JKSSB Constable (Telecommunication) 2024 — Set A — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

General English — Solved Questions

1. Q1: Choose the correct alternative out of the four. It was very kind of you to do the washing-up, but you it.
   Answer: D — mustn't have done
   The correct answer is didn't have to do. Key Points - "Didn't have to" states that an action was not necessary — which is exactly what the first clause implies: the washing-up was a kindness, not an obligation. - The sentence cont
2. Q2: Find out which part of a sentence has an error. After knowing truth, (a)/ they took the right decision (b)/ in the matter. (c)/ No error (d)
   Answer: A — a
   The correct answer is a. Key Points - Part (a), "After knowing truth", is wrong: truth here refers to one specific, known fact, so it needs the definite article — After knowing the truth. - Abstract nouns such as truth, sky, weath
3. Q3: Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence. Prohibited by law or treaty from being imported or exported
   Answer: A — contraband
   The correct answer is contraband. Key Points - Contraband means goods that are forbidden by law or treaty from being imported or exported, or from being possessed at all. - The word covers the goods themselves, which is precisely what the d
4. Q4: Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. Inclement
   Answer: C — Unfavourable
   The correct answer is Unfavourable. Key Points - Inclement describes weather that is harsh, severe or unfavourable — cold, stormy or wet. - It can also describe a person who is unmerciful or severe, though the weather sense is far more comm
5. Q5: Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. Perspicuity
   Answer: A — Vagueness
   The correct answer is Vagueness. Key Points - Perspicuity means clarity of expression — the quality of being easily and precisely understood. - Its direct opposite is therefore vagueness, the quality of being unclear or imprecise. - Dullnes
6. Q6: Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If you turn the corner, (a)/ you will found a house (b)/ built of stone. (c)/ No Error (d)
   Answer: B — b
   The correct answer is b. Key Points - Part (b), "you will found a house", is wrong. After the modal will, English requires the bare infinitive — will find, never will found. - Found is the past tense of find; a past form can never
7. Q7: Fill in the blank. Everyone in this world is accountable to God his actions.
   Answer: B — for
   The correct answer is for. Key Points - The fixed collocation is accountable to someone for something. - The person or authority one answers to takes to (here, God); the thing one answers about takes for (here, his actions). - Since his act
8. Q8: Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence. A person who shows off his learning
   Answer: A — pedant
   The correct answer is pedant. Key Points - A pedant is a person who makes an ostentatious display of learning, or who fusses excessively over minor rules and details. - The definition's emphasis on showing off is the decisive clue. - An edu
9. Q9: Out of four words, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
   Answer: A — dysentery
   The correct answer is dysentery. Key Points - Dysentery is the correct spelling — an infection of the intestines producing severe diarrhoea with blood or mucus. - The other three are all misspelt: - momentery → correct spelling is momentary
10. Q10: Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase. to smell a rat
    Answer: D — to be suspicious
    The correct answer is to be suspicious. Key Points - The idiom "to smell a rat" means to suspect that something is wrong, dishonest or being concealed. - It is used when there is no proof yet, only a strong instinct that something
11. Q11: Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase. To let off steam, my friend started murmuring.
    Answer: B — to show his anger
    The correct answer is to show his anger. Key Points - The idiom "to let off steam" means to release pent-up emotion — most often anger or frustration — through some harmless outlet. - In this sentence the outlet is murmuring: the
12. Q12: Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. She is a very good sprinter. I can't run as fast as she does.
    Answer: D — no improvement
    The correct answer is no improvement. Key Points - The underlined part, "as fast as she does", is already grammatically correct and needs no change. - The structure for comparing two things of equal degree is as + adjective/adverb
13. Q13: Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. To express in an unclear way
    Answer: B — garbled
    The correct answer is garbled. Key Points - Garbled means expressed in a confused, distorted or unclear way, so that the original meaning is hard to recover. - It commonly describes a message, transmission or account that has been jumbled i
14. Q14: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The sky is quite overcast. We're to have rain today.
    Answer: A — likely
    The correct answer is likely. Key Points - "Be likely to" is the standard structure for expressing probability before a verb — We're likely to have rain. - The first sentence, "The sky is quite overcast", offers evidence
15. Q15: Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. The trouble makers took to their heels when they saw the police coming.
    Answer: B — ran away
    The correct answer is ran away. Key Points - The idiom "to take to one's heels" means to run away quickly, usually to escape. - The context confirms it: the trouble makers reacted to seeing the police coming, so flight is the natu

