston organ is found in
    Answer: C - Antennae of Mosquitoes
    Johnston organ is a chordotonal organ located in the pedicel (second segment) of the antennae of mosquitoes and other insects. It detects sound vibrations and is important for mating in male mosquitoes.
76. Q76: How many red colour eye spots are present in sea star?
    Answer: D - 5 pairs
    Sea stars (starfish) have 5 arms, and each arm tip bears a small photoreceptive eyespot (ocellus). Therefore there are 5 eye spots in total.
77. Q77: The membrane at the side that can connect the tergum and sternum is known as
    Answer: C - pleuron
    In arthropods (insects), the pleuron is the lateral plate/membrane connecting the tergum (dorsal plate) and sternum (ventral plate) in each body segment.
78. Q78: Complete metamorphosis occurs in
    Answer: D - Mosquito
    Mosquito undergoes complete metamorphosis (holometabolous): egg, larva, pupa, adult. Silverfish = ametabolous; Locust and Bedbug = incomplete metamorphosis (hemimetabolous).
79. Q79: Assertion (A): Torsion in gastropods improves their defense mechanism. Reason (R): The repositioning of the mantle cavity allows the head to retract into the shell before the foot.
    Answer: A - Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    Torsion in gastropods does improve defense (A is true). The repositioning of the mantle cavity to the front allows the head to withdraw into the shell first, providing better protection - R correctly explains A.
80. Q80: Which of the following is/are true about the endostyle in Urochordates? I. It is involved in filter feeding. II. It secretes mucus to trap food particles. III. It is homologous to the thyroid gland in vertebrates. IV. It
    Answer: B - I, II, and III
    I, II, and III are correct. The endostyle is a ciliated groove in the pharynx involved in filter feeding via mucus. It is homologous to the vertebrate thyroid gland. Statement IV is incorrect - the endostyle is present in adult tunicates (not only larvae).
81. Q81: Indian Bull Frog is
    Answer: A - Rana tigrina
    The Indian Bull Frog (Hoplobatrachus tigerinus, formerly Rana tigrina) is the largest frog found in India.
82. Q82: Match the fish orders with their representative examples: i. Chondrichthyes - 2) Scoliodon (Dogfish) ii. Perciformes - 3) Catla iii. Cypriniformes - 1) Labeo (Rohu) iv. Siluriformes - 4) Clarias (Catfish)
    Answer: B - i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4
    Scoliodon = cartilaginous fish (Chondrichthyes); Catla = Perciformes; Labeo/Rohu = Cypriniformes; Clarias = Siluriformes (true catfishes).
83. Q83: Which of the following is a poisonous snake?
    Answer: B - Rattlesnake
    Rattlesnake is venomous (produces venom injected through fangs). Python and Boa constrictor are non-venomous constrictors; Garter snake is non-venomous.
84. Q84: Match the following orders of birds with their examples: i. Passeriformes - 2. Sparrow ii. Accipitriformes - 4. Eagle iii. Columbiformes - 1. Pigeon iv. Falconiformes - 3. Crow
    Answer: D - i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4
    Passeriformes = Sparrow (perching birds); Accipitriformes = Eagle (hawks and eagles); Columbiformes = Pigeon (doves and pigeons); Falconiformes = Crow (in older classification).
85. Q85: Feathers of the birds are waterproof due to the oil secretion of
    Answer: B - uropygial glands
    The uropygial gland (preen gland) located at the base of the tail secretes oil that birds spread over their feathers during preening, making them waterproof.
86. Q86: Which one is not correct about Metatheria (marsupials)?
    Answer: C - Placenta is well developed
    In Metatheria (marsupials), the placenta is POORLY developed or absent. Young are born at an early stage and complete development in the pouch. Options A, B, and D are correct features of marsupials.
87. Q87: Assertion (A): Marine fish maintain osmotic balance by drinking large amounts of seawater. Reason (R): Marine fish excrete excess salt through specialized cells in their gills to prevent dehydration.
    Answer: A - Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    Marine teleost fish are hyposmotic to seawater - they lose water by osmosis and compensate by drinking seawater (A is true). They then excrete excess salt through chloride cells in gills (R is true). R correctly explains the mechanism of osmotic balance.
