Fully Solved JKSSB Wildlife Guard Question Paper 2026

Solved questions

1. Q1: At a doctor's clinic, 8% of patients with liver disease are alcoholics. 6% of all patients are alcoholics, and 12% have liver disease. What is the probability that a patient has liver disease given they are alcoholic?
   Answer: A - 0.16
   Using Bayes' theorem: P(liver|alcoholic) = P(alcoholic|liver) × P(liver) / P(alcoholic) = (0.08 × 0.12) / 0.06 = 0.0096 / 0.06 = 0.16.
2. Q2: Two fair dice are rolled. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers is either 7 or 11?
   Answer: D - 2/9
   Sum 7: (1,6),(2,5),(3,4),(4,3),(5,2),(6,1) = 6 ways. Sum 11: (5,6),(6,5) = 2 ways. Total = 8/36 = 2/9.
3. Q3: The ratio between two numbers is 2 : 11. If the difference between the numbers is 81, find the smaller number.
   Answer: B - 18
   Ratio 2:11 → difference = 9 parts = 81, so 1 part = 9. Smaller number = 2 × 9 = 18.
4. Q4: The product of two numbers is 10 more than 5 times their sum. If the numbers are in a ratio of 5 : 6, find the two numbers.
   Answer: A - 10 & 12
   Let numbers = 5x and 6x. Product = 30x², sum = 11x. 30x² = 5(11x)+10 → 6x²−11x−2=0 → x=2. Numbers: 10 and 12.
5. Q5: A factory has 400 workers with men and women in a ratio of 5 : 3. 87.5% of all workers are regular. If 92% of the male employees are regular, what percentage of the female employees are regular?
   Answer: C - 80%
   400 workers, Men:Women=5:3 → Men=250, Women=150. Total regular = 87.5%×400=350. Regular men = 92%×250=230. Regular women = 350−230=120. Percentage = 120/150×100 = 80%.
6. Q6: The ages of A and B are in the ratio 5 : 7. Five years ago their ages were in the ratio 5 : 8. What are their respective present ages (in years)?
   Answer: B - 15 & 21
   A:B = 5:7. Let ages = 5x and 7x. Five years ago: (5x−5)/(7x−5)=5/8 → 40x−40=35x−25 → x=3. Ages: 15 and 21.
7. Q7: Two numbers are in the ratio 4 : 5. If their HCF is 16, what is the sum of these two numbers?
   Answer: A - 144
   Numbers in ratio 4:5 with HCF 16 → numbers = 64 and 80. Sum = 64+80 = 144.
8. Q8: The HCF of two numbers is 74 and their LCM is 12210. If one of the numbers is 1110, what is the sum of the two numbers?
   Answer: B - 1924
   HCF=74, LCM=12210, one number=1110. Other = (74×12210)/1110 = 814. Sum = 1110+814 = 1924.
9. Q9: In an examination, 54% of the candidates passed in Science and 42% failed in Mathematics. If 32% failed in both subjects, what percentage passed in both subjects?
   Answer: D - 44%
   Failed Science=46%, Failed Math=42%, Failed both=32%. Failed in at least one = 46+42−32=56%. Passed both = 100−56 = 44%.
10. Q10: The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 33 and 4719 respectively. When the first number is divided by 3, the quotient is 121. Find the other number.
    Answer: D - 429
    First number = 121×3 = 363. HCF=33. Other number = (33×4719)/363 = 429.
11. Q11: A's income is to B's income as 5 : 7. A saves Rs. 4,000 and B saves Rs. 5,000. If A's spending is two-thirds of B's spending, what is the combined income of A and B?
    Answer: B - Rs. 24,000/-
    A:B income=5:7. A spends = 5k−4000, B spends = 7k−5000. A's spending = (2/3)B's: 3(5k−4000)=2(7k−5000) → k=2000. Combined income = 5(2000)+7(2000) = 24000.
12. Q12: A 900 km trip takes 11 hours. If 2/5 of the distance is covered at 60 km/h, what speed (in km/h) is needed for the remaining distance?
    Answer: A - 108
    2/5 of 900=360 km at 60 km/h → 6 hrs. Remaining 540 km in 11−6=5 hrs. Speed = 540/5 = 108 km/h.
13. Q13: A person covered 42 kilometres in 5 hours using both walking and cycling. Walking speed was 6 km/h and cycling speed was 10 km/h. What distance did they cover by walking?
    Answer: A - 12 km
    Let walking time = t hrs. 6t+10(5−t)=42 → −4t=−8 → t=2 hrs. Walking distance = 6×2 = 12 km.
14. Q14: A man completes a journey by car. He covers 30% of the distance at 20 km/h, 60% at 40 km/h, and the remaining 10% at 10 km/h. What is his average speed?
    Answer: A - 25 km/h
    Let distance=100. Time = 30/20+60/40+10/10 = 1.5+1.5+1 = 4 hrs. Average speed = 100/4 = 25 km/h.
