JKSSB Veterinary Pharmacist Question Paper 2025

English Language — Solved Questions

1. Q1: Choose the correct meaning of the given idiom: A skeleton in the cupboard
   Answer: D — An embarrassing fact to be kept secret
   The correct answer is An embarrassing fact to be kept secret. Key Points - A skeleton in the cupboard means an embarrassing or shameful secret that a person or family wants to keep hidden.
2. Q2: Choose the correct meaning of the phrase: Kick the bucket
   Answer: C — To pass away
   The correct answer is To pass away. Key Points - The idiom 'kick the bucket' is an informal expression meaning to die — that is, to pass away. - So the correct meaning is 'To pass away'. - Option (D) 'to kick a bucket' is the wrong literal
3. Q3: Select the pair that has the same relationship: DIVA : OPERA
   Answer: C — Thespian: Play
   The correct answer is Thespian: Play. Key Points - A diva is a leading performer in an opera; a thespian is a leading performer in a play. - Both represent a performer associated with a specific art form.
4. Q4: Choose the correct word to complete the sentence: did you put my keys?
   Answer: C — Where
   The correct answer is Where. Key Points - The sentence asks about a place — ' did you put my keys?' — so it needs the question word 'Where', which asks about location. - The other options are homophones (words that sound alike but differ in
5. Q5: We bought some eggs from the market but unfortunately of them were fresh.
   Answer: C — None
   The correct answer is None. Key Points - None is used for countable and uncountable nouns to mean not any. - No one refers to people, much is for uncountable, many is affirmative.
6. Q6: Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of PREDICT
   Answer: B — Foretell
   The correct answer is Foretell. Key Points - 'Predict' means to say what will happen in the future — its closest synonym is 'foretell' (to tell beforehand). - The other options do not match: 'Prevent' (stop), 'Discover' (find) and 'Decide'
7. Q7: Fill the blank with the most suitable preposition: It was very generous you to offer to help me.
   Answer: A — Of
   The correct answer is Of. Key Points - The correct preposition after adjectives describing character (generous, kind, nice) referring to a person is of. It was generous of you.
8. Q8: Find the antonym of the word: AMPLE
   Answer: B — Meagre
   The correct answer is Meagre. Key Points - AMPLE means more than enough. - Its antonym is Meagre, which means lacking in quality or quantity. - Enough and Sufficient are synonyms of Ample.
9. Q9: Fill in the blank with the correct article: I go to Srinagar by Vande Bharat Express.
   Answer: D — The
   The correct answer is The. Key Points - The definite article The is used before specific named vehicles and trains. - Vande Bharat Express is a specific named train.
10. Q10: Identify the type of clause in the given sentence: I know that she is coming to the party.
    Answer: C — Noun clause
    The correct answer is Noun clause. Key Points - The clause that she is coming to the party functions as the object of the verb know. - A clause functioning as a noun is called a noun clause.
11. Q11: Which punctuation mark is used to show possession?
    Answer: B — Apostrophe (')
    The correct answer is Apostrophe ('). Key Points - The punctuation mark used to show possession is the apostrophe ('), as in the dog's bone (the bone belonging to the dog) or the students' books (books belonging to several students). - The
12. Q12: What are homonyms?
    Answer: D — Both A and C
    The correct answer is Both A and C. Key Points - Homonyms include both homophones (same sound, different meaning) and homographs (same spelling, different meaning). - So Both A and C are correct.
13. Q13: Match the idioms in Column A with their correct meanings in Column B: 1. Break the ice - i. In a difficult situation 2. Hit the sack - ii. Go to bed 3. Under the weather - iii. Start a conversation 4.
    Answer: A — 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-v, 5-i
    The correct answer is 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-v, 5-i. Key Points - Break the ice = start a conversation; Hit the sack = go to bed; Under the weather = feeling unwell; Once in a blue moon = very rarely; In hot water = in a difficult situation.
14. Q14: Match the words in Column A with their correct antonyms in Column B: 1. Generous - i. Ugly 2. Beautiful - ii. Weak 3. Strong - iii. Stingy 4. Victory - iv. Defeat 5. Ancient - v. Modern
    Answer: A — 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv, 5-v
    The correct answer is 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv, 5-v. Key Points - This question matches each word with its antonym (opposite): - 1. Generous → iii. Stingy (giving freely vs mean with money) - 2. Beautiful → i. Ugly - 3. Strong → ii. Weak - 4.
15. Q15: Choose the correct verb form to complete the sentence: The thief will have run away before the police .
    Answer: A — comes
    The correct answer is comes. Key Points - With future perfect tense in the main clause, the subordinate clause introduced by before uses simple present. - The police comes is correct here.