88. Q88: Which of the following statements about parental care in amphibians is/are correct? I. In some amphibians, males guard the eggs and provide protection until they hatch. II. Certain amphibians, like Darwin frog, carry the
    Answer: C - Only statements I and II are correct.
    Statements I, II, and III are correct. Male Darwin frog (Rhinoderma darwinii) carries tadpoles in vocal sac. Some male frogs guard eggs. Many frog species provide no parental care. Statement IV is debatable as some salamanders do provide care.
89. Q89: Which of the following is considered an example of adaptive radiation in mammals following the extinction of the dinosaurs? I) Evolution of primates from early mammalian ancestors. II) Diversification of ungulates to fil
    Answer: D - II, III, and IV are correct.
    Ungulates diversifying into ecological niches (II), whales/dolphins evolving from land mammals (III), and bats evolving from insectivores (IV) are classic examples of adaptive radiation post-dinosaur extinction. Primate evolution (I) is less directly tied to a
90. Q90: Which of the following reptile orders includes lizards and snakes?
    Answer: B - Squamata
    Order Squamata includes lizards and snakes. Crocodilia = crocodiles and alligators; Testudines/Chelonia = turtles and tortoises.
91. Q91: Which of the following hormones helps in secretion of HCl from stomach?
    Answer: B - Gastrin
    Gastrin is secreted by G cells of the stomach and stimulates the parietal cells to secrete HCl. Secretin inhibits gastric acid. Pepsin is an enzyme, not a hormone.
92. Q92: Partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air is
    Answer: C - 104 mm Hg
    The partial pressure of O2 in alveolar air is approximately 104 mm Hg. Atmospheric O2 is 159 mm Hg, but it decreases in alveoli due to mixing with water vapor and CO2.
93. Q93: Which option indicates correct chronology of changes occurring during transmission of nerve impulse?
    Answer: A - Nerve fibre - depolarization - action potential - repolarization - activation of Na+ and K+ pump
    The correct sequence: nerve fiber at rest - depolarization (Na+ influx) - action potential - repolarization (K+ efflux) - Na+/K+ pump restores resting potential.
94. Q94: A high respiratory quotient indicates:
    Answer: B - Aerobic respiration
    Respiratory Quotient (RQ) = CO2 produced / O2 consumed. RQ 1 indicates anaerobic respiration (lactic acid fermentation produces CO2 without consuming O2). RQ = 1 for carbohydrates, < 1 for fats.
95. Q95: If loop of Henle were absent from an individual nephron, which one of the following is to be expected?
    Answer: A - The urine will be more dilute
    The loop of Henle creates a concentration gradient in the medulla through the counter-current multiplier mechanism. Without it, this gradient cannot be maintained and the urine produced will be more dilute (isotonic to blood).
96. Q96: Match Brain Regions with Their Function: i. Cerebrum - 2. Memory, intelligence, and thinking ii. Cerebellum - 1. Coordination of voluntary movement iii. Medulla oblongata - 3. Reflex actions, heartbeat, and breathing iv.
    Answer: A - i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4
    Cerebrum = higher functions (memory, intelligence); Cerebellum = motor coordination; Medulla oblongata = vital reflexes (heartbeat, breathing); Hypothalamus = homeostasis (temperature, hunger).
97. Q97: Match the Photoreceptor Cells with Their Function: i. Rods - 2. Black and white vision in dim light ii. Cones - 1. Color vision under bright light iii. Fovea - 3. Area with the highest concentration of cones for sharp vi
    Answer: C - i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4
    Rods = dim light/black and white vision; Cones = bright light/color vision; Fovea = highest cone density for sharp central vision; Optic nerve = transmits signals to brain.
98. Q98: Assertion (A): Marine fishes excrete nitrogenous waste primarily as ammonia. Reason (R): Marine fishes are hyperosmotic to their environment, leading to high water retention.
    Answer: C - A is correct, but R is incorrect.
    Marine teleost fish (bony fish) are ammoniotelic - they do excrete ammonia (A is correct). However, marine teleosts are HYPOSMOTIC to seawater (not hyperosmotic) - they lose water and must drink seawater. R is incorrect.
99. Q99: Cholecystokinin, one of the hormones of digestive tract: I) Stimulates release of trypsin II) Inhibits release of pepsin III) Stimulates release of lipase Which of the above statements are correct?