15. Q15: A man covers half of his journey at 6 km/h and the remaining half at 3 km/h. What is his average speed for the entire journey?
    Answer: A - 4 km/h
    For equal halves at different speeds, average speed = 2v1v2/(v1+v2) = 2×6×3/(6+3) = 36/9 = 4 km/h.
16. Q16: 13 years ago my father's age was triple my brother's age. Five years from now my father will be twice as old as my brother. Find my present age if I am currently twice my brother's age.
    Answer: A - 62
    Let brother's age=B, father=F. F−13=3(B−13) → F=3B−26. F+5=2(B+5) → B=31, F=67. My age = 2×31 = 62.
17. Q17: The average age of 3 students is 21 years. The ratio of their ages is x : y : z where x : y = 1 : 2 and y : z = 1 : 3. Find the value of y.
    Answer: B - 14
    x:y=1:2, y:z=1:3 → x:y:z=1:2:6. Total parts=9. Sum=3×21=63. y = (2/9)×63 = 14.
18. Q18: A and B together can complete a work in 3 days. They start together but after 2 days A leaves. If the remaining work is completed in 2 more days, in how many days can B alone do the entire work?
    Answer: C - 6 days
    A+B together finish in 3 days. After 2 days together, 2/3 work done. Remaining 1/3 done by B in 2 days → B's rate=1/6/day. B alone = 6 days.
19. Q19: To complete a work, A takes 50% more time than B. If together they take 18 days to complete the work, how many days will B take alone?
    Answer: A - 30 days
    B takes x days, A takes 1.5x days. Together: 1/x+2/(3x)=1/18 → 5/(3x)=1/18 → x=30. B alone = 30 days.
20. Q20: Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed and a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?
    Answer: D - 9/20
    Multiples of 3 up to 20: 6 numbers. Multiples of 5: 4 numbers. LCM(3,5)=15: 1 number. Total = 6+4−1=9. P = 9/20.
21. Q21: In a lottery there are 10 prizes and 25 blanks. A lottery is drawn at random. What is the probability of getting a prize?
    Answer: C - 2/7
    10 prizes, 25 blanks → total 35. P(prize) = 10/35 = 2/7.
22. Q22: A class of 40 students took a test and the average score was 45. However, 25 was mistakenly recorded as 35 twice and 38 was mistakenly recorded as 32 once. What is the correct average score?
    Answer: A - 44.65
    Original total = 40×45=1800. Correction: 25 recorded as 35 twice (−20), 38 recorded as 32 (+6). Correct total=1786. Average=1786/40=44.65.
23. Q23: A cricketer has a batting average of 50 runs over 40 innings. The difference between his highest and lowest scores is 172 runs. If the highest and lowest scores are excluded, the average of the remaining 38 innings is 48
    Answer: D - 174
    40 innings, avg 50 → total=2000. 38 innings (excl. H and L), avg 48 → subtotal=1824. H+L=176, H−L=172. H=(176+172)/2=174.
24. Q24: A shooting team of eight members had a competition. The top scorer got 85 points. If that person had scored 92 points, the team's average score would have been 84. What was the team's total score?
    Answer: B - 665
    If top scorer had 92 instead of 85, total increases by 7. New total=8×84=672. Original=672−7=665.
25. Q25: What will be the radius of a circle (in cm) for which the circumference and the area are numerically equal?
    Answer: A - 2
    For circumference = area: 2πr = πr² → r = 2 cm.
26. Q26: A bird travels 40 km North, then 50 km East, then 110 km North, and finally 50 km West. What is the bird's final position relative to its starting point?
    Answer: B - 150 km North
    Net displacement: North=40+110=150 km, East=50−50=0. Final position: 150 km North.
27. Q27: Select the number that can replace the question mark (?). 16, 33, 100, 401, ?
    Answer: D - 2006
    Pattern: 16×2+1=33, 33×3+1=100, 100×4+1=401, 401×5+1=2006.
28. Q28: Float : Sink :: Boat : ?
    Answer: C - Submarine
    Float and Sink are opposites. A boat floats on water; the opposite is a Submarine which submerges underwater.
29. Q29: A man starts from point A, walks 20 km East to reach B, then turns North and walks 15 km to reach C, then turns West and walks 8 km to reach D, then turns South and walks 15 km to reach E. What is the distance and direct
    Answer: D - 12 km East
    Displacements: East=20−8=12 km, North=15−15=0 km. Point E is 12 km East of A.
30. Q30: A truck moves 36 km North, then 9 km West, then 50 km South, and then 9 km East. What is the truck's final position relative to its starting point?
    Answer: A - 14 km South
    Net: North=36−50=−14 (14 South), East=9−9=0. Truck is 14 km South of starting point.
31. Q31: Asthma : Lungs :: Conjunctivitis : ?
    Answer: C - Eyes
    Asthma affects Lungs; Conjunctivitis is inflammation of the conjunctiva — it affects the Eyes.
32. Q32: Select the number that can replace the question mark (?). 28, 32, 41, 57, ?
    Answer: B - 82
    Differences: 4(=2²), 9(=3²), 16(=4²). Next difference = 5²=25. 57+25=82.