General Knowledge (J&K) — Solved Questions

1. Q16: Which is the largest city in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
   Answer: B — Srinagar
   The correct answer is Srinagar. Key Points - Srinagar is the largest city in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir by both population and urban area. - It serves as the summer capital of the UT and sits on the banks of the Jhelum river i
2. Q18: Gulmarg hill station lies in
   Answer: B — Pir Panjal Range
   The correct answer is Pir Panjal Range. Key Points - Gulmarg lies in the Pir Panjal Range, the largest range of the Lesser Himalayas, in Baramulla district of Jammu and Kashmir. - The Pir Panjal separates the Kashmir Valley from the plains
3. Q19: Which of the following is known as the 'Valley of Shepherds'?
   Answer: A — Pahalgam
   The correct answer is Pahalgam. Key Points - Pahalgam is known as the "Valley of Shepherds", a direct translation of its name in Kashmiri. - It lies in Anantnag district at the confluence of the Lidder river and Sheshnag Lake stre
4. Q20: King Harsha belongs to which dynasty of Kashmir?
   Answer: A — Lohara
   The correct answer is Lohara. Key Points - King Harsha of Kashmir (reigned 1089–1101 CE) belonged to the Lohara dynasty. - His reign is described in Kalhana's Rajatarangini, the classic Sanskrit chronicle of the kings of Kashmir. - The Kark

General Knowledge & Current Affairs — Solved Questions

1. Q17: Which river is primarily allocated to Pakistan under the Indus Water Treaty?
   Answer: A — Indus
   The correct answer is Indus. Key Points - Under the Indus Waters Treaty (1960), the three western rivers — Indus, Jhelum and Chenab — were allocated primarily to Pakistan. - The three eastern rivers — Ravi, Beas and Sutlej — were allocated
2. Q21: Which of the peak given in the choices is NOT one among the top 5 mountain peaks in India?
   Answer: A — Trisul
   The correct answer is Trisul. Key Points - Trisul (about 7,120 m) does not feature among India's five highest peaks. - The top five are Kangchenjunga (8,586 m), Nanda Devi (7,816 m), Kamet (7,756 m), Saltoro Kangri (7,742 m) and Saser Kangr
3. Q22: The book titled "Memories Never Die" was published as a tribute to whom?
   Answer: A — Abdul Kalam
   The correct answer is Abdul Kalam. Key Points - The JKSSB answer key marks Option A, Abdul Kalam, for the book titled "Memories Never Die". - Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (1931-2015) served as the 11th President of India from 2002 to 20
4. Q23: Match the following Gold winning Paralympic athletes (Paris 2024) to the sports they were associated with: 1. Avani Lekhara — i. High Jump 2. Praveen Kumar — ii. Archery 3. Nitesh Kumar — iii. Shootin
   Answer: A — 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
   The correct answer is 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii. Key Points - Avani Lekhara — Shooting (iii): retained her 10 m air rifle standing SH1 title at Paris 2024, becoming the first Indian woman to win two Paralympic golds. - Praveen Kumar — High Jum
5. Q24: In which year was English announced as the official language of the Government throughout India?
   Answer: C — 1835
   The correct answer is 1835. Key Points - English was declared the official language of the Government throughout India by the English Education Act of 1835. - The Act followed Macaulay's Minute on Indian Education (February 1835), which arg
6. Q25: Who among the given options, had been conferred with the three Padma Awards and the Bharat Ratna Award as well?
   Answer: B — Bismillah Khan
   The correct answer is Bismillah Khan. Key Points - Ustad Bismillah Khan, the shehnai maestro, received all three Padma awards and the Bharat Ratna: - Padma Shri (1961) - Padma Bhushan (1968) - Padma Vibhushan (1980) - Bharat Ratna (2001) -
7. Q26: Match the following Countries to its currency. 1. Russia — i. Peso 2. Chile — ii. Kyat 3. Georgia — iii. Ruble 4. Myanmar — iv. Lari Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
   Answer: A — 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
