JKSSB Inspector (Forest Ecology & Environment) — 15 March 2026 (Set A) — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

JKSSB Inspector (Forest Ecology & Environment Department) written examination held on 15 March 2026, Set A. 120 questions, 120 marks, 120 minutes, with 0.25 negative marking per wrong answer. Answers follow the official Revised Answer Key issued by the Jammu & Kashmir Services Selection Board, including the four questions revised after the objection period and Q111, which the Board discarded. Every question carries a detailed explanation.

JKSSB Inspector — 2026 — Set A

120 solved questions with answer key and detailed explanations — Subjects: English, Mathematics, Environment & Ecology, General Science, General Knowledge, General Intelligence & Reasoning, History, Indian Polity, Geography & Environment, Computer Applications — Negative marking: 0.25

English — Solved Questions

  1. Q1: What does the idiom "break the ice" mean?
    Answer: B — To start a conversation
    The correct answer is To start a conversation. Key Points - "Break the ice" means to say or do something that relieves initial awkwardness between people who do not know each other, so that conversation can begin. - The image is o
  2. Q2: What does the idiom "hit the nail on the head" mean?
    Answer: D — To be exactly right or accurate
    The correct answer is To be exactly right or accurate. Key Points - "Hit the nail on the head" means to describe a situation or identify a problem with complete precision. - It comes from carpentry: striking the nail squarely on i
  3. Q3: Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word. The speaker's argument was compelling enough to persuade the audience.
    Answer: A — Convincing
    The correct answer is Convincing. Key Points - Compelling means so persuasive or forceful that it commands belief or attention. - In the sentence, the argument was strong enough to persuade the audience — the context itself signals that the
  4. Q4: Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word His explanation was ambiguous, leaving the audience confused.
    Answer: C — Uncertain
    The correct answer is Uncertain. Key Points - Ambiguous means open to more than one interpretation, and therefore unclear in meaning. - The sentence supplies the test: the explanation left the audience confused, so the word must mean someth
  5. Q5: Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order. P. often determines the success of collective efforts Q. effective leadership R. by aligning individual goals S. with a shared vision and purpose
    Answer: A — QPRS
    The correct answer is QPRS. Key Points - Assembled in order Q-P-R-S, the sentence reads: - Effective leadership often determines the success of collective efforts by aligning individual goals with a shared vision and purpose. - Q ("eff
  6. Q6: Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order. P. cannot be addressed through isolated actions Q. complex environmental problems R. that require coordinated global efforts S. but demand long-te
    Answer: B — QRPS
    The correct answer is QRPS. Key Points - The answer to this question was revised from option A to option B. - Assembled in order Q-R-P-S, the sentence reads: - Complex environmental problems that require coordinated global efforts cannot be
  7. Q7: I am going to concert tomorrow.
    Answer: A — A
    The correct answer is A. Key Points - The correct sentence is: I am going to a concert tomorrow. - The choice between a and an depends on the sound that begins the next word, not on the spelling. - Concert begins with the consonant sound /k
  8. Q8: At equator, sunrise occurs at the same time each day.
    Answer: B — The
    The correct answer is The. Key Points - The correct sentence is: At the equator, sunrise occurs at the same time each day. - The is the definite article, used before a noun that is unique — there is only one equator. - A and an are indefini
  9. Q9: The doctor gave me a prescription my cough.
    Answer: A — For
    The correct answer is For. Key Points - The correct sentence is: The doctor gave me a prescription for my cough. - The preposition for expresses purpose — the prescription exists in order to treat the cough. - Prescription for is the standa
  10. Q10: My watch is the table.
    Answer: B — On
    The correct answer is On. Key Points - The correct sentence is: My watch is on the table. - On indicates contact with a surface — the watch rests upon the upper surface of the table. - In would mean enclosed within the table (as in a drawer