33. Q33: In a certain code, FIRE is coded as DGPC. What will be the last letter of the coded word for SHOT?
    Answer: B - R
    FIRE→DGPC: each letter shifted back by 2. SHOT: S−2=Q, H−2=F, O−2=M, T−2=R. Last letter = R.
34. Q34: If SUMMER is coded as RUNNER, how will WINTER be coded in the same language?
    Answer: B - VIOUER
    SUMMER→RUNNER: S→R(−1), U→U, M→N(+1), M→N(+1), E→E, R→R. Applying same to WINTER: W→V, I→I, N→O, T→U, E→E, R→R = VIOUER.
35. Q35: In a code language, if PEN is written as 17717, how will CAP be written in the same code?
    Answer: B - 4319
    Pattern: letter position + incrementing number (1,2,3). C(3)+1=4, A(1)+2=3, P(16)+3=19. CAP = 4|3|19 = 4319.
36. Q36: If the letters A to Z are assigned odd numbers (A=1, B=3, C=5, ...), what is the numerical value of the word HONEY?
    Answer: C - 152927949
    A=1, B=3, C=5 (odd numbers: nth letter = 2n−1). H=13, O=29, N=27, E=9, Y=49. HONEY = 152927949.
37. Q37: If "TAPE" is coded as "SUZBOQDF", how would "MOCK" be coded using the same system?
    Answer: D - LNNPBDJL
    Each letter maps to the two adjacent letters (before and after). M→LN, O→NP, C→BD, K→JL. MOCK = LNNPBDJL.
38. Q38: Statements: All dogs are cats. No cat is a bird. Conclusions: I. Some dogs are birds. II. No dog is a bird. Which conclusion(s) follow?
    Answer: B - Only Conclusion II follows
    All dogs are cats (mammals). No cat is a bird → No dog is a bird. Conclusion I (some dogs are birds) is false; Conclusion II (no dog is a bird) is correct.
39. Q39: Statements: All dogs are mammals. No mammal is a reptile. All snakes are reptiles. Conclusions: I. No dog is a snake. II. Some snakes are not mammals. III. Some dogs may be snakes. Which conclusion(s) follow?
    Answer: B - Only Conclusions I and II follow
    All dogs→mammals→not reptiles. All snakes→reptiles→not mammals. Therefore: I. No dog is a snake ✓. II. All snakes are not mammals ✓. III is false. Only I and II follow.
40. Q40: In a certain code language, MOHAN is coded as 39-45-24-3-42 and KABIR is coded as 33-3-6-27-54. How will RAGHU be coded in that language?
    Answer: C - 54-3-21-24-63
    Each letter position × 3. R=18→54, A=1→3, G=7→21, H=8→24, U=21→63. RAGHU = 54-3-21-24-63.
41. Q41: A and B are brothers. C and D are sisters. A's son is D's brother. How is B related to C?
    Answer: C - Uncle
    A and B are brothers. A's son = D's brother → D is A's daughter, C is also A's daughter. B is A's brother → B is C's uncle.
42. Q42: Introducing a lady, a man said, 'Her mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law.' What is the man's relation to the lady?
    Answer: A - Father
    Her mother = only daughter of the man's mother-in-law = the man's wife. So the lady's mother is the man's wife → the man is the lady's father.
43. Q43: A family consists of six members: P, Q, R, S, T, and U. T's brother is married to P. U is the mother of T. Q is the daughter of S and P and also the granddaughter of R. What is the relationship of R to T?
    Answer: A - Father
    T's brother married P. Q is daughter of S and P; R is Q's grandparent. P is T's sister-in-law. Q's father (S) is not T's brother. R is grandfather via P's lineage and is T's father. R relates to T as Father.
44. Q44: A is the mother of B. B is the sister of C. C is married to D. E is the son of D. How is A related to E?
    Answer: B - Grandmother
    A is B's mother. B is C's sister → A is C's mother too. C married D, E is D's son → E is C and D's son. A is E's maternal grandmother.
45. Q45: What will come in place of the question mark? 1, 9, 25, 49, ?, 121
    Answer: D - 81
    Series is squares of odd numbers: 1²=1, 3²=9, 5²=25, 7²=49, 9²=81, 11²=121. Missing term = 81.
46. Q46: A series is given with one number missing. Choose the number that will complete the series. 7, 21, 63, ?, 567, 1701
    Answer: A - 189
    Each term is multiplied by 3: 7×3=21, 21×3=63, 63×3=189, 189×3=567, 567×3=1701.
47. Q47: Select the number that can replace the question mark (?). 2, 9, 28, 65, ?
    Answer: D - 126
    Pattern: n³+1. 1³+1=2, 2³+1=9, 3³+1=28, 4³+1=65, 5³+1=126.
48. Q48: What number should come next? 10, 11, 15, 24, 40, ?
    Answer: A - 65
    Differences: 1(=1²), 4(=2²), 9(=3²), 16(=4²). Next difference = 25. 40+25=65.
