SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 12 Sep 2025 (Shift 1) — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

General Intelligence & Reasoning — Solved Questions

1. Q1: In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives. Watt : Power :: Pascal : ?
   Answer: C — Pressure
   The correct answer is Pressure. Key Points - This is a unit-to-quantity analogy. - The watt is the SI unit of power, so the second pair must match a unit to the physical quantity it measures. - The pascal is the SI unit of pressure (one new
2. Q2: In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives. Mekong : Tibet :: Amazon : ?
   Answer: B — Peru
   The correct answer is Peru. Key Points - This is a river-to-source analogy. - The Mekong rises on the Tibetan Plateau, so the second pair must link a river to where it originates. - The Amazon rises in the Andes of Peru (from the Apurímac/M
3. Q3: Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. C G K, G K O, K O S, O S W, ?
   Answer: C — SWA
   The correct answer is SWA. Key Points - Each group is built from a +4 letter step. - Reading C-G-K, G-K-O, K-O-S, O-S-W, every group takes the last two letters of the previous group and appends the next letter four places ahead. - After O-S
4. Q4: Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. MIN, NJM, OKL, PLK, ?
   Answer: C — QMJ
   The correct answer is QMJ. Key Points - Track each of the three positions separately. - Position 1: M→N→O→P→Q (+1 each). - Position 2: I→J→K→L→M (+1 each). - Position 3: N→M→L→K→J (−1 each). - Combining the next values gives QMJ. - The trap
5. Q5: Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. BRF, EUH, HXJ, KAL, ?
   Answer: D — NDN
   The correct answer is NDN. Key Points - Resolve each column: Position 1 B→E→H→K→N (+3). - Position 2 R→U→X→A→D (+3, wrapping past Z). - Position 3 F→H→J→L→N (+2). - The next cluster is therefore N D N. - The wrap in the middle column (X→A→D
6. Q6: Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series: WZWT, WVOH, WRGV, WNYJ, ?
   Answer: A — WJQX
   The correct answer is WJQX. Key Points - Four columns, four rules. - Position 1 is always W. - Position 2: Z→V→R→N→J (−4). - Position 3: W→O→G→Y→Q (−8, wrapping). - Position 4: T→H→V→J→X (+14, wrapping). - Assembling the next values gives W
7. Q7: Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series: MCFI, NEKP, OGPW, PIUD, ?
   Answer: C — QKZK
   The correct answer is QKZK. Key Points - Column by column: Position 1 M→N→O→P→Q (+1). - Position 2 C→E→G→I→K (+2). - Position 3 F→K→P→U→Z (+5). - Position 4 I→P→W→D→K (+7, wrapping). - The next cluster is QKZK. - Four different arithmetic s
8. Q8: What comes next: 3, 12, 7, 16, 11, 20, 15, ?
   Answer: B — 24
   The correct answer is 24. Key Points - This is two interleaved sequences. - The odd positions 3, 7, 11, 15 rise by +4; the even positions 12, 16, 20, ? also rise by +4. The next term sits in the even sequence, so 20 + 4 = 24. - Alternating
9. Q9: Each of the letters in the word STUDENT is arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the letter that is second from the left and the one tha
   Answer: B — 13
   The correct answer is 13. Key Points - Arrange STUDENT alphabetically: D, E, N, S, T, T, U. The letter second from the left is E (position 5 in the alphabet); the letter fourth from the right is S (position 19). - Count the letters strictly
10. Q10: Which of the following addresses are identical to each other: 1. Arjun Mehta A-101, Emerald Towers, Surat, 395001 2. Arjun Mehta A-101, Emerald Tower, Surat, 395001 3. Arjun M. A-101, Emerald Tower, S
    Answer: C — 2 and 4
    The correct answer is 2 and 4. Key Points - Compare each address field by field. - Address 1 reads 'Emerald Towers' (plural) while 2 and 4 read 'Emerald Tower'. - Address 3 shortens the name to 'Arjun M.' instead of 'Arjun Mehta'. - Only 2
11. Q11: Which of the following is/are identical to the address given: Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida, 201301 1. Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida, 201301 2. Meenal Gupta 102, Si
    Answer: A — 1
    The correct answer is 1. Key Points - Only address 1 reproduces the reference exactly. - Address 2 writes 'Sector-12' with a hyphen, address 3 drops the comma ('Noida 201301'), and address 4 changes the PIN to 201302. - Punctuation and digi
12. Q12: Find the option that best completes the analogy. AG : IO :: CM : ?
    Answer: B — KU
    The correct answer is KU. Key Points - Each letter shifts +8. In AG → IO: A(1)+8 = I(9) and G(7)+8 = O(15). - Apply the same +8 to CM: C(3)+8 = K(11) and M(13)+8 = U(21), giving KU. - Confirm the step size on the first pair (here +8 on both
13. Q13: A is facing North. B is seated second to the right of A. Who is sitting immediately to the left of B?
    Answer: D — Cannot be determined