   The correct answer is 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii. Key Points - Russia — Ruble (iii) - Chile — Peso (i) - Georgia — Lari (iv) - Myanmar — Kyat (ii) Additional Information - The peso is shared across much of Latin America — Chile, Mexico, Argenti
8. Q27: The concept of the concurrent list in the Indian Constitution was adopted from the
   Answer: C — Australian Constitution
   The correct answer is Australian Constitution. Key Points - The Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of Australia. - It appears as List III of the Seventh Schedule and covers subjects on which both P
9. Q28: Match the following Dams to the rivers on which it is situated: 1. Sardar Sarovar — i. Mahanadi 2. Hirakud — ii. Periyar 3. Bhakra Nangal — iii. Narmada 4. Idukki — iv. Sutlej Which of the pairs given
   Answer: A — 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
   The correct answer is 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii. Key Points - Sardar Sarovar — Narmada (iii), in Gujarat. - Hirakud — Mahanadi (i), in Odisha. - Bhakra Nangal — Sutlej (iv), on the Himachal–Punjab border. - Idukki — Periyar (ii), in Kerala. Ad
10. Q29: Of the following, which is India's highest dam?
    Answer: B — Tehri Dam
    The correct answer is Tehri Dam. Key Points - The Tehri Dam on the Bhagirathi river in Uttarakhand is India's highest dam at about 260.5 m. - It is a rock-and-earth-fill embankment dam and ranks among the tallest dams in the world. - Bhakra
11. Q30: Match the following International organization to its Headquarters. 1. INTERPOL — i. Lyon, France 2. WWF — ii. Montreal, Canada 3. EU — iii. Vaud, Switzerland 4. ICAO — iv. Brussels, Belgium Match the
    Answer: B — 1-i, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-ii
    The correct answer is 1-i, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-ii. Key Points - INTERPOL — Lyon, France (i) - WWF — Vaud, Switzerland (iii), at Gland near Geneva. - EU — Brussels, Belgium (iv) - ICAO — Montreal, Canada (ii) Additional Information - ICAO is a sp
12. Q31: SAARC Arbitration Council (SARCO) is situated in
    Answer: B — Pakistan
    The correct answer is Pakistan. Key Points - The SAARC Arbitration Council (SARCO) is headquartered in Islamabad, Pakistan. - It is a SAARC regional body set up to provide a legal framework for the fair and efficient settlement of commercia
13. Q32: Match the 2024 Nobel Prize Award winners to their field: 1. John Hopfield — i. Chemistry 2. David Baker — ii. Medicine 3. Gary Ruvkun — iii. Physics 4. Han Kang — iv. Literature Choose the correct opt
    Answer: D — 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv
    The correct answer is 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv. Key Points - John Hopfield — Physics (iii): shared the 2024 Physics Nobel with Geoffrey Hinton for foundational work on machine learning with artificial neural networks. - David Baker — Chemistr
14. Q33: Match the International newspaper to its base country: 1. The Guardian — i. China 2. The People's Daily — ii. Russia 3. El Pais — iii. United Kingdom 4. Kommersant — iv. Spain Choose the correct optio
    Answer: A — 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
    The correct answer is 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii. Key Points - The Guardian — United Kingdom (iii) - The People's Daily — China (i), the official newspaper of the Communist Party of China. - El Pais — Spain (iv), Spain's highest-circulation dai
15. Q34: In which year, Indus Water Treaty was signed?
    Answer: C — 1960
    The correct answer is 1960. Key Points - The Indus Waters Treaty was signed on 19 September 1960 in Karachi. - Signatories were Jawaharlal Nehru for India and President Ayub Khan for Pakistan, with the World Bank as a party and broker. - Ne
16. Q35: What was the mascot for the Khelo India Winter Games, 2024?
    Answer: A — Snow Leopard
    The correct answer is Snow Leopard. Key Points - The mascot of the Khelo India Winter Games 2024 was the snow leopard, chosen for its association with the high-altitude Himalayan habitat where the Games are staged. - The 2024 edition was he