Mathematics — Solved Questions

  1. Q11: Volume of a cuboid of length (l), width (b) and height (h) is
    Answer: A — lbh
    The correct answer is lbh. Key Points - The volume of a cuboid is the product of its three dimensions: - V = l × b × h - Volume measures the space enclosed, so the result is in cubic units (cm³, m³) — and only the product lbh has three leng
  2. Q12: The area of a rhombus whose diagonals are of lengths 10 cm and 8.2 cm is
    Answer: C — 41 cm²
    The correct answer is 41 cm². Key Points - The area of a rhombus in terms of its diagonals d1 and d2 is: - A = 1/2 × d1 × d2 - Substituting d1 = 10 cm and d2 = 8.2 cm: - A = 1/2 × 10 × 8.2 = 5 × 8.2 = 41 cm^2 Shortcut Trick - Halve the easi
  3. Q13: A circular pond has a circumference of 22 km. What is its diameter?
    Answer: D — 7 km
    The correct answer is 7 km. Key Points - The circumference of a circle in terms of its diameter is: - C = π d - Substituting C = 22 km and π = 22/7: - 22 = 22/7 × d - d = 22 × 7/22 = 7 km Shortcut Trick - Whenever a circumference is given a
  4. Q14: The distance covered by a tire of 84 cm radius in 4 revolutions is
    Answer: B — 2112 cm
    The correct answer is 2112 cm. Key Points - In one revolution, a wheel covers a distance equal to its circumference: - C = 2π r = 2 × 22/7 × 84 - Since 84 ÷ 7 = 12: - C = 2 × 22 × 12 = 528 cm - Distance in 4 revolutions: - D = 4 × 528 = 211
  5. Q15: The length of a field is increased by 50%, and its width is decreased by 40%. The percentage change in its area is
    Answer: D — 10% decrease
    The correct answer is 10% decrease. Key Points - Let the original length and width be l and b, so the original area is lb. - Length increases by 50% → new length = 1.5l - Width decreases by 40% → new width = 0.6b - New area: - A' = 1.5l × 0
  6. Q16: The linear equation 3x − 11y = 10 has
    Answer: C — Infinitely many solutions
    The correct answer is Infinitely many solutions. Key Points - 3x - 11y = 10 is a linear equation in two variables, of the general form ax + by + c = 0. - Such an equation represents a straight line in the coordinate plane, and every point o
  7. Q17: Point (3, 4) lies on the graph of the equation 3y = kx + 7. The value of k is
    Answer: B — 5/3
    The correct answer is 5/3. Key Points - If a point lies on the graph of an equation, its coordinates must satisfy that equation. - Substituting x = 3 and y = 4 into 3y = kx + 7: - 3(4) = k(3) + 7 - 12 = 3k + 7 - 3k = 5 - k = 5/3 Additional
  8. Q18: The graph of linear equation x + 2y = 2, cuts the y-axis at
    Answer: C — (0,1)
    The correct answer is (0,1). Key Points - A graph cuts the y-axis at the point where x = 0. - Substituting x = 0 into x + 2y = 2: - 0 + 2y = 2 - y = 1 - The y-intercept is therefore (0, 1). Shortcut Trick - Any point on the y-axis has x = 0
  9. Q19: The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Re. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is
    Answer: A — 625
    The correct answer is 625. Key Points - For 2 years, the difference between compound and simple interest is given by: - D = P(r/100)^2 - Substituting D = 1 and r = 4: - 1 = P(4/100)^2 = P × 16/10000 - P = 10000/16 = 625 Shortcut Trick - For
  10. Q20: The compound interest on Rs. 30,000 at 7% per annum is Rs. 4347. The period (in years) is
    Answer: B — 2
    The correct answer is 2. Key Points - Compound interest is the amount minus the principal: - CI = P(1 + r)^n - P - Substituting P = 30,000, r = 7\% = 0.07 and CI = 4,347: - 30000(1.07)^n - 30000 = 4347 - 30000(1.07)^n = 34347 - (1.07)^n = 3
  11. Q21: 720 ÷ 12 + 18 × 4 ÷ 6 + 25% of 160 = ?