    The correct answer is Cannot be determined. Key Points - We are told only that A faces North and B sits second to the right of A. Nothing fixes the total number of people or the shape of the seating, so the person immediately to B's left is
14. Q14: In the following question, the second word is related to the first word by a specific pattern of letter transformation. Identify the same pattern and apply it to the third word to find the correct opt
    Answer: A — YPTF
    The correct answer is YPTF. Key Points - Decode the per-letter shift from TIME → VJOG: T+2 = V, I+1 = J, M+2 = O, E+2 = G, i.e. the pattern +2, +1, +2, +2. - Apply it to WORD: W+2 = Y, O+1 = P, R+2 = T, D+2 = F → YPTF. - When the shift is a
15. Q15: In each of the following questions, a specific pattern such as reversal or rearrangement has been applied to the first word to get the second. Apply the same pattern to the third word and find the cor
    Answer: A — SOLUTION
    The correct answer is SOLUTION. Key Points - The rule is simple reversal: GNIDAER is READING spelt backwards. - Applying the same reversal to NOITULOS gives SOLUTION. - Spot reversals by checking whether the second word read right-to-left e
16. Q16: In each of the following questions, the first word is coded to form the second word using a specific rearrangement and/or substitution rule. Apply the same rule to the third word to determine the corr
    Answer: C — PERFECT
    The correct answer is PERFECT. Key Points - Work out the code from CATTLE → AYRRJC: each letter is shifted −2 (C−2 = A, A−2 = Y, T−2 = R, T−2 = R, L−2 = J, E−2 = C). - To decode NCPDCAR, reverse the rule with +2: N+2 = P, C+2 = E, P+2 = R,
17. Q17: Identify the odd one: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 20
    Answer: C — 20
    The correct answer is 20. Key Points - The list 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17 is all prime numbers; 20 = 2² × 5 is composite, so it breaks the rule and is the odd one out. - When a numeric odd-one-out mixes small integers, test the classic propert
18. Q18: Which of the following is the odd one out? 2, 3, 5 11, 13, 17 4, 6, 8 7, 19, 23
    Answer: C — 4, 6, 8
    The correct answer is 4, 6, 8. Key Points - Groups A (2,3,5), B (11,13,17) and D (7,19,23) contain only prime numbers. - Group C (4,6,8) is entirely even composites — not one is prime — so it is the odd group. - For group-based odd-one-out,
19. Q19: Rani said, "The man in the photo is my mother's son-in-law." Who is the man to Rani?
    Answer: A — Husband
    The correct answer is Husband. Key Points - Unpack the relation: Rani's mother's son-in-law is the husband of one of her mother's daughters. - Since Rani is the speaker (and the natural referent), that daughter is Rani herself, making the m
20. Q20: In each of the following questions, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.
    Answer: D — N14 : K11 : H8
    The correct answer is N14 : K11 : H8. Key Points - In options A, B and C each element drops by exactly 2 in both letter and number: e.g. K11 → I9 → G7. - Option D goes N(14) → K(11) → H(8), a step of −3 each time, so it breaks the −2 patter
21. Q21: In each of the following questions, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.
    Answer: D — J10 : K11@ : L12@
    The correct answer is J10 : K11@ : L12@. Key Points - In A, B and C each triplet pairs its letter-number with a unique consecutive special symbol (e.g. A1@ : B2 : C3). - In D, both K11 and L12 carry the same symbol @, so the 'one distinct s
22. Q22: Pointing to a man, a woman said, "His mother is the only daughter of my father." How is the man related to the woman?
    Answer: A — Son
    The correct answer is Son. Key Points - 'The only daughter of my father' is the woman herself. - So 'his mother is the only daughter of my father' means the man's mother is the woman, which makes the man her son. - Collapse self-referential
23. Q23: Pointing to a woman, John says, "She is the wife of my uncle's only son." How is the woman related to John?
    Answer: C — Sister-in-law
    The correct answer is Sister-in-law. Key Points - John's uncle's only son is John's (male) cousin. - The woman is that cousin's wife. - In common Indian kinship usage a male cousin's wife is addressed as bhabhi — the sister-in-law equivalen
24. Q24: A man said, "My mother's husband's only son is the father of your sister's brother." How is the man related to you?
    Answer: B — Father
    The correct answer is Father. Key Points - Step through it: 'my mother's husband' = my father; 'my father's only son' = the man himself; 'your sister's brother' = you. - So the man is the father of you — your father. - Replace each clause w
25. Q25: If = ×, @ = −, = +, then evaluate: 9 2 @ 3 1
    Answer: C — 16
    The correct answer is 16. Key Points - Substitute the symbols: = ×, @ = −, = +. - The expression 9 2 @ 3 1 becomes 9 × 2 − 3 + 1. By BODMAS, 9 × 2 = 18, then 18 − 3 + 1 = 16. - Replace every symbol first, then apply BODMAS (multiplication b