Numerical & Reasoning Ability — Solved Questions

1. Q36: If the price of the commodity is increased by 50% by what fraction must its consumption be reduced so as to keep the same expenditure on its consumption?
   Answer: B — 1/3
   The correct answer is 1/3. Key Points - Expenditure = Price x Consumption. To hold expenditure constant when price rises, consumption must fall in the inverse proportion. - Let the original price be 100 and consumption be 100, so expenditur
2. Q37: The average weight of a group of seven boys is 56 kg. The individual weights (in kg) of six of them are 52, 57, 55, 60, 59 and 55. Find the weight of the seventh boy.
   Answer: B — 54 Kg
   The correct answer is 54 Kg. Key Points - Total weight of the seven boys = average x number = 56 x 7 = 392 kg. - Sum of the six known weights = 52 + 57 + 55 + 60 + 59 + 55 = 338 kg. - Weight of the seventh boy = 392 - 338 = 54 kg. Additiona
3. Q38: The number of students in 3 classes is in the ratio of 2:3:4. If 12 students are increased in each class this ratio changes to 8 : 11 : 14. The total number of students in the three classes in the beg
   Answer: A — 162
   The correct answer is 162. Key Points - Let the original strengths be 2x, 3x and 4x. - After adding 12 to each class: (2x + 12) : (3x + 12) : (4x + 12) = 8 : 11 : 14. - Equating the first two ratios: 11(2x + 12) = 8(3x + 12) → 22x + 132 = 2
4. Q39: A man riding a bicycle covers a distance of 60 km in the direction of the wind and returns back in 8 hours. If speed of the wind is 10 km/hour, find the speed of the bicycle.
   Answer: C — 20 km/hour
   The correct answer is 20 km/hour. Key Points - Let the bicycle's own speed be b km/h. With the wind it travels at (b + 10), against it at (b - 10). - Total time for the 60 km each way is 8 hours: 60/(b + 10) + 60/(b - 10) = 8. - Combining:
5. Q40: (0.08 × 0.007) is equal to
   Answer: C — 0.00056
   The correct answer is 0.00056. Key Points - Multiply the digits, ignoring the decimal points: 8 x 7 = 56. - Count the decimal places in the operands: 0.08 has 2 and 0.007 has 3, giving a total of 5. - The product must therefore carry 5 deci
6. Q41: Determine the number of months required to get Rs. 25.5 as simple interest on Rs. 850 at 3.6% per annum.
   Answer: A — 10 months
   The correct answer is 10 months. Key Points - Simple Interest formula: SI = (P x R x T) / 100. - Substituting P = 850, R = 3.6 and SI = 25.5: 25.5 = (850 x 3.6 x T) / 100. - 850 x 3.6 = 3,060, so 25.5 = 30.6T → T = 0.8333 years. - Convertin
7. Q42: Find the missing number in the following series: 10, 100, 200, 310, ?
   Answer: A — 430
   The correct answer is 430. Key Points - Examine the successive differences: 100 - 10 = 90, 200 - 100 = 100, 310 - 200 = 110. - The differences themselves increase by a constant 10, so the next difference is 120. - Therefore the missing term
8. Q43: Find the missing letters in the following sequence in the correct order abca bcaab ca bbc
   Answer: B — abac
   The correct answer is abac. Key Points - The sequence is abcabcaabcabbc, with four blanks to be filled in order. - Filling them with a, b, a, c gives the complete string: abcaabcaabbcaabbcc. - That string breaks into a progressive pattern o
9. Q44: If in a certain language PROSE is coded as PPOQE, how is LIGHT coded in that code?
   Answer: C — LGGFT
   The correct answer is LGGFT. Key Points - Compare PROSE with its code PPOQE, letter by letter: - P → P (unchanged), R → P (-2), O → O (unchanged), S → Q (-2), E → E (unchanged) - The rule is therefore: the 2nd and 4th letters move back by t
10. Q45: Introducing a woman, a man said, "Her husband is the only son of my father". How is that woman related to the man?
    Answer: C — Wife
    The correct answer is Wife. Key Points - The man says the woman's husband is "the only son of my father". - "The only son of my father" can only be the speaker himself — since he is his father's sole son, no brother exis
11. Q46: Find the odd one out from the given set of numbers. 14, 28, 35, 46, 56, 84
    Answer: D — 46
    The correct answer is 46. Key Points - Test each number for divisibility by 7: 14 = 7 x 2, 28 = 7 x 4, 35 = 7 x 5, 56 = 7 x 8, 84 = 7 x 12. - 46 is not a multiple of 7 — 7 x 6 = 42 and 7 x 7 = 49, so 46 falls between them. - Every other num
12. Q47: Which group of letters is different from others?
    Answer: D — TVWYZ
    The correct answer is TVWYZ. Key Points - Examine the letters in each group against the alphabet: - CBAED uses A, B, C, D, E — five consecutive letters. - IJHGK uses G, H, I, J, K — five consecutive letters. - SRQPT uses P, Q, R, S, T — fiv
13. Q48: For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) below, choose the correct alternative Assertion (A): Simla is colder than Delhi. Reason (R): Simla is at a higher altitude as compared to Delhi.
    Answer: A — Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    The correct answer is Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Key Points - Assertion (A) is true: Shimla is indeed colder than Delhi. - Reason (R) is true: Shimla sits at roughly 2,200 m above sea level, while Delhi is
14. Q62: Classify the angle as acute, right, obtuse, straight: List I — (a), (b), (c), (d) (figures as printed in the booklet) List II — (i) Acute (ii) Right (iii) Straight (iv) Obtuse Match I with II.
    Answer: C — a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
    The correct answer is a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii. Key Points - Reading the four figures in List I against the angle types in List II: - (a) — Right angle (ii): the two rays meet at exactly 90°, marked in the figure by the small square at the ve
15. Q63: Two statements are followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III, IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then dec
    Answer: A — Only II and IV follow
    The correct answer is Only II and IV follow. Key Points - The statements are: All stars are planets and All planets are trees. - Conclusion II — All stars are trees: valid. Stars are contained within planets, and planets within trees, so st