    Answer: C — 62
    The correct answer is 62. Key Points - Apply BODMAS — Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction. - \720 ÷ 12 + 18 × 4\ ÷ 6 + 25\% of 160 - Inside the brackets, division and multiplication come before addition: - 720
  12. Q22: 480 ÷ 16 − 8 × (3/4) + 35% of 200 − 18 = ?
    Answer: C — 100
    The correct answer is 100. Key Points - 480 ÷ \16 - 8 × 3/4\ + 35\% of 200 - 18 - Inside the bracket, multiplication precedes subtraction: - 8 × 3/4 = 6 - \16 - 6\ = 10 - Then the division: - 480 ÷ 10 = 48 - Then the percentage: - 35\% of 2
  13. Q23: − (− 3)(− 2 − 8 − 4) ÷ [3 5 + (− 2)(− 1)] = ?
    Answer: D — -2
    The correct answer is -2. Key Points - -(-3)(-2 - 8 - 4) ÷ [3\5 + (-2)(-1)\] - Simplify the first bracket: - -2 - 8 - 4 = -14 - Resolve the leading signs: -(-3) = +3, so the numerator becomes: - 3 × (-14) = -42 - Simplify the denominator, i
  14. Q24: What's the probability of drawing a red card or a card with a face (king, queen, or jack) from a standard deck of 52 cards?
    Answer: D — 8/13
    The correct answer is 8/13. Key Points - A standard deck has 52 cards: 26 red (hearts, diamonds) and 26 black (spades, clubs), with 12 face cards (King, Queen, Jack in each of the 4 suits). - This is an "or" question, so use the a
  15. Q25: What is the probability of a sure event?
    Answer: A — 1
    The correct answer is 1. Key Points - A sure event (or certain event) is one that is guaranteed to occur — its favourable outcomes are the entire sample space. - P(sure event) = n(S)/n(S) = 1 - Example: getting a number less than 7 when rol
  16. Q26: What is the probability of getting a number greater than 6 on dice?
    Answer: C — 0
    The correct answer is 0. Key Points - A standard die has faces numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, so the sample space is S = \1,2,3,4,5,6\ with n(S) = 6. - No face carries a number greater than 6, so the number of favourable outcomes is zero: - P =
  17. Q27: By selling a bicycle for Rs. 2,850, a shopkeeper gains 14%. If the profit is reduced to 8%, then the selling price will be
    Answer: A — 2700
    The correct answer is 2700. Key Points - Step 1 — find the cost price from the 14% gain: - SP = CP × (1 + gain\%100) - 2850 = CP × 1.14 - CP = 2850/1.14 = 2500 - Step 2 — compute the new selling price at 8% profit: - SP' = 2500 × 1.08 = 270
  18. Q28: A shopkeeper marks his goods 30% above his cost price but allows a discount of 10% at the time of sale. His gain is
    Answer: D — 17%
    The correct answer is 17%. Key Points - Let the cost price be 100. - Marked price is 30% above cost: - MP = 100 × 1.30 = 130 - Selling price after a 10% discount on the marked price: - SP = 130 × 0.90 = 117 - Gain: - Gain\% = 117 - 100/100
  19. Q29: If the selling price of 12 books is equivalent to the cost price of 18 copies, then calculate the profit percent.
    Answer: B — 50%
    The correct answer is 50%. Key Points - Given: SP of 12 books = CP of 18 books. - Let the cost price of one book be Rs. 1, so the cost price of 18 books is Rs. 18. - That Rs. 18 is the money received for selling 12 books, so: - SP of 12 boo
  20. Q30: Rick bought cold drinks of Rs. 56000. Then he sold 1/3rd of the total purchase to a 40% loss. How much profit does he need to earn on the remaining cold drinks to cover the loss?
    Answer: A — 20%
    The correct answer is 20%. Key Points - Total purchase: Rs. 56,000. - Portion sold at a loss: 1/3 of 56,000 = 56000/3, sold at a 40% loss. - Loss = 0.40 × 56000/3 = 22400/3 - Remaining stock: 2/3 of 56,000 = 112000/3 at cost. - To cover the