General Awareness — Solved Questions

1. Q26: Which of the following features distinguishes the Elephanta Caves from other rock-cut sites of early India?
   Answer: B — The caves focus on Shaivite themes and feature sculptural depth through light and shadow.
   The correct answer is The caves focus on Shaivite themes and feature sculptural depth through light and shadow.. Key Points - The Elephanta Caves (an island near Mumbai) are dedicated to Shaiva Hinduism. - Their signature feature is the mon
2. Q27: Read the statements about the Goncha Festival of Bastar: 1.) Tupki, a mock gun made of bamboo, uses Goncha fruit as bullets. 2.) The chariot procession was started by Chalukya rulers. 3.) Rath Yatra b
   Answer: A — Only 1 and 2
   The correct answer is Only 1 and 2. Key Points - For Bastar's Goncha festival, statement 1 (the Tupki, a bamboo mock-gun firing Goncha fruit as 'bullets') and statement 2 (the chariot procession traced to Chalukya rulers) are both well-docu
3. Q28: Fill in the blanks: In Carnatic music, a laghu with five beats is known as jaati.
   Answer: C — Khanda
   The correct answer is Khanda. Key Points - In the Carnatic tala system the jaati names fix the beat-count of a laghu: Tishra = 3, Chaturashra = 4, Khanda = 5, Mishra = 7, Sankirna = 9. A laghu of five beats is therefore Khanda jaati. - Lear
4. Q29: Which of the following statements about Judo is correct?
   Answer: A — Judo was introduced in 1882 by Jigoro Kano in Japan.
   The correct answer is Judo was introduced in 1882 by Jigoro Kano in Japan.. Key Points - Judo was founded by Jigoro Kano in Japan in 1882, developed from traditional jujutsu. - That statement is factually correct. - The others contain plant
5. Q30: Where and when will the 59th National Cross Country Championships - 2025 be held?
   Answer: B — 12th January 2025, Meerut, Uttar Pradesh
   The correct answer is 12th January 2025, Meerut, Uttar Pradesh. Key Points - The 59th National Cross Country Championships 2025 were held on 12 January 2025 at Meerut, Uttar Pradesh. - The distractors change either the date (10th/15th Janua
6. Q31: What is the core structural focus of the 2024 India-UAE Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) within India's international investment strategy?
   Answer: C — Assures post-establishment investor confidence via standard and national treatment.
   The correct answer is Assures post-establishment investor confidence via standard and national treatment.. Key Points - The 2024 India–UAE Bilateral Investment Treaty follows India's Model BIT (2016) template, which centres on post-establis
7. Q32: Fill in the blanks: The Santosh Trophy 2022-23 final was uniquely held in , where Karnataka defeated Meghalaya to win the title after 54 years.
   Answer: C — Doha
   The correct answer is Doha. Key Points - The Santosh Trophy 2022–23 final was played in Doha, Qatar — the first time the tournament's final was held outside India — where Karnataka beat Meghalaya to lift the title after 54 years. - The othe
8. Q33: Which of the following statements best captures the essence of "Landscapes of Loss: The Story of an Indian Drought" by Kavitha Iyer?
   Answer: A — A study on drought's human and ecological impacts in India.
   The correct answer is A study on drought's human and ecological impacts in India.. Key Points - 'Landscapes of Loss: The Story of an Indian Drought' by Kavitha Iyer is a non-fiction account documenting the human, agrarian and ecological dev
9. Q34: Consider the following statements about glacial landforms: Statement 1: Hanging valleys are often found opening into main glacial valleys at higher elevations. Statement 2: Spurs of such hanging valle
   Answer: C — 1 and 2 are correct
   The correct answer is 1 and 2 are correct. Key Points - Both glacial-landform statements hold. Hanging valleys are tributary valleys that open into the deeper main glacial valley at a higher elevation (often forming waterfalls). - Their spu
10. Q35: What is the primary function of the Crew Escape System (CES) on ISRO's Human Rated LVM3 (HLVM3) rocket?
    Answer: B — To eject the crew module to safety during launch emergencies.
    The correct answer is To eject the crew module to safety during launch emergencies.. Key Points - The Crew Escape System (CES) on ISRO's human-rated HLVM3 is a launch abort system. - Its job is to pull the crew module rapidly away from the
11. Q36: Which of the following statements about Justice Sanjiv Khanna is/are true? 1. He is the 51st Chief Justice of India 2. He succeeded Justice D.Y. Chandrachud 3. He served as CJI from 2023
    Answer: A — 1 and 2 only
    The correct answer is 1 and 2 only. Key Points - Statement 1 (Justice Sanjiv Khanna is the 51st Chief Justice of India) and statement 2 (he succeeded Justice D. Y. Chandrachud) are both true. - Statement 3 is false — he became CJI in Novemb
12. Q37: Which of the following objectives are part of the National Population Policy (NPP) 2000? 1. Providing free and compulsory education up to 14 years of age 2. Increasing fertility rate to ensure demogra
    Answer: C — Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct
    The correct answer is Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Key Points - The National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 aimed at free and compulsory education up to age 14 (1), reducing the infant mortality rate below 30 per 1,000 live births (3), and pr