General Knowledge & Current Affairs — Solved Questions

1. Q16: Consider the following statements regarding shifting cultivation: 1. It is also known as slash and burn agriculture. 2. In India, it is mainly practiced in Northeast region. 3. In Northeast India it i
   Answer: A — 1, 2 and 3 only
   The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 only. Key Points - Shifting cultivation (slash and burn) is practiced in Northeast India as Jhum cultivation. - Statement 4 is incorrect as it is practiced in many parts of the world including Africa, Southe
2. Q17: Name the Indian river known as the Dakshin Ganga.
   Answer: B — Godavari
   The correct answer is Godavari. Key Points - Godavari is known as Dakshin Ganga (Ganga of the South) because of its length, sacred importance, and geographic position in peninsular India.
3. Q18: The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include: 1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem 2. To develop the scientific temper. 3. Respect for the Government. 4. To protec
   Answer: B — 1, 2 and 4
   The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4. Key Points - Respect for Government is NOT a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A. - Duties include respecting the Constitution/Flag/Anthem (51A-a), developing scientific temper (51A-h), and protecting wildli
4. Q19: Match the following events with their years: i. Civil Disobedience Movement ii. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre iii. Quit India Movement iv. Simon Commission Arrival in India Years: 1. 1919, 2. 1942, 3. 193
   Answer: B — i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4
   The correct answer is i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4. Key Points - Civil Disobedience Movement - 1930 (Salt March); Jallianwala Bagh - 1919; Quit India Movement - 1942; Simon Commission - 1928.
5. Q20: Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization: I. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene. II. During this period, cotton was used f
   Answer: C — Both I and II
   The correct answer is Both I and II. Key Points - Both statements are correct. - Indus Valley Civilization was largely secular in its material culture, and cotton (karpas) was cultivated and used for textile manufacturing - making India one
6. Q21: Which of the following countries is NOT a founding member of SAARC?
   Answer: C — Myanmar
   The correct answer is Myanmar. Key Points - SAARC was founded in 1985 with 7 members: India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, and Maldives. - Myanmar is not a member of SAARC.
7. Q22: Match List-I with List-II: 1) Poverty Reduction Programme - iv) MNREGA 2) Human Development Scheme - i) Mid-day Meals 3) Social Assistance Scheme - iii) National Old Age Pension 4) Minimum Need Scheme
   Answer: A — (iv)(i)(iii)(ii)
   The correct answer is (iv)(i)(iii)(ii). Key Points - MNREGA = poverty reduction; Mid-day Meals = human development (education/nutrition); NOAP = social assistance for elderly; IAY = minimum needs (housing).
8. Q23: In which field is the Kalinga Award given?
   Answer: A — Science
   The correct answer is Science. Key Points - The Kalinga Prize is awarded by UNESCO for the popularization of science. - It was established in 1951 through a donation from Biju Patnaik.
9. Q24: Who has been appointed as the new chairman of Life Insurance Corporation of India?
   Answer: D — Siddhartha Mohanty
   The correct answer is Siddhartha Mohanty. Key Points - Siddhartha Mohanty was appointed Chairman of the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC). - He first took charge as CEO and Managing Director and was then elevated to the post of Chai
10. Q25: Which of the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is correct? I) The Preamble is considered part of the Constitution but is not legally enforceable. II) The word Soci
    Answer: B — I and III only
    The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Statement II is incorrect - Socialist and Secular were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, not the 44th. - Statements I and III are correct.
11. Q26: Match the following newspapers with their slogans: i. The Times of India - 1. The Bold Voice of Jammu & Kashmir ii. Hindustan Times - 2. Journalism of Courage iii. The Indian Express - 3. First Vo
    Answer: D — i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
    The correct answer is i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1. Key Points - The Indian Express = Journalism of Courage; State Times = The Bold Voice of Jammu & Kashmir; Times of India = Let Truth Prevail; Hindustan Times = First Voice. Last Word.
12. Q27: Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct? (i) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government. (ii) Parliament is Supreme. (iii) The Suprem
    Answer: C — (ii) and (iii)
    The correct answer is (ii) and (iii). Key Points - In India, the President is Head of State while the PM is Head of Government (i is wrong). - The Constitution, not Parliament, is supreme (ii is wrong). - DPSPs are not justiciable (iv is wr
13. Q28: Match the following Indian languages with their respective states: i. Konkani - 1. Jammu & Kashmir ii. Dogri - 2. Meghalaya iii. Khasi - 3. Bihar iv. Maithili - 4. Goa
    Answer: B — i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
    The correct answer is i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3. Key Points - Konkani - Goa; Dogri - Jammu & Kashmir; Khasi - Meghalaya; Maithili - Bihar. - All are scheduled languages of India.
14. Q29: Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT correct about the Attorney General of India? I. Qualified to be a Judge of a High Court II. Has the right of audience in all courts III. Has the right to
    Answer: D — IV only
    The correct answer is IV only. Key Points - Statement I is incorrect - AG must be qualified to be a Judge of the Supreme Court (not High Court) per Article 76. Statement IV is incorrect - AG holds office during the pleasure of the President
15. Q30: In 2024, which spacecraft successfully retrieved lunar samples from the far side of the Moon?
    Answer: B — Chang''e-6
    The correct answer is Chang''e-6. Key Points - China''s Chang''e-6 mission (2024) successfully collected and returned samples from the far side of the Moon for the first time in history, landing in the South Pole-Aitken Basin.
16. Q31: In which year did the Right to Information (RTI) Act come into force in Jammu & Kashmir?
    Answer: C — 2009
    The correct answer is 2009. Key Points - After the abrogation of Article 370 and the J&K Reorganization Act in August 2019, the Central RTI Act 2005 became applicable to Jammu & Kashmir effective October 31, 2019.
17. Q32: Assertion (A): Jammu & Kashmir was granted special status under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution. Reason (R): Article 370 allowed J&K to have its own constitution and autonomy over all m
    Answer: A — Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.. Key Points - A is correct - J&K had special status under Article 370. - R is partially incorrect - the Instrument of Accession covered only defense, ex
18. Q33: Who probably invented the Dogri script?
    Answer: B — Shakti Karan
    The correct answer is Shakti Karan. Key Points - As per the official answer key, the invention of the Dogri script is credited to Shakti Karan. - About Dogri: Dogri is the principal language of the Jammu (Duggar) region of Jammu & Kashm
19. Q34: Consider the following statements about the climate of Jammu: Statement I: Kashmir valley influences climate of Northern Jammu. Statement II: Southern plains of Jammu experience temperate climate. Whi
    Answer: A — Only I
    The correct answer is Only I. Key Points - Statement I is correct - the Kashmir valley does influence the climate of Northern Jammu regions. - Statement II is incorrect - the southern plains of Jammu experience a subtropical/semi-arid clima
20. Q35: Match the following: i) Established first legislature in J&K ii) First Speaker of J&K Legislative Assembly iii) First Chairman of J&K Legislative Council 1) Ghulam Rasool Renzoo 2) Hari Si
    Answer: B — i-2, ii-1, iii-3
    The correct answer is i-2, ii-1, iii-3. Key Points - Maharaja Hari Singh established the first legislature (Praja Sabha) in J&K. Ghulam Rasool Renzoo was the first Speaker of the J&K Legislative Assembly. - ShivNarayan Fotedar was t