Environment & Ecology — Solved Questions

  1. Q31: With reference to 'Rat-hole mining' as practiced in parts of Northeast India, identify the correct statements. I. It is a process of digging narrow horizontal tunnels into the hill slopes by extractio
    Answer: C — I and II only
    The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. Rat-hole mining is a primitive method of coal extraction in which narrow horizontal tunnels — typically only 3–4 feet high, just wide enough for one person to crawl t
  2. Q32: Select the correct statements about Eutrophication. I. It is a general term describing a process in which nutrients accumulate in a body of water, resulting in increased growth of organisms. II. It le
    Answer: A — I only
    The correct answer is I only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. Eutrophication is the process by which a water body becomes progressively enriched with nutrients — chiefly nitrogen and phosphorus — leading to excessive growth of algae an
  3. Q33: Which of the following statements best describes 'Altitudinal Migration'?
    Answer: C — Short-distance animal migration to higher altitudes to escape extreme heat
    The correct answer is Short-distance animal migration to higher altitudes to escape extreme heat. Key Points - Altitudinal migration is the seasonal movement of animals up and down a mountain slope rather than across latitudes. - Animals mo
  4. Q34: As of February 2026, which of the following best describes India's progress towards its 'Panchamrit' targets outlined at COP-26 held at Glasgow?
    Answer: D — India's total non-fossil power installed capacity crossed 50% of the total installed electricity capacity of the country.
    The correct answer is India's total non-fossil power installed capacity crossed 50% of the total installed electricity capacity of the country. Key Points - India announced the 'Panchamrit' — five commitments — at COP-26 in Glasgow (Novembe
  5. Q35: Match the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to their primary objectives. SDG, Objectives; i. SDG-6, a. Life below water; ii. SDG-14, b. Clean water and sanitation; iii. SDG-15, c. Afforda
    Answer: C — i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c. Key Points - The correct matching of Sustainable Development Goals to their objectives is: SDG, Objective; ---, ---; SDG-6, Clean Water and Sanitation; SDG-14, Life Below Water; SDG-15, Life on
  6. Q36: Select the correct statements about the Swacch Vayu Survekshan awards, 2025. I. Indore secured first rank with a score of 200 out of 200 in Category-1 (states having over 10 lakh population). II. Amra
    Answer: D — All of the above
    The correct answer is All of the above. Key Points - The Swachh Vayu Survekshan awards rank cities on their progress in improving air quality under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP), and are presented on the International Day of Clean
  7. Q37: Arrange the following steps in Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) in correct chronological order. I. Screening II. Scoping III. EIA Report IV. Impact Analysis V. Review and Public Participation
    Answer: C — I-II-IV-III-V
    The correct answer is I-II-IV-III-V. Key Points - Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) is the process of evaluating the likely environmental consequences of a proposed project before it is cleared. The correct chronological order is: - I. Sc
  8. Q38: Which of the following authorities are constituted under the umbrella of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, for wildlife conservation? I. Central Zoo Authority II. State Board for Wildlife III. Nation
    Answer: B — I, II and III only
    The correct answer is I, II and III only. Key Points - The following bodies are constituted under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972: - Central Zoo Authority — inserted by the 1991 amendment, it recognises and regulates zoos in India. - S
  9. Q39: As per Land Use Statistics (2022-23), published by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare, what is the percentage of 'Net Sown Area' to the 'Total Reported Area' in Jammu and Kashmir?
    Answer: A — 19.01%
    The correct answer is 19.01%. Key Points - According to the Land Use Statistics 2022-23 published by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare, the Net Sown Area of Jammu and Kashmir is 19.01% of its Total Reported Area. - Net Sown
  10. Q40: Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Bird Sanctuary, States; I. Atapaka Bird Sanctuary, Andhra Pradesh; II. Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary, Goa; III. Attiveri Bird Sanctuary, Karnataka Choose
    Answer: D — All of the above
    The correct answer is All of the above. Key Points - All three pairs are correctly matched: Bird Sanctuary, State; ---, ---; Atapaka Bird Sanctuary, Andhra Pradesh; Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary, Goa; Attiveri Bird Sanctuary, Karnataka - Atapaka