Technical / Telecommunication — Solved Questions

1. Q49: The modulator stage in a radio transmitter is normally
   Answer: A — Class-C Amplifier
   The correct answer is Class-C Amplifier. Key Points - The official JKSSB answer key marks Option A, Class-C Amplifier. - In a classical AM transmitter the final RF stage is modulated, and that stage is operated in Class-C because it deliver
2. Q50: In television, 4 : 3 represents the
   Answer: C — Aspect Ratio
   The correct answer is Aspect Ratio. Key Points - In television, 4 : 3 denotes the aspect ratio — the ratio of the picture's width to its height. - It means the image is 4 units wide for every 3 units tall, the standard format of analogue an
3. Q51: In T.V., the picture signal is
   Answer: A — Amplitude modulated and at the low-frequency end of each channel allocation
   The correct answer is Amplitude modulated and at the low-frequency end of each channel allocation. Key Points - The picture (video) signal in television is amplitude modulated, and it is placed at the low-frequency end of the channel alloca
4. Q52: A PAM signal can be demodulated using
   Answer: C — A Low pass filter
   The correct answer is A Low pass filter. Key Points - A PAM (Pulse Amplitude Modulation) signal is demodulated by passing it through a low pass filter. - The sampled pulse train contains the original baseband signal plus repeated spectral i
5. Q53: In time-division-multiplexing, each multiplexed signal occupies;
   Answer: B — The Entire Transmission Bandwidth
   The correct answer is The Entire Transmission Bandwidth. Key Points - In Time Division Multiplexing (TDM), each signal is given the entire transmission bandwidth, but only for its own allotted time slot. - The channels are separated in time
6. Q54: What will be the upper sideband and lower sideband frequencies for amplitude modulation of a 5-kHz signal with 40-kHz carrier frequency?
   Answer: B — 45 kHz and 35 kHz, respectively
   The correct answer is 45 kHz and 35 kHz, respectively. Key Points - In amplitude modulation the sidebands are formed by adding and subtracting the modulating frequency from the carrier frequency. - Upper sideband (USB) = carrier + modulatin
7. Q55: In FM to AM conversion, the input of the frequency-modulated signal converted into amplitude modulated signal by
   Answer: A — Differentiator
   The correct answer is Differentiator. Key Points - FM-to-AM conversion is performed by a differentiator. - Differentiating a frequency-modulated wave produces an output whose amplitude is proportional to the instantaneous frequency of the i
8. Q56: Pulse amplitude modulation is a process whereby;
   Answer: C — The height of a pulse is made proportional to the sampled value
   The correct answer is The height of a pulse is made proportional to the sampled value. Key Points - In Pulse Amplitude Modulation (PAM), the amplitude (height) of each pulse is made proportional to the instantaneous value of the sampled mes
9. Q57: The amplitude modulation signal without a carrier is known as
   Answer: B — DSB-SC
   The correct answer is DSB-SC. Key Points - DSB-SC stands for Double Sideband Suppressed Carrier — an amplitude-modulated signal transmitted without its carrier. - The carrier itself conveys no information, so suppressing it saves a large sh
10. Q58: Choose the incorrect statement
    Answer: C — SMPS has low input ripple
    The correct answer is SMPS has low input ripple. Key Points - The question asks for the incorrect statement. SMPS units have high input ripple, not low, because the switching action draws current in sharp pulses. - The other three statement
11. Q59: The magnetic field produced in the stator of a three phase induction motor travels at
    Answer: B — Synchronous speed
    The correct answer is Synchronous speed. Key Points - The magnetic field produced by the stator of a three-phase induction motor rotates at synchronous speed. - Synchronous speed is given by Ns = 120f / P, where f is the supply frequency an
12. Q60: Alternating Current (AC) cannot be measured by DC ammeter because:
    Answer: B — Average value of complete cycle is zero
    The correct answer is Average value of complete cycle is zero. Key Points - A DC ammeter responds to the average value of the current passing through it. - Over one complete cycle, an alternating current spends equal time positive and negat
13. Q61: What is a common use of a Band Pass Filter in Radio Wave Propagation?
    Answer: A — It allows only a specific range of frequencies to pass through
    The correct answer is It allows only a specific range of frequencies to pass through. Key Points - A Band Pass Filter (BPF) passes frequencies lying between a lower and an upper cut-off, and attenuates everything outside that band. - In rad
14. Q74: If the wiring in a building has a 2.4 kW load, what will be the permissible insulation resistance to earth for a 240 V system of supply?
    Answer: D — 0.12 MΩ
    The correct answer is 0.12 MΩ. Key Points - Full-load current of the installation: I = P / V = 2400 / 240 = 10 A. - Indian Electricity Rules permit a leakage current no greater than 1/5000 of the maximum supply current: 10 / 5000 = 0.002 A.
15. Q75: A 3-Phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 5% slip. The frequency of induced rotor emf will be
    Answer: B — 2.5 Hz