Reasoning & Mental Ability — Solved Questions

1. Q36: If the price of a product increases by 25%, by what percentage must a consumer reduce the consumption to maintain the same expenditure?
   Answer: A — 20%
   The correct answer is 20%. Key Points - If price increases by 25%, new price = 1.25P. - To keep expenditure same: Qnew = Q/1.25 = 0.8Q. Reduction = 20%.
2. Q37: Complete the series: 22, 33, 46, 61, 78, ?
   Answer: B — 97
   The correct answer is 97. Key Points - This is a difference series where the gaps grow by a fixed amount. - Series: 22, 33, 46, 61, 78, ? - 33 − 22 = 11 - 46 − 33 = 13 - 61 − 46 = 15 - 78 − 61 = 17 - The differences are consecutive odd numb
3. Q38: Consider the following statements: Statement I: The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11. Statement II: In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal value a
   Answer: B — S II Only
   The correct answer is S II Only. Key Points - Decimal 11 = 11. Hexadecimal 11 = 1x16+1 = 17. So decimal 11 < hex 11, making Statement I FALSE. - Binary 0.101 = 0.5+0+0.125 = 0.625. Statement II is TRUE.
4. Q39: Assertion: No man is perfect. Reasoning: Some men are not perfect. Select the correct code:
   Answer: A — Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).
   The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).. Key Points - Both statements are true. - However, Some men are not perfect (R) is a weaker statement than No man is perfect (A). - R does n
5. Q40: Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails. Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads.
   Answer: C — (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
   The correct answer is (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).. Key Points - This is the gambler fallacy. - Each coin flip is independent (probability always 50/50). - R is factually true (5 heads in a ro
6. Q41: P is the father of Q. Q is the sister of R. R is the father of S. How is P related to S?
   Answer: A — Grandfather
   The correct answer is Grandfather. Key Points - P is father of Q. Q is sister of R, so P is also the father of R. R is father of S. Therefore P is the grandfather of S.
7. Q42: The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. Mark the right choice for the second set: AST : BRU :: NQV : ?
   Answer: A — ORW
   The correct answer is ORW. Key Points - A-B (+1), S-R (-1), T-U (+1). - Applying same: N-O (+1), Q-P (-1), V-W (+1) = OPW.
8. Q43: Match the mathematical concepts with their corresponding formulas: 1. Compound Interest - iii. A=P(1+R/100)^n 2. Trigonometry - iv. sin^2(theta)+cos^2(theta)=1 3. Speed, Distance and Time - i. (Speed
   Answer: A — 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-v, 5-ii
   The correct answer is 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-v, 5-ii. Key Points - Compound Interest: A=P(1+R/100)^n; Trigonometry: sin^2+cos^2=1; Speed formula: Speed x Time = Distance; P&L: (SP-CP)/CP x 100; SI: PRT/100.
9. Q44: Assertion (A): If a person moves 10 km north, then 5 km east, the total distance travelled is 15 km. Reason (R): The shortest distance between the starting and ending point is given by the Pythagorean
   Answer: B — Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
   The correct answer is Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.. Key Points - A is true - total distance travelled = 10+5 = 15 km. - R is also true - displacement = sqrt(10^2+5^2) = sqrt(125). - However, R explains the displacement (
10. Q45: Match the word with its coded form (each letter shifted +2): i) CAT - 1) DCNN ii) DOG - 2) ECV iii) APPLE - 3) FQI iv) BALL - 4) CRRNG
    Answer: B — i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1
    The correct answer is i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1. Key Points - Each letter shifted +2: CAT-ECV, DOG-FQI, APPLE-CRRNG, BALL-DCNN. - So i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1.
11. Q46: Consider the following statements: I. A 10% increase followed by a 10% decrease returns the original number. II. 50% of 200 is 100. III. If a number is increased by 20%, then decreased by 20%, the fin
    Answer: D — Only II, III, and IV
    The correct answer is Only II, III, and IV. Key Points - Statement I is FALSE: 100-110-99 (not 100). - Statement II is TRUE: 50% of 200=100. - Statement III is TRUE: 100-120-96 (less than 100). - Statement IV is TRUE: 200% increase = origin
12. Q47: Two goods trains, each 500 m long, are running in opposite directions on parallel tracks. Their speeds are 45 km/hr and 30 km/hr. Find the time taken by the slower train to pass the driver of the fast
    Answer: B — 24 sec
    The correct answer is 24 sec. Key Points - To pass the driver (a point), the slower train covers its own length = 500 m. Relative speed = 45+30 = 75 km/hr = 75000/3600 = 125/6 m/s. Time = 500/(125/6) = 500x6/125 = 24 seconds.
13. Q48: Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so. Assumptions: I. At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn. II. The schools do no
    Answer: A — Only assumption I is implicit
    The correct answer is Only assumption I is implicit. Key Points - Assumption I is implicit - the statement implies readiness for school at age 5 suggests developmental readiness. - Assumption II is NOT implicit - the statement says nothing
14. Q49: Find the number of triangles in the given figure.
    Answer: B — 18
    The correct answer is 18. Key Points - Counting all triangles including overlapping and nested ones in the standard figure pattern gives 18 triangles.
15. Q50: Identify the figure that completes the pattern.
    Answer: C — 3
    The correct answer is 3. Key Points - Based on the pattern shown in the figure, option 3 correctly completes the visual sequence.