General Science — Solved Questions

  1. Q41: A satellite is orbiting the Earth in a circular orbit at a height where the acceleration due to gravity is 4.9 m/s². If the radius of the Earth is 6,371 km, what is the orbital speed of the satellite?
    Answer: B — 6.6 km/s
    The correct answer is 6.6 km/s. Key Points - Step 1 — find the orbital radius. Acceleration due to gravity at a distance r from the Earth's centre is g' = GM/r^2, and at the surface g = GM/R^2. - Given g' = 4.9 = g/2: - GM/r^2 = 1/2·GM/R^2
  2. Q42: A metal rod is heated at one end, and the temperature at the other end rises slowly over time. At the same time, a sealed glass flask filled with water is placed over a flame, and the water temperatur
    Answer: B — Rod: Conduction; Flask: Convection and Radiation
    The correct answer is Rod: Conduction; Flask: Convection and Radiation, and both option B and option C were accepted for this question. Key Points - The metal rod — conduction. Heat travels along the rod from the hot end to the cold end wit
  3. Q43: An object 2 m tall is placed at a distance of 50 cm in front of a convex lens. The lens has a power of +5 D. Calculate the height and nature of the image formed by the lens.
    Answer: B — 1.33 m, real and inverted
    The correct answer is 1.33 m, real and inverted. Key Points - Step 1 — find the focal length from the power. - P = 1f (in metres) \;\; f = 1/5 = 0.2 m = 20 cm - Step 2 — apply the lens formula with u = -50 cm (object on the left) and f = +2
  4. Q44: Which of the following statements about cells is NOT true?
    Answer: D — Ribosomes are membrane-bound organelles responsible for protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells.
    The correct answer is Ribosomes are membrane-bound organelles responsible for protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells. Key Points - This statement is NOT true, because ribosomes are not membrane-bound. They are made of ribosomal RNA and prote
  5. Q45: Which of the following metals produce hydrogen gas on reaction with dilute nitric acid?
    Answer: C — Magnesium (Mg)
    The correct answer is Magnesium (Mg). Key Points - Nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent. When a metal reacts with it, the hydrogen initially released is immediately oxidised to water, while the nitric acid itself is reduced to oxides of
  6. Q46: Which of the following statements about conventional sources of energy and their improvements is true?
    Answer: B — Supercritical and ultra-supercritical boilers allow coal power plants to achieve higher efficiency.
    The correct answer is Supercritical and ultra-supercritical boilers allow coal power plants to achieve higher efficiency. Key Points - Supercritical and ultra-supercritical technology raises steam above the critical point of water — approxi
  7. Q47: Which of the following statements about non-conventional sources of energy and their improvements is correct?
    Answer: B — Wind energy efficiency improves by using larger and more aerodynamically designed blades.
    The correct answer is Wind energy efficiency improves by using larger and more aerodynamically designed blades. Key Points - The power available to a wind turbine is: - P = 1/2ρ A v^3 - where A = π r^2 is the swept area. Because power scale
  8. Q48: Match Column-I with Column-II Column - I, Column - II; i. Cesium, a. A non-metal that is lustrous; ii. Zinc, b. A metal that is brittle; iii. Iodine, c. A metal that has a low melting point; iv. Graph
    Answer: A — i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
    The correct answer is i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d. Key Points - The correct matching is: Element, Description; ---, ---; Cesium, A metal that has a low melting point; Zinc, A metal that is brittle; Iodine, A non-metal that is lustrous; Graphite,
  9. Q49: Metals P, Q, and R have different positions in the activity series. Metal P reacts vigorously with water, metal Q reacts slowly with acids, and metal R does not react with water or acids. Their oxides
    Answer: C — P - Electrolysis of molten oxide; Q - Reduction by carbon; R - Native metal, no extraction needed.
    The correct answer is P - Electrolysis of molten oxide; Q - Reduction by carbon; R - Native metal, no extraction needed. Key Points - The reactivity of each metal must first be placed: - Metal P reacts vigorously with water → it is a highly
  10. Q50: Which of the following organisms exhibits parasitic nutrition?
    Answer: C — Plasmodium
    The correct answer is Plasmodium. Key Points - Parasitic nutrition is the mode in which an organism derives its food from the body of another living organism — the host — while causing it harm. - Plasmodium is a protozoan parasite that live