    The correct answer is 2.5 Hz. Key Points - The frequency of the induced rotor EMF is the slip frequency: fr = s x f. - Here the slip s = 5% = 0.05 and the supply frequency f = 50 Hz. - Therefore fr = 0.05 x 50 = 2.5 Hz. Additional Informati
16. Q76: The permanent wiring systems most preferably used for residential and commercial applications. I. CTS II. TRS III. Cleat IV. Conduit Choose the correct answer.
    Answer: C — I, II and IV
    The correct answer is I, II and IV. Key Points - The permanent wiring systems preferred for residential and commercial installations are: - I. CTS — Cab Tyre Sheathed wiring (also called TRS or batten wiring) - II. TRS — Tough Rubber Sheath
17. Q77: The minimum clearance of the High Voltage (HV) line from the ground across the road should be
    Answer: A — 6.1 m
    The correct answer is 6.1 m. Key Points - The minimum ground clearance for a High Voltage (HV) line crossing a road is 6.1 metres, as laid down in the Indian Electricity Rules. - The larger clearance over roadways allows tall vehicles to pa
18. Q78: If the supply voltage of a 3-phase induction motor is increased two times, then, torque is
    Answer: B — Increased 4 times
    The correct answer is Increased 4 times. Key Points - In an induction motor the torque is directly proportional to the square of the applied voltage: T ∝ V². - If the supply voltage is doubled, the torque increases by a factor of 2² = 4. -
19. Q79: At start, the following information is correct for induction motor. I. Speed = 0 II. Slip = 0.5 III. Slip = 1 IV. Slip = 0 Choose the correct answer.
    Answer: C — I and III
    The correct answer is I and III. Key Points - At the instant of starting, the rotor has not yet begun to turn, so Speed = 0 (statement I is correct). - Slip is defined as s = (Ns - N) / Ns. With N = 0 this gives s = Ns / Ns = 1 (statement I
20. Q80: Match the term in column-1 with its closest meaning in column-2. Column-1 i. Lenz's law ii. Electric generator iii. High permeability iv. Reluctance Column-2 1. Application of electromagnetic inductio
    Answer: A — i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
    The correct answer is i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3. Key Points - Lenz's law — 2 (Polarity of induced voltage): it fixes the direction of the induced EMF, which always opposes the change producing it. - Electric generator — 1 (Application of elect
21. Q81: What is the transmission frequency range of FM radio?
    Answer: B — 88-108 MHz
    The correct answer is 88-108 MHz. Key Points - Commercial FM radio broadcasting occupies the band from 88 MHz to 108 MHz. - This band lies within VHF (Very High Frequency), which spans 30 MHz to 300 MHz. - The width of the band is 20 MHz, a
22. Q82: Consider the following statements: Statement (I): In AM systems the modulation index (0 < m < 1) should be high. Statement (II): The higher the value of m, the greater the power in the sidebands
    Answer: A — Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I).
    The correct answer is Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I). Key Points - Statement (I) is true: the modulation index should be kept high (close to 1 witho
23. Q83: The correct sequence of subsystems in an FM receiver is:
    Answer: C — RF amplifier → mixer → IF amplifier → limiter → discriminator → audio amplifier
    The correct answer is RF amplifier → mixer → IF amplifier → limiter → discriminator → audio amplifier. Key Points - The correct order in a superheterodyne FM receiver is: 1. RF amplifier — amplifies the incoming signal and rejects the image
24. Q84: Which of the following is NOT a method for generating FM?
    Answer: C — By switching modulator
    The correct answer is By switching modulator. Key Points - A switching modulator is a method of generating amplitude modulation, not frequency modulation, so it is the odd one out. - The genuine FM generation methods among the options are:
25. Q85: The ionosphere acts as the reflecting surface for the waves in which of the following modes of propagation?
    Answer: C — Sky wave
    The correct answer is Sky wave. Key Points - In sky wave propagation the transmitted wave travels upward, is refracted back to earth by the ionosphere, and so reaches receivers far beyond the horizon. - Ground wave propagation follows the c
26. Q86: RF carrier 15 kV at 1 MHz is amplitude modulated and modulation index is 0.8. Find the peak voltage of the signal.
    Answer: B — 12 kV
    The correct answer is 12 kV. Key Points - The modulation index is defined as m = Vm / Vc, where Vm is the peak of the modulating signal and Vc the peak of the carrier. - Rearranging: Vm = m x Vc. - Substituting the given values: Vm = 0.8 x
27. Q87: One of the main functions of the RF amplifier in a superheterodyne receiver is to:
    Answer: D — Improve the rejection of the image frequency
    The correct answer is Improve the rejection of the image frequency. Key Points - The principal function of the RF amplifier in a superheterodyne receiver is to improve image frequency rejection. - The image frequency lies 2 x IF away from t
28. Q88: Which of the following statements about the matched filter in a communication receiver are correct? I. It produces ISI. II. It maximizes the SNR at the detection instant. III. Its impulse response dep
    Answer: A — II and III only
    The correct answer is II and III only. Key Points - II is correct: the defining property of a matched filter is that it maximises the signal-to-noise ratio at the sampling (detection) instant. - III is correct: its impulse response is the t