49. Q49: What will come in place of the question mark? 4, 7, 12, 19, 28, ?
    Answer: D - 39
    Differences: 3, 5, 7, 9 (odd numbers increasing by 2). Next difference = 11. 28+11=39.
50. Q50: I walk 30 metres in the North-West direction from my house and then 30 metres in the South-West direction. After this I walk 30 metres in the South-East direction. Now I turn towards my house. In which direction am I goi
    Answer: A - North-East
    NW+SW+SE displacements: net x=−1/√2, net y=−1/√2 (SW direction from current position). To return home = North-East.
51. Q51: Read the passage: Wildlife conservation faces increasing threats due to human activities and environmental changes. Governments and organisations have adopted measures including creation of wildlife sanctuaries, strength
    Answer: B - Human activities and environmental changes
    The passage directly states: "Wildlife conservation faces increasing threats due to human activities and environmental changes."
52. Q52: Based on the passage about wildlife conservation, which step has NOT been mentioned as a conservation measure?
    Answer: D - Relocation of all forest-dwelling communities
    The passage mentions: sanctuaries, anti-poaching laws, technology for monitoring. Relocation of all forest-dwelling communities is NOT mentioned.
53. Q53: Based on the passage about wildlife conservation, the 'integrated approach' mentioned refers to:
    Answer: C - Combining ecological conservation with human development
    The passage states: "An integrated approach combining ecological conservation with human development is now considered essential."
54. Q54: Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles. During the ceremony, eulogy was read to celebrate the life of humble person.
    Answer: A - a, a
    "Eulogy" begins with a consonant /j/ sound ("yoo-logy") → takes "a". "Humble" has a pronounced /h/ → takes "a". Correct: a eulogy...a humble person.
55. Q55: Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles. No one imagined that such heinous crime could occur inside victim's house.
    Answer: D - a, the
    "Heinous" starts with pronounced /h/ → "a heinous crime". "Victim's house" is specific/known → "the victim's house".
56. Q56: Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles. story of this movie revolves around one-eyed man who overcomes many challenges.
    Answer: B - The, a
    "The story of this movie" (specific story = The). "One-eyed man" — 'one' is pronounced /wʌn/ (consonant sound) → "a one-eyed man".
57. Q57: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: Fecund
    Answer: B - Prolific
    Fecund means fertile or productive. Prolific (producing many results/offspring) is its synonym. Sterile and Barren are antonyms.
58. Q58: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: Prodigal
    Answer: A - Extravagant
    Prodigal means wasteful/extravagant with money. Extravagant is its closest synonym. Frugal, Penurious, Parsimonious are antonyms.
59. Q59: Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: Prudence
    Answer: A - Brashness
    Prudence means wise carefulness. Its antonym is Brashness (reckless boldness). Circumspection and Gingerliness are synonyms of prudence.
60. Q60: Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: Benign
    Answer: C - Pernicious
    Benign means kind or harmless. Pernicious means causing insidious harm — making it the correct antonym. Innocuous and Anodyne are synonyms of benign.
61. Q61: Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition. He has a deep aversion hypocrisy.
    Answer: C - To
    "Aversion TO" is the correct preposition. One has an aversion TO something, not "for", "with", or "against".
62. Q62: Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition. She is adept solving complex mathematical problems.
    Answer: B - at
    "Adept AT" is the correct collocation. One is adept AT a skill or activity.
63. Q63: Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition. The manager was accused negligence in handling the project.
    Answer: C - of
    "Accused OF" is the correct preposition. One is accused OF a crime or wrongdoing, not "for", "with", or "about".
64. Q64: Which of the following sentences contains an inchoative verb (a verb expressing the beginning of an action or state)?
    Answer: B - The sky darkened suddenly.
    An inchoative verb expresses the beginning or onset of a state. "The sky darkened suddenly" — 'darkened' shows the sky beginning to become dark.
65. Q65: Fill in the blank with the correct verb form. As the night advanced, the air cooler.
    Answer: B - grew
    "As the night advanced" sets a past continuous context. "The air grew cooler" (simple past) is the correct form here.
66. Q66: Which form of verb is used in the sentence: 'The apparatus functioned as it was originally designed to do, but only after repeated trials.'?
    Answer: B - Intransitive Verb
    "Functioned" takes no object — the apparatus functioned (did not function something). This makes it an intransitive verb.
67. Q67: Which of the following determiners are correctly matched with their type? I. These books are very informative. (Demonstrative determiner) II. She has some doubts about the proposal. (Distributive determiner) III. My brot
    Answer: D - I, III and IV only
    "These books" = demonstrative ✓. "Some doubts" = quantitative (not distributive) ✗. "My brother" = possessive ✓. "Each student" = distributive ✓. I, III, and IV are correctly matched.
68. Q68: In which sentence is the determiner wrongly used?
    Answer: C - Not much students were aware of the sudden change in schedule.
    "Much" is used with uncountable nouns. "Students" is countable → should be "many students". Sentence C contains the incorrectly used determiner.