13. Q38: Which pathway in cellular respiration generates the most ATP?
    Answer: C — Electron transport chain
    The correct answer is Electron transport chain. Key Points - Across cellular respiration, the electron transport chain (ETC) on the inner mitochondrial membrane produces by far the most ATP — roughly 32–34 ATP per glucose via oxidative phos
14. Q39: Arrange the following events in chronological order; a. Eastern Zonal Council meeting 2022 b. States Reorganisation Act passed c. First Central Zonal Council meeting
    Answer: A — b-c-a
    The correct answer is b-c-a. Key Points - Order the events chronologically. - The States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956 (b) and created the Zonal Councils; the first Central Zonal Council meeting followed in 1957 (c); the Eastern Zon
15. Q40: Which of the following most accurately describes the legal character of the right to property under Article 300A of the Indian Constitution?
    Answer: C — It is a constitutional legal right that permits deprivation only by authority of law.
    The correct answer is It is a constitutional legal right that permits deprivation only by authority of law.. Key Points - After the 44th Amendment (1978), the right to property was removed from the Fundamental Rights and re-placed as a cons
16. Q41: For a rigid body, the angular velocity of any particle about a given axis of rotation is:
    Answer: B — The same for all particles
    The correct answer is The same for all particles. Key Points - In a rigid body every particle turns through the same angle in the same time, so the angular velocity ω is identical for all particles, whatever their distance from the axis. -
17. Q42: The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) places emphasis on the use of technology to ensure the authenticity of evidence. This is particularly relevant for:
    Answer: C — Digital and electronic evidence.
    The correct answer is Digital and electronic evidence.. Key Points - The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (which replaces the Indian Evidence Act, 1872) modernises the law specifically around digital and electronic evidence, tightening rul
18. Q43: Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Assertion (A) : The One Nation One Ration Card ensures portability of food grains. Reason (R) : It uses Aadh
    Answer: A — Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. Key Points - Assertion: the One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) scheme gives beneficiaries portability of food-grain entitlements across any fair price shop
19. Q44: Cheraw, the bamboo dance performed using crossed bamboo sticks, is a folk dance of which state?
    Answer: A — Mizoram
    The correct answer is Mizoram. Key Points - Cheraw, the bamboo dance in which dancers step in and out of rhythmically clapped bamboo poles, is the traditional folk dance of Mizoram. - Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim have their own d
20. Q45: What is a key factor assessed in the Global Firepower Military Strength Ranking 2025?
    Answer: C — Defense Budget
    The correct answer is Defense Budget. Key Points - The Global Firepower Military Strength ranking scores nations on 60+ factors — active personnel, aircraft, tanks, naval assets, nuclear capability, logistics and the defence budget among th
21. Q46: Which of the following correctly describes cooperative sector industries?
    Answer: C — Owned by workers or suppliers sharing profits and losses
    The correct answer is Owned by workers or suppliers sharing profits and losses. Key Points - Cooperative-sector industries are owned and run collectively by their members — workers, producers or consumers — who share the profits and bear th
22. Q47: Education is now placed under which list after the 42nd Amendment?
    Answer: C — Concurrent List
    The correct answer is Concurrent List. Key Points - Before the 42nd Amendment (1976), education sat in the State List. - The 42nd Amendment moved it to the Concurrent List, so both the Centre and the States can now legislate on it. - The sa
23. Q48: What is the main objective of the National Framework for Climate Services (NFCS) launched in 2024?
    Answer: C — To deliver sector-specific climate information services
    The correct answer is To deliver sector-specific climate information services. Key Points - The National Framework for Climate Services (NFCS), launched in 2024, exists to weave climate information into decision-making across sectors — agri
24. Q49: Argon is produced in Earth's crust via?
    Answer: A — Decay of K-40
    The correct answer is Decay of K-40. Key Points - The argon in Earth's crust — chiefly argon-40 — is produced by the radioactive decay of potassium-40 (K-40) through electron capture and beta-plus decay. - This is precisely the process behi
25. Q50: Which of the following is true about Fundamental Rights and DPSPs?
    Answer: C — Fundamental Rights are justiciable, but DPSPs are not
    The correct answer is Fundamental Rights are justiciable, but DPSPs are not. Key Points - Fundamental Rights (Part III) are justiciable — courts can enforce them directly. - The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV, Articles 36–51)