Computer Knowledge — Solved Questions

1. Q51: Read the following two statements: Statement I: Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of Information Technology (IT). Statement II: The right to use a piece of software
   Answer: B — Neither I nor II
   The correct answer is Neither I nor II. Key Points - Statement I is incorrect - ICT is broader than or equivalent to IT, not a subset. - Statement II is incorrect - the right to use software is called a software license, not copyright. - Co
2. Q52: HTML is used to create
   Answer: C — web page
   The correct answer is web page. Key Points - HTML (HyperText Markup Language) is the standard language used to create web pages. - It structures the content of a page using tags — for example headings, paragraphs, links, images, lists and t
3. Q53: Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which stands for
   Answer: B — American Standard Code for Information Interchange
   The correct answer is American Standard Code for Information Interchange. Key Points - ASCII stands for American Standard Code for Information Interchange. - It is a character encoding standard for electronic communication.
4. Q54: Microsoft Windows is an example of which type of operating system?
   Answer: A — Multitasking Operating System
   The correct answer is Multitasking Operating System. Key Points - Microsoft Windows is primarily a Multitasking Operating System as it allows multiple programs to run simultaneously on a single processor.
5. Q55: Which search engine is owned by Microsoft?
   Answer: C — Bing
   The correct answer is Bing. Key Points - Bing is the web search engine owned by Microsoft. - It was launched in 2009 (replacing Microsoft's earlier Live Search) and is the default search engine in Microsoft's Edge browser and Windows. - The
6. Q56: Which protocol is used to send emails?
   Answer: B — SMTP
   The correct answer is SMTP. Key Points - SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is the standard protocol used for sending emails. - HTTP is for web pages, FTP for file transfer.
7. Q57: Assertion (A): The BIOS is responsible for initializing hardware components during the computer boot process. Reason (R): The BIOS loads the operating system into memory to start the computer.
   Answer: C — Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
   The correct answer is Assertion is true, but Reason is false.. Key Points - BIOS initializes hardware (POST) and then loads the OS bootloader. - Both statements are true and R is the correct explanation of A - BIOS initializes hardware as p
8. Q58: Match the following operating systems with their examples: i. Batch OS - 1. UNIX ii. Time-Sharing OS - 2. Windows Server iii. Distributed OS - 3. IBM iv. Network OS - 4. Google Android OS
   Answer: B — i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
   The correct answer is i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2. Key Points - Batch OS - IBM (mainframes used for batch processing); Time-Sharing OS - UNIX; Distributed OS - Google Android (distributed computing); Network OS - Windows Server.
9. Q59: Match the following: i. Trackball - 3. Control the movement of the cursor on a monitor ii. Graphics tablet - 1. Used for drawing iii. Printer - 4. Convert digital data into a physical form iv. Joystic
   Answer: A — i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
   The correct answer is i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2. Key Points - Trackball = cursor movement; Graphics tablet = drawing; Printer = digital to physical; Joystick = game control.
10. Q60: Which of the following statements about computer memory are correct? I. Cache memory is faster than RAM. II. SSDs are slower than HDDs. III. Virtual memory extends RAM using storage space. IV. DRAM is
    Answer: A — I and III only
    The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - I is TRUE - cache is faster than RAM. - II is FALSE - SSDs are faster than HDDs. - III is TRUE - virtual memory uses disk space to extend RAM. - IV is FALSE - DRAM is volatile (loses data w