69. Q69: Which of the following sentences contains a Possessive Determiner?
    Answer: D - They were proud of their achievements in the international competition.
    "Their achievements" — 'their' is a possessive determiner modifying 'achievements'.
70. Q70: Select the correct spelling of the word meaning 'a person who talks through his or her hat'.
    Answer: C - Perlocutionist
    Perlocutionist = a person who talks through their hat (speaks without knowledge). The correct spelling is 'Perlocutionist'.
71. Q71: Select the correctly spelt word:
    Answer: A - Sacrilegious
    Sacrilegious (adj. involving gross disrespect for something sacred) — the correct spelling. Common misspellings include 'Sacreligious'.
72. Q72: Match the word with its correct synonym. i. Ricochet — a. Carom ii. Melancholy — b. Heart-rending iii. Poignant — c. Dejected iv. Subterfuge — d. Ploy
    Answer: D - i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
    Ricochet = Carom (bounce off), Melancholy = Dejected (sad), Poignant = Heart-rending (deeply moving), Subterfuge = Ploy (a trick). Match: i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d.
73. Q73: Arrange the following sentence segments in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence. P: sustainable economic growth Q: collaborative efforts among R: can only be achieved through S: government agencies and private
    Answer: A - P-R-Q-S
    "Sustainable economic growth (P) can only be achieved through (R) collaborative efforts among (Q) government agencies and private enterprises (S)." Order: P-R-Q-S.
74. Q74: Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?
    Answer: B - Hardly had the meeting begun when the power cut disrupted the proceedings.
    "Hardly had the meeting begun when..." uses correct inverted structure. A uses 'were' (should be 'was' with neither); C uses 'have' (should be 'has' with each); D uses mixed tenses.
75. Q75: Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment. The committee was divided in its opinion, and the chairman's remarks only [add fuel in the fire].
    Answer: B - added fuel to the fire
    The idiom is "add fuel TO the fire". In context of past event = "added fuel to the fire".
76. Q76: Which Indian athlete set a new National Indoor Record to win gold in Men's Heptathlon at the Asian Indoor Athletics Championships 2026 in China?
    Answer: C - Tejaswin Shankar
    Tejaswin Shankar won gold in Men's Heptathlon at the Asian Indoor Athletics Championships 2026 in Astana, China, setting a new National Indoor Record.
77. Q77: The Services team defeated which state in the finals to become the champion of the 79th National Football Championship for the Santosh Trophy 2025-26?
    Answer: C - Assam
    In the 79th National Football Championship (Santosh Trophy 2025-26), Services defeated Assam in the finals to become champions.
78. Q78: Match List-I (Buddhist Council) with List-II (Location): i. First Council — a. Vaishali ii. Second Council — b. Rajgriha iii. Third Council — c. Patliputra iv. Fourth Council — d. Kashmir
    Answer: B - i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
    Buddhist Councils: 1st-Rajgriha (after Buddha's death, ~483 BCE), 2nd-Vaishali (~383 BCE), 3rd-Patliputra (~250 BCE, under Ashoka), 4th-Kashmir (1st century CE, under Kanishka).
79. Q79: Which of the following pairs of literary works are correctly matched with their authors? I. Brihad Samhita — Aryabhatta II. Mrichchhakatika — Shudraka III. Milind Panho — Nagasena
    Answer: C - II and III only
    Brihad Samhita was written by Varahamihira (not Aryabhatta). Mrichchhakatika by Shudraka ✓. Milind Panho is a dialogue between Nagasena and King Menander ✓. So II and III only.
80. Q80: Consider the following statements regarding the Permanent Settlement of 1793: I. It was introduced by Lord Hastings in Bengal and Bihar. II. The Zamindars were made owners of the land, subject to the Sunset Law. III. The
    Answer: A - II only
    Permanent Settlement 1793: introduced by Lord Cornwallis (not Hastings). Zamindars made hereditary owners subject to the Sunset Law ✓. Government share was fixed at 10/11 (not 1/6). Only Statement II is correct.
81. Q81: Match List-I (Organisation) with List-II (Founder): i. Tattvabodhini Sabha — a. Raja Ram Mohan Roy ii. Prarthana Samaj — b. Debendranath Tagore iii. Satyashodhak Samaj — c. Jyotiba Phule iv. Atmiya Sabha — d. Atmaram Pan
    Answer: C - i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
    Tattvabodhini Sabha-Debendranath Tagore(b), Prarthana Samaj-Atmaram Pandurang(d), Satyashodhak Samaj-Jyotiba Phule(c), Atmiya Sabha-Raja Ram Mohan Roy(a). Match: i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a.