Quantitative Aptitude — Solved Questions

1. Q51: Arrange the fractions 5/9, 4/7, 3/5, and 2/3 in ascending order.
   Answer: B — 5/9,\ 4/7,\ 3/5,\ 2/3
   The correct answer is 5/9,\ 4/7,\ 3/5,\ 2/3. Key Points - Convert each fraction to a decimal to compare: 5/9 ≈ 0.556, 4/7 ≈ 0.571, 3/5 = 0.600, 2/3 ≈ 0.667. - In increasing order these read 5/9 < 4/7 < 3/5 < 2/3. - For unlike fract
2. Q52: Simplify: (21/2 + 3.6) - 1.9
   Answer: A — 4.2
   The correct answer is 4.2. Key Points - Rewrite the mixed number: 212 = 2.5. - Then (2.5 + 3.6) - 1.9 = 6.1 - 1.9 = 4.2. - Convert every mixed number/fraction to a decimal before combining, and work strictly left to right inside the bracket
3. Q53: Evaluate: 71/4 - [5/6 ÷ \1/3 - (1/2 × (3/4 - 1/4))\]
   Answer: C — -23/4
   The correct answer is -23/4. Key Points - Work outward through the brackets. - Innermost: 34-14=12; then 12×12=14; then 13-14=112; then 56÷112=56×12=10. - Finally 714-10=294-10=-114=-234. - Nested BODMAS is safest resolved from the innermos
4. Q54: From a sample of 200 software engineers, determine the ratio of those proficient in Python to those proficient in Java using the given information: Category, Number; ---, ---; Proficient in Python and
   Answer: B — 12:11
   The correct answer is 12:11. Key Points - Count each skill set including the overlap. Python-proficient = Python-only + both = 70 + 50 = 120. Java-proficient = Java-only + both = 60 + 50 = 110. - The ratio Python : Java = 120 : 110 = 12 : 1
5. Q55: Arvind started a business by investing ₹80,000. After 4 months, Bhavin joined with ₹1,20,000. At the end of 8 months from the start, Chandan joined with ₹1,60,000. If the total profit is ₹1,05,000 at
   Answer: D — ₹26,250
   The correct answer is ₹26,250. Key Points - Profit shares follow capital × time. - Arvind: 80,000 × 12 = 9,60,000; Bhavin: 1,20,000 × 8 = 9,60,000; Chandan: 1,60,000 × 4 = 6,40,000. - The ratio is 3 : 3 : 2 (sum 8). - Chandan's share = (2/8
6. Q56: A and B start a business. A invests ₹80,000 for 9 months, B invests ₹1,20,000 for 6 months. What is B's share of a ₹45,000 profit?
   Answer: D — ₹22,500
   The correct answer is ₹22,500. Key Points - Use capital × time. - A: 80,000 × 9 = 7,20,000; B: 1,20,000 × 6 = 7,20,000 — an equal 1 : 1 ratio. - So B's share = ½ × 45,000 = ₹22,500. - More capital for less time can equal less capital for mo
7. Q57: What is the average of all integers between 100 and 250 that are exactly divisible by 11?
   Answer: A — 176
   The correct answer is 176. Key Points - The multiples of 11 between 100 and 250 form an arithmetic series: 110, 121, …, 242. - The mean of an evenly spaced series is just (first + last)/2 = (110 + 242)/2 = 352/2 = 176. - For the average of
8. Q58: The average of 15 numbers is 80. The average of the first 6 numbers is 72. The average of the next 6 numbers is 25% more than the average of the first 6 numbers. The 13th number is 8 more than the 15t
   Answer: C — 75.67
   The correct answer is 75.67. Key Points - Total of 15 numbers = 15 × 80 = 1200. - First 6 sum = 6 × 72 = 432. - Next 6 average = 72 × 1.25 = 90, so sum = 540. - The last 3 sum = 1200 − 432 − 540 = 228. - Let the 15th = x: (x+8) + (x−10) + x
9. Q59: A landlord bought a flat for ₹8,00,000. He wants to earn a 9% annual return on his investment after paying ₹2,000 per month for maintenance. What should be the monthly rent he charges?
   Answer: C — ₹8,000
   The correct answer is ₹8,000. Key Points - The landlord needs a 9% annual return on ₹8,00,000 = ₹72,000 a year = ₹6,000 per month. - Add the ₹2,000 monthly maintenance he must cover, and the rent = 6,000 + 2,000 = ₹8,000. - Separate the ret
10. Q60: An amount is said to double in 5 years with compound interest. How many years will it take for the amount to grow to 8 times its original value?
    Answer: A — 15
    The correct answer is 15. Key Points - Under compound interest the money doubles every 5 years. - To reach 8 times = 2³, it must double three times, so 3 × 5 = 15 years. - Express the growth factor as a power of the doubling factor (8 = 2³)
11. Q61: A sum becomes ₹6,600 in 2 years and ₹7,920 in 3 years at compound interest. What is the original principal?
    Answer: C — ₹4,583.33
    The correct answer is ₹4,583.33. Key Points - The one-year growth from ₹6,600 to ₹7,920 gives the rate: (7920 − 6600)/6600 × 100 = 20%. - Since ₹6,600 is the amount after 2 years, the principal P satisfies P × 1.2² = 6600, so P = 6600 / 1.4
12. Q62: Suman purchased 25 liters of milk at ₹45 per liter and another 15 liters of milk at ₹50 per liter. She combined both quantities and then sold the entire mixture at ₹48 per liter. What was her total pr
    Answer: B — Profit of ₹45
    The correct answer is Profit of ₹45. Key Points - Cost = 25 × 45 + 15 × 50 = 1125 + 750 = ₹1,875 for 40 litres. - Selling all 40 litres at ₹48 gives 40 × 48 = ₹1,920. - Profit = 1,920 − 1,875 = ₹45. - Blend problems: total the cost of each
13. Q63: A toy manufacturer produced 1200 toy cars at a total cost of ₹90,000. He donated 200 cars to a charity event. For the rest, he announced a 10% discount on the market price of ₹120 per car. He also off
    Answer: A — 4% loss