Zoology & Animal Kingdom — Solved Questions

1. Q61: The function of kinetodesmata in ciliate protozoans is to:
   Answer: B — Coordinate ciliary movement
   The correct answer is Coordinate ciliary movement. Key Points - Kinetodesmata are fibrils associated with kinetosomes (basal bodies) in ciliates. - They function in coordinating the movement of cilia.
2. Q62: Match List-I (Porifera Class) with List-II (Characteristic Features): 1. Calcarea - iii. Calcium carbonate spicules 2. Hexactinellida - i. Siliceous spicules, deep-sea forms 3. Demospongiae - ii. Spon
   Answer: A — 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv
   The correct answer is 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv. Key Points - Calcarea = CaCO3 spicules; Hexactinellida = siliceous/deep-sea (glass sponges); Demospongiae = spongin fibers (bath sponges); Sclerospongiae = both spicule types.
3. Q63: Assertion (A): Cnidarians have a gastrovascular cavity that serves both digestive and circulatory functions. Reason (R): Cnidarians lack a separate circulatory system and depend on diffusion for nutri
   Answer: A — Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
   The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.. Key Points - Cnidarians do have a gastrovascular cavity serving both functions (A is true). - They lack a separate circulatory system (R is true), and this is exactly
4. Q64: The definitive host for Taenia solium is:
   Answer: B — Human
   The correct answer is Human. Key Points - Taenia solium (pork tapeworm) has humans as the definitive host where the adult worm lives. - Pigs are the intermediate host where cysticerci develop.
5. Q65: The flame cells present in Platyhelminthes are specialized for:
   Answer: C — Osmoregulation and excretion
   The correct answer is Osmoregulation and excretion. Key Points - Flame cells (protonephridia) in Platyhelminthes function in osmoregulation and excretion. - They filter body fluids and help maintain water balance.
6. Q66: Statement I: Sponges have a cellular level of organization, with water entering the body through ostia and exiting through the osculum. Statement II: Sponges exhibit extracellular digestion.
   Answer: C — Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
   The correct answer is Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect. Key Points - Statement I is correct - sponges are cellular-level organisms, water enters through ostia (pores) and exits through osculum. - Statement II is incorrect -
7. Q67: The figure shows cross-section of the body of an animal. This animal:
   Answer: D — I, II, III and IV are correct
   The correct answer is I, II, III and IV are correct. Key Points - The cross-section described represents a platyhelminth (flatworm) - acoelomate, triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, and dorso-ventrally flattened. - All four statements a
8. Q68: Match List-I (Protozoan Group) with List-II (Example): 1. Amoeboid - i. Amoeba proteus 2. Ciliates - ii. Paramecium caudatum 3. Flagellates - iii. Euglena viridis 4. Sporozoans - iv. Plasmodium falcip
   Answer: A — 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv, 5-v, 6-vi
   The correct answer is 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv, 5-v, 6-vi. Key Points - All matches are straightforward: Amoeba proteus (amoeboid), Paramecium (ciliate), Euglena (flagellate), Plasmodium (sporozoan), Gonyaulax (dinoflagellate), Physarum (slim
9. Q69: Name the cells specialised for excretion and osmoregulation in Ascaris
   Answer: B — Renette Cells
   The correct answer is Renette Cells. Key Points - Ascaris (a nematode/roundworm) has renette cells (also called gland cells or H-cells) for excretion and osmoregulation. - Flame cells are found in Platyhelminthes.
10. Q70: The members of Kingdom Monera and Kingdom Protista in Whittaker five-kingdom classification resemble each other in:
    Answer: A — Cell type
    The correct answer is Cell type. Key Points - Both Monera and Protista are predominantly unicellular organisms. - They resemble each other in body organization (simple unicellular/colonial). - Cell type (prokaryotic vs eukaryotic), cell wal
11. Q71: Match the Molluscan Classes with their Examples: i. Gastropoda - 3. Snail ii. Bivalvia - 4. Oyster iii. Cephalopoda - 1. Octopus iv. Polyplacophora - 2. Chiton
    Answer: A — i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
    The correct answer is i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2. Key Points - Gastropoda = snails and slugs; Bivalvia = oysters, mussels, clams; Cephalopoda = octopus, squid, nautilus; Polyplacophora = chitons (8 shell plates).
12. Q72: Statement I: Cephalochordates retain their notochord throughout life. Statement II: They exhibit a dorsal tubular nerve cord and pharyngeal slits.
    Answer: A — Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
    The correct answer is Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct. Key Points - Both statements are correct about cephalochordates (e.g., Amphioxus/Branchiostoma). - They retain the notochord throughout life and possess all three chorda
13. Q73: Match the Echinoderm Features with their Functions: i. Tube feet - 2. Locomotion and feeding ii. Madreporite - 1. Regulates water entry iii. Pedicellariae - 3. Defense and cleaning iv. Radial canal -
    Answer: A — i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4
    The correct answer is i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4. Key Points - Tube feet = locomotion and feeding; Madreporite = water entry regulator (sieve plate); Pedicellariae = defense and cleaning appendages; Radial canal = distributes water in water vas
14. Q74: Which enzyme is found in the resorptive cells of digestive glands of Pila?
    Answer: B — Protease
    The correct answer is Protease. Key Points - In Pila (apple snail), the resorptive cells of the digestive gland contain lipase for fat digestion and absorption.
15. Q75: Johnston organ is found in