    Answer: D - I and III
    CCK (Cholecystokinin) stimulates the pancreas to release digestive enzymes including trypsin (I - correct) and lipase (III - correct). CCK does NOT inhibit pepsin secretion (II - incorrect). Pepsin secretion is regulated by gastrin.
100. Q100: Choose the Correct Statements About Resting Membrane Potential: I. The resting membrane potential is typically around -70 mV. II. The sodium-potassium pump actively maintains this potential. III. At rest, the membrane is
     Answer: C - Only I, II, and IV
     I is TRUE (-70 mV is correct). II is TRUE (Na+/K+ ATPase maintains the gradient). III is FALSE - at rest, membrane is more permeable to K+ than Na+. IV is TRUE (both passive diffusion and active Na+/K+ pump maintain resting potential).
101. Q101: Match the following: i. Eohippus - 3. Dawn horse - first ancestor of horses ii. Mesohippus - 1. Ancestor with three toes, lived in forests iii. Merychippus - 4. First to exhibit a grazing diet, started evolving on plains
     Answer: A - i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
     Horse evolution: Eohippus (dawn horse, smallest, 4 toes) - Mesohippus (3 toes, forest dweller) - Merychippus (first grazer on plains) - Equus (modern horse, 1 toe/hoof).
102. Q102: Sibling species exhibit: I. sympatric distribution II. morphological similarity III. genetic identity IV. reproductive isolation
     Answer: D - I, II, and IV are correct
     Sibling species are morphologically very similar (II), can be sympatric (I), and are reproductively isolated (IV). They are NOT genetically identical (III is wrong) - they have differences in genetic makeup that define them as separate species.
103. Q103: Choose the correct sequence of evolutionary events in allopatric speciation: I. Geographical isolation II. Ecological isolation III. Increased pre-mating reproductive isolation IV. Increased genetic divergence V. Selecti
     Answer: D - I, II, III, V
     Allopatric speciation sequence: I (Geographic isolation) - II (Ecological isolation as populations adapt differently) - III (Pre-mating reproductive isolation develops) - V (Selection completed, new species formed). Geographic divergence must come first.
104. Q104: Some of the oldest known fossil cells appear as parts of stromatolites, which are formed today from sediments and
     Answer: B - photosynthetic prokaryotes
     Stromatolites are layered structures formed by photosynthetic prokaryotes (cyanobacteria). These are among the oldest fossils on Earth (~3.5 billion years old) representing early life.
105. Q105: The unit of evolution is the
     Answer: C - population
     The population is the unit of evolution. Evolution occurs through changes in allele frequencies within a population over time (not in individuals, which cannot change their genotype).
106. Q106: The fossil of Java Man was found in 1891 on banks of Solo River in Eastern Java by:
     Answer: B - Dubois
     Eugene Dubois discovered the fossils of Homo erectus (Pithecanthropus erectus/Java Man) in 1891 in Java, Indonesia. Davidson Black found Peking Man; Leakey found African hominid fossils.
107. Q107: Assertion (A): Stabilizing selection favours individuals with extreme phenotypes in a population. Reason (R): Stabilizing selection reduces genetic diversity by selecting for the average phenotype.
     Answer: C - Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
     Assertion A is FALSE - Stabilizing selection favours INTERMEDIATE phenotypes and eliminates extremes (opposite of what is stated). Reason R is TRUE - stabilizing selection does reduce diversity by selecting for average phenotype.
108. Q108: Match the theories with the scientist who proposed them: i. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters - 2. Lamarck ii. Biological species concept - 1. Ernst Mayr iii. Theory of natural selection - 4. Darwin iv. Modern
     Answer: C - i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
     Lamarck = inheritance of acquired characters; Ernst Mayr = biological species concept; Darwin = natural selection; Dobzhansky = modern synthetic theory (Neo-Darwinism).
109. Q109: Which of the following is the most famous example of industrial melanism?
     Answer: A - Peppered moth (Biston betularia)
     The peppered moth (Biston betularia) is the classic example of industrial melanism - dark-colored moths became more common in industrial areas where soot darkened tree bark, demonstrating natural selection in action.