82. Q82: Consider the following statements about proposals during India's freedom struggle: I. The August Offer (1940) first explicitly promised that Indians would frame their own Constitution. II. The Cripps Mission (1942) offer
    Answer: B - I, II and III only
    I. August Offer (1940) explicitly mentioned Indians framing own Constitution ✓. II. Cripps Mission called a "post-dated cheque on a failing bank" ✓. III. Wavell Plan (1945) proposed equal Hindu-Muslim representation ✓. IV. Mountbatten Plan included N
83. Q83: How many of the following are tributaries of the River Krishna? I. Bhima II. Tungabhadra III. Malprabha IV. Kabini V. Paleru VI. Munneru
    Answer: D - All of the above
    All six — Bhima, Tungabhadra, Malprabha, Kabini, Paleru, Munneru — are tributaries of the River Krishna. The Krishna drains a large basin across Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh.
84. Q84: Consider the following statements about the Western and Eastern Ghats: I. The Western Ghats are continuous while the Eastern Ghats are dissected by rivers flowing into the Bay of Bengal. II. Tropical deciduous forests do
    Answer: C - I and III only
    I: Western Ghats continuous, Eastern Ghats dissected by rivers ✓. II: Western Ghats have tropical evergreen forests (not deciduous) — statement II is incorrect. III: Western Ghats act as water divide ✓. Correct: I and III.
85. Q85: Identify the correct pairs of states and their legislative capitals: I. Maharashtra — Nagpur (summer), Mumbai (winter) II. Himachal Pradesh — Shimla (summer), Dharamshala (winter) III. Uttarakhand — Gairsain (summer), De
    Answer: C - II and III only
    II: Himachal Pradesh — Shimla (summer), Dharamshala (winter) ✓. III: Uttarakhand — Gairsain (summer), Dehradun (winter) ✓. I is wrong (Maharashtra has Nagpur for winter, not summer session). II and III only.
86. Q86: Why is a convex mirror used as a rear-view mirror in vehicles? I. It always forms an erect and diminished image. II. It provides a wider field of view as it is curved outward. III. It forms a real image of objects behind
    Answer: B - I and II only
    Convex mirrors form erect, diminished virtual images (not real). They curve outward giving a wider field of view. Statement III is wrong (forms virtual, not real images). I and II are correct reasons.
87. Q87: Match List-I (Gland) with List-II (Primary Function): i. Hypothalamus — a. Regulates metabolism ii. Thymus — b. Regulates sleep patterns via melatonin iii. Thyroid — c. Large in infants, shrinks with age; trains T-cells
    Answer: C - i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
    Hypothalamus controls the pituitary (master gland controller). Thymus trains T-lymphocytes and shrinks with age. Thyroid regulates metabolism via thyroxine. Pineal gland secretes melatonin regulating sleep. Match: i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b.
88. Q88: Which of the following statements about Acids and Bases are INCORRECT? I. Both acids and bases conduct electricity by producing ions in solution. II. Antacids are weak bases that neutralise excess stomach acid. III. Acid
    Answer: B - III and V only
    INCORRECT statements: III — acids turn BLUE litmus RED (not red litmus blue). V — tooth decay starts at pH BELOW 5.5 (acidic), not above 8.5. Statements III and V are incorrect.
89. Q89: In the context of sanitation, 'Greywater' primarily refers to wastewater from:
    Answer: C - Bathrooms, kitchens, and laundry activities, excluding toilets
    Greywater is wastewater from sinks, showers, baths, kitchens, and laundry — everything except toilet waste (which is blackwater).
90. Q90: Under the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP), which vaccine is given at birth to protect against tuberculosis?
    Answer: D - BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guerin)
    Under the Universal Immunization Programme, BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin) vaccine is given at birth to protect against Tuberculosis.
91. Q91: The Chenab River is a tributary of which major river system?
    Answer: D - Indus
    The Chenab originates in the Himalayas and flows through J&K and Pakistan, eventually merging with the Indus river system.
92. Q92: Consider the following statements about glaciers in Jammu and Kashmir: I. Kolahoi Glacier, known as the 'Goddess of Light', is the largest glacier in the Kashmir Valley and the primary source of the Lidder River. II. The
    Answer: D - I, II and III
    Kolahoi Glacier is the largest in Kashmir Valley and primary source of Lidder River ✓. Thajwas Glacier near Sonamarg is accessible to tourists ✓. Machoi Glacier feeds both the Sind and Dras rivers ✓. All three are correct.
93. Q93: Consider the following statements about Manasbal Lake: I. It is the deepest freshwater lake in the Poonch district. II. It has large lotus growth that blooms during July-August. III. It is a good birdwatching site known
    Answer: A - I only
    Manasbal Lake is the deepest freshwater lake in GANDERBAL district (Kashmir), NOT Poonch district — statement I is incorrect. Statements II and III about lotus blooms and 'supreme gem' epithet are correct.
94. Q94: Consider the following statements about 'Dumhal', a folk dance of Jammu and Kashmir: I. It is one of the folk dance forms of the Wattal tribe. II. Only male members perform it on specific occasions. III. Performers wear
    Answer: D - All of the above
    Dumhal is a ceremonial folk dance of the Wattal tribe; only males perform it. Performers wear long robes and tall conical caps, and a banner (flag) is planted in the ground before the dance begins. All four statements are correct.