    Answer: C — Antennae of Mosquitoes
    The correct answer is Antennae of Mosquitoes. Key Points - Johnston organ is a chordotonal organ located in the pedicel (second segment) of the antennae of mosquitoes and other insects. - It detects sound vibrations and is important for mat
16. Q76: How many red colour eye spots are present in sea star?
    Answer: D — 5 pairs
    The correct answer is 5 pairs. Key Points - Sea stars (starfish) have 5 arms, and each arm tip bears a small photoreceptive eyespot (ocellus). - Therefore there are 5 eye spots in total.
17. Q77: The membrane at the side that can connect the tergum and sternum is known as
    Answer: C — pleuron
    The correct answer is pleuron. Key Points - In arthropods (insects), the pleuron is the lateral plate/membrane connecting the tergum (dorsal plate) and sternum (ventral plate) in each body segment.
18. Q78: Complete metamorphosis occurs in
    Answer: D — Mosquito
    The correct answer is Mosquito. Key Points - Mosquito undergoes complete metamorphosis (holometabolous): egg, larva, pupa, adult. - Silverfish = ametabolous; Locust and Bedbug = incomplete metamorphosis (hemimetabolous).
19. Q79: Assertion (A): Torsion in gastropods improves their defense mechanism. Reason (R): The repositioning of the mantle cavity allows the head to retract into the shell before the foot.
    Answer: A — Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.. Key Points - Torsion in gastropods does improve defense (A is true). - The repositioning of the mantle cavity to the front allows the head to withdraw into
20. Q80: Which of the following is/are true about the endostyle in Urochordates? I. It is involved in filter feeding. II. It secretes mucus to trap food particles. III. It is homologous to the thyroid gland in
    Answer: B — I, II, and III
    The correct answer is I, II, and III. Key Points - I, II, and III are correct. - The endostyle is a ciliated groove in the pharynx involved in filter feeding via mucus. - It is homologous to the vertebrate thyroid gland. - Statement IV is i
21. Q81: Indian Bull Frog is
    Answer: A — Rana tigrina
    The correct answer is Rana tigrina. Key Points - The Indian Bull Frog (Hoplobatrachus tigerinus, formerly Rana tigrina) is the largest frog found in India.
22. Q82: Match the fish orders with their representative examples: i. Chondrichthyes - 2) Scoliodon (Dogfish) ii. Perciformes - 3) Catla iii. Cypriniformes - 1) Labeo (Rohu) iv. Siluriformes - 4) Clarias (Catf
    Answer: B — i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4
    The correct answer is i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4. Key Points - Scoliodon = cartilaginous fish (Chondrichthyes); Catla = Perciformes; Labeo/Rohu = Cypriniformes; Clarias = Siluriformes (true catfishes).
23. Q83: Which of the following is a poisonous snake?
    Answer: B — Rattlesnake
    The correct answer is Rattlesnake. Key Points - Rattlesnake is venomous (produces venom injected through fangs). - Python and Boa constrictor are non-venomous constrictors; Garter snake is non-venomous.
24. Q84: Match the following orders of birds with their examples: i. Passeriformes - 2. Sparrow ii. Accipitriformes - 4. Eagle iii. Columbiformes - 1. Pigeon iv. Falconiformes - 3. Crow
    Answer: D — i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4
    The correct answer is i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4. Key Points - Passeriformes = Sparrow (perching birds); Accipitriformes = Eagle (hawks and eagles); Columbiformes = Pigeon (doves and pigeons); Falconiformes = Crow (in older classification).
25. Q85: Feathers of the birds are waterproof due to the oil secretion of
    Answer: B — uropygial glands
    The correct answer is uropygial glands. Key Points - The uropygial gland (preen gland) located at the base of the tail secretes oil that birds spread over their feathers during preening, making them waterproof.
26. Q86: Which one is not correct about Metatheria (marsupials)?
    Answer: C — Placenta is well developed
    The correct answer is Placenta is well developed. Key Points - In Metatheria (marsupials), the placenta is POORLY developed or absent. - Young are born at an early stage and complete development in the pouch. - Options A, B, and D are corre
27. Q87: Assertion (A): Marine fish maintain osmotic balance by drinking large amounts of seawater. Reason (R): Marine fish excrete excess salt through specialized cells in their gills to prevent dehydration.
    Answer: A — Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.. Key Points - Marine teleost fish are hyposmotic to seawater - they lose water by osmosis and compensate by drinking seawater (A is true). - They then excre
28. Q88: Which of the following statements about parental care in amphibians is/are correct? I. In some amphibians, males guard the eggs and provide protection until they hatch. II. Certain amphibians, like Da
    Answer: C — Only statements I and II are correct.
    The correct answer is Only statements I and II are correct.. Key Points - Statements I, II, and III are correct. - Male Darwin frog (Rhinoderma darwinii) carries tadpoles in vocal sac. - Some male frogs guard eggs. - Many frog species provi
29. Q89: Which of the following is considered an example of adaptive radiation in mammals following the extinction of the dinosaurs? I) Evolution of primates from early mammalian ancestors. II) Diversification
    Answer: D — II, III, and IV are correct.
    The correct answer is II, III, and IV are correct.. Key Points - Ungulates diversifying into ecological niches (II), whales/dolphins evolving from land mammals (III), and bats evolving from insectivores (IV) are classic examples of adaptive
30. Q90: Which of the following reptile orders includes lizards and snakes?
    Answer: B — Squamata
    The correct answer is Squamata. Key Points - Order Squamata includes lizards and snakes. - Crocodilia = crocodiles and alligators; Testudines/Chelonia = turtles and tortoises.