    The correct answer is 4% loss. Key Points - Cost per car = 90,000 / 1,200 = ₹75. Of 1,000 non-donated cars, the '2 free per 8 bought' offer means every 10 distributed contains 8 paid + 2 free, so 1,000 cars → 800 paid. - Selling price after
14. Q64: A retailer marks an air conditioner 80% above its cost price. He offers a first discount of 25% on the marked price. During a festive offer, an additional discount of 10% is applied on the already dis
    Answer: C — ₹12,800
    The correct answer is ₹12,800. Key Points - Let CP = x. Mark-up 80% → MP = 1.8x. - First discount 25% → 1.8x × 0.75 = 1.35x. - Festive discount 10% → 1.35x × 0.90 = 1.215x. - Set equal to the final price: 1.215x = 15,552 → x = 15,552 / 1.21
15. Q65: A 40-liter mixture contains juice and water in the ratio 5:3. How much water (in liters) must be added to this mixture to change the ratio of juice to water to 2:3?
    Answer: B — 22.5 litres
    The correct answer is 22.5 litres. Key Points - In 40 L at 5 : 3, juice = 25 L and water = 15 L. Only water is added, so juice stays 25 L. For juice : water = 2 : 3, set 25/(15 + w) = 2/3 → 75 = 30 + 2w → w = 22.5 litres. - Hold the unchang
16. Q66: A is able to complete a task in 15 days, while B takes 20 days to finish the same task. If they collaborate and work together for 4 days, what fraction of the work will still remain?
    Answer: C — 8/15
    The correct answer is 8/15. Key Points - A's rate = 1/15, B's = 1/20, together = 1/15 + 1/20 = 7/60 per day. - In 4 days they finish 4 × 7/60 = 28/60 = 7/15. Remaining = 1 − 7/15 = 8/15. - Add individual one-day rates for the combined rate,
17. Q67: Two oils priced at ₹90 per kg and ₹150 per kg are blended and sold at ₹144 per kg, achieving a profit margin of 20%. What is the ratio of the two oils in the mixture?
    Answer: A — 1:1
    The correct answer is 1:1. Key Points - Working back from the sale: SP ₹144 at 20% profit means cost of the blend = 144/1.2 = ₹120 per kg. - By alligation the ratio of the ₹90 and ₹150 oils = (150 − 120) : (120 − 90) = 30 : 30 = 1 : 1. - Co
18. Q68: Three pipes, A, B, and C are capable of filling a tank in 6, 8, and 12 hours, respectively. When all three pipes are opened together, they operate for 2 hours before pipe C is closed. How much additio
    Answer: A — 6/7 hours
    The correct answer is 6/7 hours. Key Points - All three rates: 1/6 + 1/8 + 1/12 = 9/24 = 3/8 per hour, so in 2 hours they fill 2 × 3/8 = 3/4. Remaining = 1/4. With C closed, A + B = 1/6 + 1/8 = 7/24 per hour. - Time = (1/4) ÷ (7/24) = (1/4)
19. Q69: A bullet train covers a fixed distance in 30 minutes at an average speed of 240 km/h. Due to track maintenance, it needs to be diverted, increasing the distance by 20%. If the train needs to arrive at
    Answer: C — 288 km/h
    The correct answer is 288 km/h. Key Points - Original distance = 240 × 0.5 h = 120 km. - The diversion adds 20%: new distance = 120 × 1.2 = 144 km, still to be covered in 30 min = 0.5 h. Required speed = 144 / 0.5 = 288 km/h. - The time is
20. Q70: Two cars, X and Y, start from points 360 km apart and travel at constant speeds. If they move towards each other, they meet in 4 hours. If they move in the same direction, they meet in 12 hours. What
    Answer: A — 60 km/h
    The correct answer is 60 km/h. Key Points - Moving toward each other, combined speed = 360/4 = 90 km/h, so x + y = 90. Moving the same way, the gap closes at the speed difference = 360/12 = 30 km/h, so x − y = 30. Adding the equations: 2x =
21. Q71: A circular pizza having a radius of 21 cm. If 75% of it is eaten, what is the area of pizza remaining?
    Answer: B — 346.36 cm²
    The correct answer is 346.36 cm². Key Points - Full area = π × 21² ≈ 3.14159 × 441 ≈ 1385.44 cm². - If 75% is eaten, 25% remains: 1385.44 × 0.25 ≈ 346.36 cm². - The fraction eaten applies to the whole area, so compute the total circle area
22. Q72: A ring-shaped disc has outer radius 10 cm and inner radius 7 cm. What is the approximate ratio of the ring's area to the whole outer circle?
    Answer: A — 1:2
    The correct answer is 1:2. Key Points - Ring (annulus) area = π(10² − 7²) = π(100 − 49) = 51π. - The whole outer circle = π × 10² = 100π. - Ratio = 51π : 100π ≈ 0.51 ≈ 1 : 2. - An annulus is the difference of two circles (outer² − inner²);
23. Q73: A bicycle wheel having a radius of 35 cm. What percentage of its circumference is covered in a quarter turn? (Use π = 22/7)
    Answer: B — 25%
    The correct answer is 25%. Key Points - A quarter turn sweeps one-fourth of the wheel's full rotation, and the arc covered is one-fourth of the circumference — 25% — regardless of the radius. - The radius and π are decoys here: 'a quarter t
24. Q74: The line y = mx + 5 passes through (1, 8). Find m.
    Answer: C — 3
    The correct answer is 3. Key Points - The line y = mx + 5 passes through (1, 8), so substitute: 8 = m(1) + 5 → m = 8 − 5 = 3. - To find a slope from a known point, plug the coordinates into the line equation and solve for m — one substituti
25. Q75: 31³ + 18³ - 37³ + 210 is equal to:
    Answer: B — -14820
    The correct answer is -14820. Key Points - Compute the cubes: 31³ = 29,791, 18³ = 5,832, 37³ = 50,653. - Then 29,791 + 5,832 − 50,653 + 210 = 35,623 − 50,653 + 210 = −14,820. - With no factoring shortcut available (the three bases don't sum