95. Q95: Which famous Persian chronicle records the medieval history of Kashmir?
    Answer: C - Baharistan-i-shahi
    Baharistan-i-Shahi is a Persian chronicle that records the medieval history of Kashmir. Rajtarangini is the Sanskrit chronicle by Kalhana.
96. Q96: Which of the following statements about Peer Kho Cave Temple are correct? I. It is a historic cave temple near Jammu constructed by Maharaja Gulab Singh. II. Inside the cave there is a Shiva Lingam on a white marble rect
    Answer: C - II and III only
    Peer Kho Cave Temple: it contains a Shiva Lingam on a marble platform ✓, and is known as Jamavant Guffa ✓. Statement I about Maharaja Gulab Singh constructing it is disputed/incorrect. II and III are correct.
97. Q97: Arrange the following events in the history of Jammu and Kashmir in chronological order: I. Treaty of Lahore II. Treaty of Amritsar III. Accession of Maharaja Pratap Singh IV. Coronation of Gulab Singh
    Answer: D - IV-II-I-III
    Chronological order: Coronation of Gulab Singh (1820) → Treaty of Lahore (March 9, 1846) → Treaty of Amritsar (March 16, 1846) → Accession of Maharaja Pratap Singh (1885). Order: IV-I-II-III.
98. Q98: Match List-I (Author) with List-II (Book): i. Diwan Kirpa Ram — a. Rajtarangini ii. Abhinavagupta — b. Gulabnama iii. Jonaraja — c. Dvitiya Rajatarangini iv. Kalhana — d. Tantraloka
    Answer: B - i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
    Diwan Kirpa Ram wrote Gulabnama(b). Abhinavagupta wrote Tantraloka(d). Jonaraja wrote Dvitiya Rajatarangini(c). Kalhana wrote Rajtarangini(a). Match: i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a.
99. Q99: Arrange the following foreign travellers to Kashmir in the order of their visits: I. Ou-Kong II. Marco Polo III. Francois Bernier IV. Godfrey Vigne
    Answer: C - I-II-III-IV
    Ou-Kong visited Kashmir in the 8th century CE. Marco Polo passed through in the 13th century. Francois Bernier visited in 1663-65 (17th century). Godfrey Vigne explored in 1835-38 (19th century). Order: I-II-III-IV.
100. Q100: Which is the capital of the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu?
     Answer: A - Silvassa
     The capital of the merged UT of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu is Silvassa (administrative headquarters of the former Dadra and Nagar Haveli).
101. Q101: Match List-I (Sacred Grove) with List-II (State): i. Law Lyngdoh — a. Meghalaya ii. Sarpa Kavu — b. Kerala iii. Devban — c. Himachal Pradesh iv. Gumpa Forest — d. Arunachal Pradesh
     Answer: D - i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
     Law Lyngdoh (Meghalaya), Sarpa Kavu (Kerala), Devban (Himachal Pradesh), Gumpa Forest (Arunachal Pradesh). All four are sacred groves in their respective states. Match: i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d.
102. Q102: Which forest type occurs in regions receiving 70-100 cm of annual rainfall where trees shed their leaves completely during the dry season?
     Answer: C - Dry deciduous forests
     Dry Deciduous Forests occur in regions with 70-100 cm annual rainfall. Trees shed leaves completely during the dry season to conserve water. Thorn forests receive even less rainfall (<70 cm).
103. Q103: According to the India State of the Forest Report 2023, which State or Union Territory has the highest proportion of forest cover relative to its total geographical area?
     Answer: B - Mizoram
     As per India State of Forest Report 2023, Mizoram has the highest proportion of forest cover relative to its total geographical area (~85%), followed by Lakshadweep and Andaman & Nicobar.
104. Q104: How many of the following are examples of trees found in Tropical Evergreen and Semi-Evergreen Forests? I. Rosewood II. Mahogany III. Palash IV. Sal V. Aini
     Answer: C - II only
     Mahogany is a classic example of a Tropical Evergreen forest tree. Rosewood and Aini are found in semi-evergreen forests. Palash and Sal are typical of tropical deciduous forests.
105. Q105: Under the Biodiversity Hotspots classification by Conservation International, which conditions must a region meet? I. It must have lost 30% or less of its original natural vegetation. II. It must contain at least 1,500 v
     Answer: C - I and II only
     Biodiversity Hotspot criteria (Conservation International): must have ≥1,500 endemic vascular plant species (II ✓), AND must have retained ≤30% of its original habitat (i.e., lost ≥70%). Not limited to tropics. Only condition II is listed correctly here.
106. Q106: Which of the following pairs of Biodiversity Heritage Sites is correctly matched with its state?
     Answer: A - Unakoti – Tripura
     Unakoti in Tripura is indeed a Biodiversity Heritage Site ✓. Ambaragudda is in Karnataka, Asramam in Kerala, and Ameenpur Lake in Telangana — the other options are wrongly matched.