110. Q110: Choose the correct statement(s): I. Genetic variation can only arise from sexual reproduction. II. Organic variation is always beneficial for the survival of a species. III. Environmental factors have no effect on organi
     Answer: C - Only IV is correct
     Statement I is FALSE - mutations in asexual organisms also create genetic variation. Statement II is FALSE - variations can be harmful or neutral. Statement III is FALSE - environment affects phenotypic expression. Only IV is correct - pre-zygotic isolation (h
111. Q111: What is the role of regulatory T cells in the immune system?
     Answer: B - To suppress immune responses
     Regulatory T cells (Tregs, CD4+CD25+FoxP3+) suppress immune responses to prevent autoimmunity and excessive immune activation. They maintain self-tolerance.
112. Q112: Match the Cytokines with Their Functions: i. IL-1 - 4. Promotes inflammation, fever, and activation of T-cells ii. IL-2 - 1. Stimulates the growth of T-cells, key role in adaptive immunity iii. IFN-gamma - 2. Activates m
     Answer: A - i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
     IL-1 = pro-inflammatory, fever, T-cell activation; IL-2 = T-cell growth factor (critical for adaptive immunity); IFN-gamma = macrophage activation, antigen presentation; TNF-alpha = inflammation, apoptosis.
113. Q113: Which of the following co-receptors recognizes the beta2 microglobulin subunit of class I MHCs?
     Answer: C - CD8
     CD8 co-receptor on cytotoxic T cells (CTLs) recognizes MHC Class I molecules. CD4 co-receptor recognizes MHC Class II. The beta2 microglobulin is a component of MHC Class I.
114. Q114: Which is the correct order of activities showcased by endogenous antigens? i) Peptide binding to MHC Class I ii) Transport to Endoplasmic Reticulum iii) Generation of Peptide from proteolysis
     Answer: B - iii-ii-i
     Endogenous antigen processing: iii (proteasome generates peptides from cytosolic proteins) - ii (peptides transported to ER via TAP transporter) - i (peptides bind MHC Class I in ER, then surface presentation).
115. Q115: Select the correct statements regarding the receptors of the innate immune system: I. They are included in the Toll family of receptors. II. They include MHC complexes. III. They recognize molecular patterns. IV. They in
     Answer: A - I, III, and IV
     Innate immune receptors include Toll-like receptors (TLRs) = I, pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) that recognize PAMPs/DAMPs = III, and scavenger receptors = IV. MHC complexes (II) are part of the ADAPTIVE immune system, not innate.
116. Q116: In humans, what are MHCs called as
     Answer: B - HLA
     In humans, MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex) molecules are called HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigens). They are encoded by genes on chromosome 6.
117. Q117: B lymphocytes are involved in the human immune response to a bacterial infection. Which of the following processes would TYPICALLY be carried out by these lymphocytes? I. Cell division by mitosis II. Transcription produc
     Answer: A - I and II only
     B lymphocytes undergo clonal expansion by mitosis (I) and produce antibody proteins requiring transcription of immunoglobulin genes to mRNA (II). B cells do NOT typically engulf and digest bacteria - that is performed by phagocytes (macrophages, neutrophils).
118. Q118: Match the following Antibody types with where they are found: i. IgA - 4. Mucosal secretions like saliva, tears, and breast milk ii. IgG - 1. Blood and extracellular fluid iii. IgD - 2. Surface of immature B cells iv. Ig
     Answer: A - i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
     IgA = secretory antibody in mucosal surfaces; IgG = most abundant in blood; IgD = B cell surface receptor on naive B cells; IgE = bound to mast cells and basophils (involved in allergy and parasite defense).
119. Q119: A complement component that is strongly chemotactic for neutrophils is:
     Answer: C - C5a
     C5a is a potent chemotactic factor that attracts neutrophils to the site of infection/inflammation. C3b acts as an opsonin. C5b initiates the membrane attack complex (MAC).
120. Q120: Assertion (A): An antibody is represented as H2L2. Reason (R): An antibody has two heavy chains and two light chains.
     Answer: A - Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
     An antibody (immunoglobulin) is indeed represented as H2L2 - consisting of 2 identical heavy chains and 2 identical light chains linked by disulfide bonds. R correctly explains why the notation H2L2 is used.