Human Physiology — Solved Questions

1. Q91: Which of the following hormones helps in secretion of HCl from stomach?
   Answer: B — Gastrin
   The correct answer is Gastrin. Key Points - Gastrin is secreted by G cells of the stomach and stimulates the parietal cells to secrete HCl. - Secretin inhibits gastric acid. - Pepsin is an enzyme, not a hormone.
2. Q92: Partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air is
   Answer: C — 104 mm Hg
   The correct answer is 104 mm Hg. Key Points - The partial pressure of O2 in alveolar air is approximately 104 mm Hg. - Atmospheric O2 is 159 mm Hg, but it decreases in alveoli due to mixing with water vapor and CO2.
3. Q93: Which option indicates correct chronology of changes occurring during transmission of nerve impulse?
   Answer: A — Nerve fibre - depolarization - action potential - repolarization - activation of Na+ and K+ pump
   The correct answer is Nerve fibre - depolarization - action potential - repolarization - activation of Na+ and K+ pump. Key Points - The correct sequence: nerve fiber at rest - depolarization (Na+ influx) - action potential - repolarization
4. Q94: A high respiratory quotient indicates:
   Answer: B — Aerobic respiration
   The correct answer is Aerobic respiration. Key Points - Respiratory Quotient (RQ) = CO2 produced / O2 consumed. - RQ 1 indicates anaerobic respiration (lactic acid fermentation produces CO2 without consuming O2). - RQ = 1 for carbohydrates,
5. Q95: If loop of Henle were absent from an individual nephron, which one of the following is to be expected?
   Answer: A — The urine will be more dilute
   The correct answer is The urine will be more dilute. Key Points - The loop of Henle creates a concentration gradient in the medulla through the counter-current multiplier mechanism. - Without it, this gradient cannot be maintained and the u
6. Q96: Match Brain Regions with Their Function: i. Cerebrum - 2. Memory, intelligence, and thinking ii. Cerebellum - 1. Coordination of voluntary movement iii. Medulla oblongata - 3. Reflex actions, heartbea
   Answer: A — i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4
   The correct answer is i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4. Key Points - Cerebrum = higher functions (memory, intelligence); Cerebellum = motor coordination; Medulla oblongata = vital reflexes (heartbeat, breathing); Hypothalamus = homeostasis (temperatu
7. Q97: Match the Photoreceptor Cells with Their Function: i. Rods - 2. Black and white vision in dim light ii. Cones - 1. Color vision under bright light iii. Fovea - 3. Area with the highest concentration o
   Answer: C — i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4
   The correct answer is i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4. Key Points - Rods = dim light/black and white vision; Cones = bright light/color vision; Fovea = highest cone density for sharp central vision; Optic nerve = transmits signals to brain.
8. Q98: Assertion (A): Marine fishes excrete nitrogenous waste primarily as ammonia. Reason (R): Marine fishes are hyperosmotic to their environment, leading to high water retention.
   Answer: C — A is correct, but R is incorrect.
   The correct answer is A is correct, but R is incorrect.. Key Points - Marine teleost fish (bony fish) are ammoniotelic - they do excrete ammonia (A is correct). - However, marine teleosts are HYPOSMOTIC to seawater (not hyperosmotic) - they
9. Q99: Cholecystokinin, one of the hormones of digestive tract: I) Stimulates release of trypsin II) Inhibits release of pepsin III) Stimulates release of lipase Which of the above statements are correct?
   Answer: D — I and III
   The correct answer is I and III. Key Points - CCK (Cholecystokinin) stimulates the pancreas to release digestive enzymes including trypsin (I - correct) and lipase (III - correct). - CCK does NOT inhibit pepsin secretion (II - incorrect). -
10. Q100: Choose the Correct Statements About Resting Membrane Potential: I. The resting membrane potential is typically around -70 mV. II. The sodium-potassium pump actively maintains this potential. III. At r
    Answer: C — Only I, II, and IV
    The correct answer is Only I, II, and IV. Key Points - I is TRUE (-70 mV is correct). - II is TRUE (Na+/K+ ATPase maintains the gradient). - III is FALSE - at rest, membrane is more permeable to K+ than Na+. - IV is TRUE (both passive diffu

Evolution — Solved Questions

1. Q101: Match the following: i. Eohippus - 3. Dawn horse - first ancestor of horses ii. Mesohippus - 1. Ancestor with three toes, lived in forests iii. Merychippus - 4. First to exhibit a grazing diet, starte
   Answer: A — i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
   The correct answer is i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2. Key Points - Horse evolution: Eohippus (dawn horse, smallest, 4 toes) - Mesohippus (3 toes, forest dweller) - Merychippus (first grazer on plains) - Equus (modern horse, 1 toe/hoof).
2. Q102: Sibling species exhibit: I. sympatric distribution II. morphological similarity III. genetic identity IV. reproductive isolation
   Answer: D — I, II, and IV are correct
   The correct answer is I, II, and IV are correct. Key Points - Sibling species are morphologically very similar (II), can be sympatric (I), and are reproductively isolated (IV). - They are NOT genetically identical (III is wrong) - they have
3. Q103: Choose the correct sequence of evolutionary events in allopatric speciation: I. Geographical isolation II. Ecological isolation III. Increased pre-mating reproductive isolation IV. Increased genetic d
   Answer: D — I, II, III, V
   The correct answer is I, II, III, V. Key Points - Allopatric speciation sequence: I (Geographic isolation) - II (Ecological isolation as populations adapt differently) - III (Pre-mating reproductive isolation develops) - V (Selection comple
4. Q104: Some of the oldest known fossil cells appear as parts of stromatolites, which are formed today from sediments and
   Answer: B — photosynthetic prokaryotes
   The correct answer is photosynthetic prokaryotes. Key Points - Stromatolites are layered structures formed by photosynthetic prokaryotes (cyanobacteria). - These are among the oldest fossils on Earth (~3.5 billion years old) representing ea
5. Q105: The unit of evolution is the
   Answer: C — population
   The correct answer is population. Key Points - The population is the unit of evolution. - Evolution occurs through changes in allele frequencies within a population over time (not in individuals, which cannot change their genotype).
6. Q106: The fossil of Java Man was found in 1891 on banks of Solo River in Eastern Java by:
   Answer: B — Dubois
   The correct answer is Dubois. Key Points - Eugene Dubois discovered the fossils of Homo erectus (Pithecanthropus erectus/Java Man) in 1891 in Java, Indonesia. - Davidson Black found Peking Man; Leakey found African hominid fossils.
7. Q107: Assertion (A): Stabilizing selection favours individuals with extreme phenotypes in a population. Reason (R): Stabilizing selection reduces genetic diversity by selecting for the average phenotype.
   Answer: C — Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
   The correct answer is Assertion is false, but Reason is true.. Key Points - Assertion A is FALSE - Stabilizing selection favours INTERMEDIATE phenotypes and eliminates extremes (opposite of what is stated). - Reason R is TRUE - stabilizing
8. Q108: Match the theories with the scientist who proposed them: i. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters - 2. Lamarck ii. Biological species concept - 1. Ernst Mayr iii. Theory of natural selection -
   Answer: C — i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
   The correct answer is i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3. Key Points - Lamarck = inheritance of acquired characters; Ernst Mayr = biological species concept; Darwin = natural selection; Dobzhansky = modern synthetic theory (Neo-Darwinism).
9. Q109: Which of the following is the most famous example of industrial melanism?
   Answer: A — Peppered moth (Biston betularia)
   The correct answer is Peppered moth (Biston betularia). Key Points - The peppered moth (Biston betularia) is the classic example of industrial melanism - dark-colored moths became more common in industrial areas where soot darkened tree bar
10. Q110: Choose the correct statement(s): I. Genetic variation can only arise from sexual reproduction. II. Organic variation is always beneficial for the survival of a species. III. Environmental factors have
    Answer: C — Only IV is correct
    The correct answer is Only IV is correct. Key Points - Statement I is FALSE - mutations in asexual organisms also create genetic variation. - Statement II is FALSE - variations can be harmful or neutral. Statement III is FALSE - environment