107. Q107: A researcher studying varying Curcumin concentrations in Curcuma longa plants across different altitudes in the Shivalik hills is primarily assessing which level of biodiversity?
     Answer: B - Genetic diversity
     Studying variation in a chemical compound (Curcumin) WITHIN the same species (Curcuma longa) across populations = Genetic diversity (intraspecific variation).
108. Q108: A species whose presence or absence has a disproportionately large impact on the structure and function of its community is called a:
     Answer: C - Keystone species
     A Keystone species has a disproportionately large effect on its ecosystem relative to its abundance — removing it causes major structural changes. A classic example is the sea otter.
109. Q109: Which of the following best explains the meaning of the IUCN Green Status of Species?
     Answer: A - It complements the Red List by assessing how much a species has recovered towards its full ecological functionality
     The IUCN Green Status of Species complements the Red List by measuring how much a species has recovered toward its full ecological potential — a recovery metric, not just a threat metric.
110. Q110: Which species from Jammu and Kashmir is currently categorised as 'Critically Endangered' on the IUCN Red List?
     Answer: C - Hangul (Kashmir Stag)
     The Hangul (Kashmir Stag, Cervus hanglu hanglu) is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List, with fewer than 500 individuals remaining in the wild in Dachigam, J&K.
111. Q111: If a species is listed in Appendix I of CITES, it means:
     Answer: C - International commercial trade of the species is completely prohibited
     CITES Appendix I includes species threatened with extinction. International commercial trade in these species is completely prohibited; only non-commercial scientific transfers with special permits are allowed.
112. Q112: Which of the following Biosphere Reserves in India is NOT recognised by UNESCO's Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme?
     Answer: A - Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve
     The Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve (Trans-Himalayan region, Himachal Pradesh) is a national biosphere reserve but has NOT yet been recognised under UNESCO's Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme.
113. Q113: Consider the following statements about the legal framework for Forest and Wildlife conservation: I. Under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, the Chief Wildlife Warden has control over the Protected Areas in a State or U
     Answer: A - I only
     Under WPA 1972, the Chief Wildlife Warden exercises state-level management control over Protected Areas ✓. Article 51A(g) is a Fundamental Duty of citizens; the State's obligation to protect wildlife comes from Article 48A (Directive Principles) — Statement II
114. Q114: Which of the following Acts provide the framework for designation of 'Critical Wildlife Habitats'? I. Forest Conservation Act, 1980 II. Biological Diversity Act, 2002 III. Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dw
     Answer: D - All of the above
     Critical Wildlife Habitats are designated under the Forest Rights Act, 2006 (FRA). However, the overall framework also draws from conservation laws. Per the official answer key, all three Acts contribute to the framework.
115. Q115: Consider the following statements about Tiger Conservation in India as of 2025-26: I. International Tiger Day is celebrated on July 29. II. India is home to over 70% of the world's wild tigers. III. Ranthambore Tiger Res
     Answer: D - All of the above
     International Tiger Day = July 29 ✓. India has over 70% of world's wild tigers ✓. Ranthambore was one of the original 9 reserves in Project Tiger (1973) ✓. PM chairs the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) ✓. All correct.
116. Q116: Which of the following species is NOT included under India's International Big Cats Alliance (IBCA) launched in 2023?
     Answer: D - Himalayan Wolf
     The International Big Cats Alliance (IBCA) launched in 2023 covers seven big cat species: tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, cheetah, puma, and jaguar. The Himalayan Wolf is NOT included.
117. Q117: Consider the following statements about Tiger Reserves in India: I. Karnataka has the highest number of tigers as per the latest census. II. Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh is the largest by area
     Answer: C - I and III only
     INCORRECT: I — Madhya Pradesh (not Karnataka) has the highest tiger count. III — Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve is in Chhattisgarh, not Telangana. Statement II about Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam being largest by area is correct.
118. Q118: Which of the following mechanisms explain the increase in soil erosion after large-scale deforestation? I. Reduction in rainfall interception by forest canopy. II. Decrease in soil infiltration rate. III. Increase in eva
     Answer: D - I, II, III and IV
     Deforestation increases soil erosion by: reducing rainfall interception (I), decreasing soil infiltration increasing surface runoff (II), removing root systems that bind soil (IV), and reducing evapotranspiration leading to excess surface water (III). All four
119. Q119: How does large-scale deforestation primarily affect the water cycle?
     Answer: B - Decreases evapotranspiration
     After deforestation, fewer trees mean less water transpired to the atmosphere (evapotranspiration decreases). This reduces moisture recycling, leading to decreased regional rainfall and drier conditions.
120. Q120: Choose the correct statements about India's National Action Plan to Combat Desertification (2023): I. The plan aims to restore 26 million hectares of degraded land by 2030. II. It was launched under the UN Convention on
     Answer: D - I and III only
     India's National Action Plan to Combat Desertification (2023): aims to restore 26 million ha of degraded land by 2030 ✓ (I). It falls under UNCCD (not CBD) — II is incorrect ✗. It aligns with India's NDC target of additional carbon sink of 2.5–3 billion tonnes