English Comprehension — Solved Questions

1. Q76: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: PERFIDIOUS
   Answer: C — Treacherous
   The correct answer is Treacherous. Key Points - 'Perfidious' means guilty of betrayal — deceitful, faithless, untrustworthy. - Its closest synonym is Treacherous. - Honest, faithful and loyal are all antonyms, so they cluster on the opposit
2. Q77: Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Hobson's choice
   Answer: C — No real choice at all
   The correct answer is No real choice at all. Key Points - A 'Hobson's choice' is a take-it-or-leave-it situation — you accept what is offered or get nothing, so there is no real alternative. - It comes from Thomas Hobson, a stable owner who
3. Q78: Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: Perfidious
   Answer: C — Loyal
   The correct answer is Loyal. Key Points - 'Perfidious' means treacherous or deceitful, so its antonym is Loyal — faithful and trustworthy. - Betraying, faithless and treacherous are synonyms of perfidious and act as decoys in an antonym que
4. Q79: Identify the misspelt word
   Answer: D — Quintessance
   The correct answer is Quintessance. Key Points - 'Quintessance' is the misspelt option; the correct spelling is 'Quintessence' (the purest embodiment of something). - Vicereine, Floccinaucinihilipilification and Defenestrate are all spelt c
5. Q80: Spot the correct spelling of a CSF-shunt procedure.
   Answer: A — Ventriculoperitoneal
   The correct answer is Ventriculoperitoneal. Key Points - The correct spelling is 'Ventriculoperitoneal' — the VP shunt, a neurosurgical procedure that drains cerebrospinal fluid from the brain's ventricles to the peritoneal cavity. - The di
6. Q81: Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'An official reprimand or strong criticism'.
   Answer: C — Censure
   The correct answer is Censure. Key Points - 'Censure' means to express severe, formal disapproval, which exactly fits 'an official reprimand or strong criticism'. - An accusation merely alleges wrongdoing, a denunciation is a public condemn
7. Q82: Select the correct option: The startup scaled so rapidly that its infrastructure could keep pace.
   Answer: A — barely
   The correct answer is barely. Key Points - 'Barely keep pace' means only just managing — almost failing to keep up — which fits infrastructure straining against rapid growth. - It is the most natural collocation here. - 'Merely' means only/
8. Q83: Select the correct option: Rare though the phenomenon is, it can occur prolonged drought conditions.
   Answer: D — under
   The correct answer is under. Key Points - The idiomatic preposition is 'under … conditions' — as in 'under drought conditions', 'under pressure', 'under certain circumstances'. - So the phenomenon can occur under prolonged drought condition
9. Q84: Select the correct option: While the proposal appeared pragmatic on paper, its implementation proved complicated than expected.
   Answer: B — more
   The correct answer is more. Key Points - The sentence sets up a contrast — 'appeared pragmatic' versus 'proved … complicated' — and the word 'than' later demands a comparative: 'more complicated than expected'. - 'Less' reverses the intende
10. Q85: Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: That the report failed to address the root causes (1)/ of the community unrest were surprising (2)/ given the exhaustive data (3)/ compiled over s
    Answer: B — (2)
    The correct answer is (2). Key Points - The subject is the noun clause 'That the report failed to address the root causes of the community unrest', which is singular, so the verb must be 'was surprising', not 'were surprising'. - The error
11. Q86: Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: What renders the draft legislation particularly contentious is not its proposed realignment of fiscal powers per se, (1)/ but that it presumes, wi
    Answer: B — (2)
    The correct answer is (2). Key Points - The sentence uses the correlative frame 'is not [A] but [B]', which demands parallel structures. - Part (1) supplies a noun phrase, 'its proposed realignment of fiscal powers per se'. - Part (2) break
12. Q87: Change the following from active to passive: They have been neglecting maintenance of the archives for years.
    Answer: D — Maintenance of the archives has been being neglected by them for years.
    The correct answer is Maintenance of the archives has been being neglected by them for years.. Key Points - The active verb is present-perfect continuous ('have been neglecting'). - Its passive equivalent is 'has/have been being + V3', givi
13. Q88: Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The choir began the introit at the priest's signal.
    Answer: A — The child sang the introit during the intermission.
    The correct answer is The child sang the introit during the intermission.. Key Points - A homonym reuses the word with a shifted meaning. - In the prompt, 'introit' is the liturgical psalm sung as the priest approaches the altar. - Options
14. Q89: Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: It was being suggested by multiple sources that the operation had been compromised internally.
    Answer: A — Multiple sources suggested the operation was compromised internally.
    The correct answer is Multiple sources suggested the operation was compromised internally.. Key Points - The passive 'It was being suggested by multiple sources that …' converts to active by making the doer the subject: 'Multiple sources su