Immunology — Solved Questions

1. Q111: What is the role of regulatory T cells in the immune system?
   Answer: B — To suppress immune responses
   The correct answer is To suppress immune responses. Key Points - Regulatory T cells (Tregs, CD4+CD25+FoxP3+) suppress immune responses to prevent autoimmunity and excessive immune activation. - They maintain self-tolerance.
2. Q112: Match the Cytokines with Their Functions: i. IL-1 - 4. Promotes inflammation, fever, and activation of T-cells ii. IL-2 - 1. Stimulates the growth of T-cells, key role in adaptive immunity iii. IFN-ga
   Answer: A — i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
   The correct answer is i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3. Key Points - IL-1 = pro-inflammatory, fever, T-cell activation; IL-2 = T-cell growth factor (critical for adaptive immunity); IFN-gamma = macrophage activation, antigen presentation; TNF-alpha =
3. Q113: Which of the following co-receptors recognizes the beta2 microglobulin subunit of class I MHCs?
   Answer: C — CD8
   The correct answer is CD8. Key Points - CD8 co-receptor on cytotoxic T cells (CTLs) recognizes MHC Class I molecules. - CD4 co-receptor recognizes MHC Class II. - The beta2 microglobulin is a component of MHC Class I.
4. Q114: Which is the correct order of activities showcased by endogenous antigens? i) Peptide binding to MHC Class I ii) Transport to Endoplasmic Reticulum iii) Generation of Peptide from proteolysis
   Answer: B — iii-ii-i
   The correct answer is iii-ii-i. Key Points - Endogenous antigen processing: iii (proteasome generates peptides from cytosolic proteins) - ii (peptides transported to ER via TAP transporter) - i (peptides bind MHC Class I in ER, then surface
5. Q115: Select the correct statements regarding the receptors of the innate immune system: I. They are included in the Toll family of receptors. II. They include MHC complexes. III. They recognize molecular p
   Answer: A — I, III, and IV
   The correct answer is I, III, and IV. Key Points - Innate immune receptors include Toll-like receptors (TLRs) = I, pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) that recognize PAMPs/DAMPs = III, and scavenger receptors = IV. - MHC complexes (II) are
6. Q116: In humans, what are MHCs called as
   Answer: B — HLA
   The correct answer is HLA. Key Points - In humans, MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex) molecules are called HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigens). - They are encoded by genes on chromosome 6.
7. Q117: B lymphocytes are involved in the human immune response to a bacterial infection. Which of the following processes would TYPICALLY be carried out by these lymphocytes? I. Cell division by mitosis II.
   Answer: A — I and II only
   The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - B lymphocytes undergo clonal expansion by mitosis (I) and produce antibody proteins requiring transcription of immunoglobulin genes to mRNA (II). - B cells do NOT typically engulf and digest
8. Q118: Match the following Antibody types with where they are found: i. IgA - 4. Mucosal secretions like saliva, tears, and breast milk ii. IgG - 1. Blood and extracellular fluid iii. IgD - 2. Surface of imm
   Answer: A — i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
   The correct answer is i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3. Key Points - IgA = secretory antibody in mucosal surfaces; IgG = most abundant in blood; IgD = B cell surface receptor on naive B cells; IgE = bound to mast cells and basophils (involved in alle
9. Q119: A complement component that is strongly chemotactic for neutrophils is:
   Answer: C — C5a
   The correct answer is C5a. Key Points - C5a is a potent chemotactic factor that attracts neutrophils to the site of infection/inflammation. C3b acts as an opsonin. - C5b initiates the membrane attack complex (MAC).
10. Q120: Assertion (A): An antibody is represented as H2L2. Reason (R): An antibody has two heavy chains and two light chains.
    Answer: A — Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).. Key Points - An antibody (immunoglobulin) is indeed represented as H2L2 - consisting of 2 identical heavy chains and 2 identical light chains linked

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