29. Q89: Match List-X (Modulation/Reception Techniques) with List-Y (Disadvantages) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-X i. Superheterodyne ii. FM iii. PCM iv. Delta modu
    Answer: B — i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
    The correct answer is i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2. Key Points - Superheterodyne — 3 (Image frequency interference): its characteristic weakness, since a signal 2 x IF away produces the same intermediate frequency as the wanted station. - FM — 1
30. Q90: Match List-X (Frequencies) with List-Y (Range) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-X i. Audio Frequency (AF) ii. Intermediate Frequency (IF) iii. Radio Frequency
    Answer: C — i-2, ii-3, iii-1
    The correct answer is i-2, ii-3, iii-1. Key Points - Audio Frequency (AF) — 2 (20 Hz to 20 kHz): the range of human hearing. - Intermediate Frequency (IF) — 3 (10 MHz to 108 MHz): the fixed frequency to which incoming signals are converted
31. Q91: In TV transmission, the picture signal is amplitude-modulated and the sound signal is frequency-modulated. This is done because
    Answer: B — bandwidth requirement is minimized
    The correct answer is bandwidth requirement is minimized. Key Points - The video signal occupies a very wide baseband — up to about 5 MHz. Frequency modulating it would require several times that bandwidth, which no television channel could
32. Q92: The colour TV picture signal is a
    Answer: D — single-channel, three-dimensional signal
    The correct answer is single - channel, three - dimensional signal. Key Points - The official JKSSB answer key marks Option D. - On this reading the colour TV picture signal is treated as one composite channel — a single waveform transmitte
33. Q93: Which of the following statements is correct regarding induction motor?
    Answer: B — 1-phase induction motors produce low starting torque, whereas 3-phase induction motors produce high starting torque
    The correct answer is 1-phase induction motors produce low starting torque, whereas 3-phase induction motors produce high starting torque. Key Points - A single-phase induction motor is not self-starting: its single winding produces a pulsa
34. Q94: For a dipole antenna
    Answer: C — the radiation intensity is maximum along the normal to the dipole axis
    The correct answer is the radiation intensity is maximum along the normal to the dipole axis. Key Points - A dipole antenna radiates most strongly in the direction perpendicular (normal) to its own axis, producing the familiar doughnut-shap
35. Q95: Match List-X (Medium type) with List-Y (Frequency range) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-X i. Open wire ii. Twisted pair iii. Coaxial cable List-Y 1. 100 KHz
    Answer: B — i-3, ii-1, iii-2
    The correct answer is i-3, ii-1, iii-2. Key Points - Open wire — 3 (5 kHz): the oldest transmission medium, an untwisted parallel pair, usable only at very low frequencies before radiation losses and crosstalk dominate. - Twisted pair — 1 (
36. Q96: Fill in the blank. "The generation of single sideband suppressed carrier (SSB-SC) signal is done by discrimination methods."
    Answer: C — Both A and B
    The correct answer is Both A and B. Key Points - SSB-SC signals can be generated by both phase discrimination and frequency discrimination methods. - The phase discrimination (phase-shift) method uses two balanced modulators fed with signal
37. Q97: Which of the following best describes interlaced scanning in a picture tube?
    Answer: B — Scanning odd lines first and then even lines in two passes
    The correct answer is Scanning odd lines first and then even lines in two passes. Key Points - In interlaced scanning, each frame is divided into two fields: the first sweeps all the odd-numbered lines, and the second fills in the even-numb
38. Q98: Match the following terms with their correct descriptions and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List-X i. Progressive scanning ii. SSB iii. UHF iv. Negative picture puls
    Answer: C — i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4
    The correct answer is i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4. Key Points - Progressive scanning — 2: scans each line in sequence, in one pass. - SSB — 1: transmits only one sideband of the signal. - UHF — 3: the Ultra High Frequency band, 300 MHz to 3 GHz.
39. Q99: Which of the following is true about a composite video signal?
    Answer: A — It includes audio, colour, and sync information in one signal
    The correct answer is It includes audio, colour, and sync information in one signal. Key Points - A composite video signal combines all the components needed to reconstruct the picture into a single waveform: the luminance (brightness), the
40. Q100: Match the following terms with their correct descriptions and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List-X i. VHF ii. UHF iii. HF iv. SHF List-Y 1. Commonly used for FM radi
    Answer: D — i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
    The correct answer is i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4. Key Points - VHF — 1: Very High Frequency, 30-300 MHz, commonly used for FM radio and television channels. - UHF — 2: Ultra High Frequency, 300 MHz-3 GHz, used in cellular networks and TV broadc