15. Q90: According to the passage, how is wisdom primarily acquired?
    Answer: C — Through experience and reflection
    The correct answer is Through experience and reflection. Key Points - The passage states that wisdom 'is earned through trial, failure, reflection, and a nuanced understanding of human nature' — in short, through experience and reflection,
16. Q91: What does the author mean by "wisdom enriches the soul"?
    Answer: B — It fosters deeper moral insight
    The correct answer is It fosters deeper moral insight. Key Points - The line 'education equips the mind, but wisdom enriches the soul' contrasts intellectual acquisition with moral and ethical depth. 'Enriches the soul' therefore means it f
17. Q92: Who, according to the author, can be wise despite lacking formal education?
    Answer: C — Elders and artisans
    The correct answer is Elders and artisans. Key Points - The passage says plainly that 'many wise individuals — farmers, artisans, elders — may not possess formal education, but their decisions exhibit prudence.' So those who can be wise wit
18. Q93: What is the central contrast drawn in the passage?
    Answer: D — Formal learning vs. applied wisdom
    The correct answer is Formal learning vs. applied wisdom. Key Points - The whole passage sets formal education (systematic, institutional, measured by degrees) against wisdom (experiential, ethical, lifelong). - The central contrast is ther
19. Q94: According to the author, why has the gap between education and wisdom widened in recent times?
    Answer: C — Because of rote learning and algorithmic methods
    The correct answer is Because of rote learning and algorithmic methods. Key Points - The passage attributes the widening gap to modern conditions: 'educational institutions often prioritize rote memorization and standardized testing over cr
20. Q95: Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: She has the reputation [to be a kind woman].
    Answer: B — of being a kind woman
    The correct answer is of being a kind woman. Key Points - 'Reputation' is followed by 'of + gerund', not 'to + infinitive', so the correct phrase is 'reputation of being a kind woman'. - Option with 'the kind woman' wrongly implies one spec
21. Q96: Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: The doctor advised him [to avoid eating sweets and doing exercise regularly].
    Answer: C — to avoid eating sweets and to exercise regularly
    The correct answer is to avoid eating sweets and to exercise regularly. Key Points - 'Advised' takes a 'to + infinitive', and the two actions must be parallel: 'to avoid eating sweets and to exercise regularly'. - The distractors break para
22. Q97: A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. He asked me, "Have you done yo
    Answer: A — He asked me if I had done my homework.
    The correct answer is He asked me if I had done my homework.. Key Points - Reporting a yes/no question uses 'if/whether' and shifts the tense back: present perfect 'Have you done' → past perfect 'had done', with 'you' → 'I' and statement wo
23. Q98: A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. He said that he would join the meet
    Answer: A — I will join the meeting after lunch, he said.
    The correct answer is I will join the meeting after lunch, he said.. Key Points - In indirect speech 'would' is the back-shifted form of 'will'. - Converting back to direct speech restores 'will': 'I will join the meeting after lunch,' he s
24. Q99: Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage: 1. A media strategy was framed based on outreach results. 2. Demographic metrics were tracked from campaign dashboards. 3.
    Answer: A — 3-2-4-1
    The correct answer is 3-2-4-1. Key Points - The logical data-to-strategy flow is: collect user interactions (3) → track demographic metrics (2) → segment users by age and behaviour (4) → frame the media strategy from the results (1). - Coll
25. Q100: Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. It is a process that involves the systematic and objective investigation of a subject to discover new facts or to confirm existing on
    Answer: A — 2, 1, 3, 4
    The correct answer is 2, 1, 3, 4. Key Points - The coherent order runs general → specific: introduce research as a foundational pillar (2) → define it as systematic investigation (1) → classify it (theoretical or applied) (3) → describe doc

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are there in the SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 12 Sep 2025 (Shift 1)?

The SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 12 Sep 2025 (Shift 1) has 100 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

When was the SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 12 Sep 2025 (Shift 1) held?

The SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 12 Sep 2025 (Shift 1) was held on 12 September 2025.

Is there negative marking in SSC CGL 2025?

Yes. SSC CGL deducts 0.5 marks for every wrong answer, so accuracy matters as much as attempting more questions.

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Yes. Every question in this paper includes the correct answer and a detailed, step-by-step explanation, free of cost and without login.

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Yes. You can attempt the full paper online in a timed, exam-like interface, and get your score with solutions immediately after submitting.