Basic Concepts of Computers — Solved Questions

1. Q64: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list List I i. Monitor ii. CPU iii. Information List II 1. Displays the information in the visual form 2. Proces
   Answer: A — i-1, ii-2, iii-3
   The correct answer is i-1, ii-2, iii-3. Key Points - Monitor — 1: an output device that displays information in visual form on screen. - CPU — 2: the Central Processing Unit, the processor that controls operations and executes instructions.
2. Q65: Which one of the following is not a type of magnetic storage system?
   Answer: B — Compact disk
   The correct answer is Compact disk. Key Points - A compact disk (CD) is an optical storage medium, not a magnetic one — data is written and read using a laser beam that detects pits and lands on the disc surface. - Magnetic tape, hard disk
3. Q66: Which of the following device is not a media input device to computer?
   Answer: C — Digital Camera
   The correct answer is Digital Camera. Key Points - The official JKSSB answer key marks Option C, Digital Camera, treating it as a device that primarily captures and stores images for later transfer rather than feeding media into the compute
4. Q67: The functions of operating systems are i. Process management ii. Memory management iii. File management iv. Device management Choose the correct Answer
   Answer: D — i, ii, iii, iv
   The correct answer is i, ii, iii, iv. Key Points - All four listed functions belong to the operating system: - Process management — creating, scheduling and terminating processes, and allocating CPU time. - Memory management — allocating an
5. Q68: Which of the following is not an output device?
   Answer: A — Scanner
   The correct answer is Scanner. Key Points - A scanner is an input device: it reads a physical document or photograph and converts it into a digital image that is sent into the computer. - Plotter, printer and projector all take data from th
6. Q69: Which of the following is a spreadsheet application program?
   Answer: C — MS Excel
   The correct answer is MS Excel. Key Points - MS Excel is the spreadsheet application in the Microsoft Office suite, organising data into rows and columns of cells for calculation, charting and analysis. - MS Word is a word processor for doc
7. Q70: Match List-I with List-II and Select the correct answer using the codes given below the list List I i. Operating System ii. Input Device iii. Output Device List II 1. Scanning Devices 2. Security Mana
   Answer: C — i-2, ii-1, iii-3
   The correct answer is i-2, ii-1, iii-3. Key Points - Operating System — 2 (Security Management): among the OS's core duties is controlling access, authenticating users and protecting data. - Input Device — 1 (Scanning Devices): scanners fee
8. Q71: Which one of the following is typed in the Run dialog box to access MS Word?
   Answer: A — Winword
   The correct answer is Winword. Key Points - Typing winword in the Run dialog box (opened with Windows key + R) launches Microsoft Word. - The command corresponds to the program's executable file, winword.exe. - Word, Msword and Wordprogram
9. Q72: is the widely used service of the through which users can send and receive messages in an efficient way. Choose the correct answer to fill in the blanks.
   Answer: C — E-mail, Internet
   The correct answer is E-mail, Internet. Key Points - E-mail (electronic mail) is the widely used service, and the Internet is the network through which it operates. - The sentence structure requires a service in the first blank and a networ
10. Q73: What are the options available in home page of google.com search engine in computer (Mozilla Firefox)? I. Google Search II. I'm Feeling Lucky III. Search Text Box Choose the correct answer.
    Answer: D — I, II, III
    The correct answer is I, II, III. Key Points - The Google home page presents all three of the listed elements: - Search Text Box — where the query is typed. - Google Search — the button that runs the search. - I'm Feeling Lucky — the button

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are there in the JKSSB Constable (Telecommunication) 2024 — Set A?

The JKSSB Constable (Telecommunication) 2024 — Set A has 100 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

When was the JKSSB Constable (Telecommunication) 2024 — Set A held?

The JKSSB Constable (Telecommunication) 2024 — Set A was held on 8 December 2024.

Is there negative marking in JKSSB Constable (Telecommunication) 2024?

Yes. JKSSB Constable (Telecommunication) deducts 0.25 marks for every wrong answer, so accuracy matters as much as attempting more questions.

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Yes. Every question in this paper includes the correct answer and a detailed, step-by-step explanation, free of cost and without login.

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