  11. Q51: Which of the following statements about transportation of water, food and minerals in plants is NOT correct?
    Answer: D — Minerals absorbed by roots move through phloem vessels to reach the leaves where they are utilized for photosynthesis.
    The correct answer is Minerals absorbed by roots move through phloem vessels to reach the leaves where they are utilized for photosynthesis. Key Points - This statement is NOT correct. Minerals absorbed by the roots travel upward through th
  12. Q52: Which of the following statements about excretion in plants and animals is correct?
    Answer: B — Plants assimilate ammonia into amino acids and can store waste in leaves, bark, and vacuoles.
    The correct answer is Plants assimilate ammonia into amino acids and can store waste in leaves, bark, and vacuoles. Key Points - Plants have no specialised excretory organs. They deal with waste by: - Assimilating ammonia into amino acids a
  13. Q53: A city is located near a river and an industrial area. Over time, scientists observed the following: i. Fish in the river showed bioaccumulation of a persistent chemical that caused neurological disor
    Answer: A — i → a, ii → b, iii → c
    The correct answer is i → a, ii → b, iii → c. Key Points - Observation (i) → Mercury. Mercury undergoes bioaccumulation and biomagnification in aquatic food chains, converting to methylmercury in fish. Consuming such fish causes severe neur
  14. Q54: Consider the following jumbled food chain: Grasshopper, Grass, Hawk, Frog, Snake If the energy content of the frog is x kJ, the energy available to the primary consumer is
    Answer: A — 10x kJ
    The correct answer is 10x kJ. Key Points - Step 1 — arrange the food chain correctly. The jumbled organisms form: - Grass Grasshopper Frog Snake Hawk - Step 2 — identify the trophic levels. - Grass — producer (1st trophic level) - Grasshopp
  15. Q55: Which statement is TRUE regarding the relationship between ozone depletion and climate change?
    Answer: A — CFCs destroy ozone and contribute to global warming.
    The correct answer is CFCs destroy ozone and contribute to global warming. Key Points - Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) have a dual effect, which is what makes this statement true: - In the stratosphere, ultraviolet radiation splits CFC molecule
  16. Q56: Which of the following was NOT a character studied by Mendel in his experiments with Pisum sativum?
    Answer: B — Flower shape
    The correct answer is Flower shape. Key Points - Gregor Johann Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting characters in the garden pea, Pisum sativum. Flower shape was not among them — he studied flower colour and flower position, but never
  17. Q57: Ali was breeding two Pisum sativum plants for plant height and seed shape. He noticed the following in the offspring: All plants were Tall Seed shape ratio: 3 (Round) : 1 (Wrinkled) How many possible
    Answer: C — 3
    The correct answer is 3. Key Points - The two characters must be analysed separately, then the possibilities multiplied. - For plant height — all offspring Tall. A cross produces only tall plants when at least one parent is homozygous domin
  18. Q58: Raghav is trying to understand when plant cells are haploid (N) or diploid (2N) during sexual reproduction. Which of the following statements is correct?
    Answer: B — The microspore and megaspore are haploid (N) cells formed after meiosis, and fertilization restores the diploid (2N) number in the zygote.
    The correct answer is The microspore and megaspore are haploid (N) cells formed after meiosis, and fertilization restores the diploid (2N) number in the zygote. Key Points - The alternation of ploidy in flowering plants runs as follows: - T
  19. Q59: Raghav was confused about how plants reproduce asexually. His teacher explained methods like Budding and Fragmentation, but Raghav wasn't sure how to tell them apart. Which of the following best disti
    Answer: A — In budding, a small protrusion forms on the parent and may stay attached before detaching, while in fragmentation, the parent breaks into pieces, and each piece grows into a new organism.
    The correct answer is In budding, a small protrusion forms on the parent and may stay attached before detaching, while in fragmentation, the parent breaks into pieces, and each piece grows into a new organism. Key Points - Budding — a small
  20. Q60: Which of the following correctly matches the organism with its classification group? I. Rose, Monocotyledon; II. Frog, Amphibian; III. Mango, Gymnosperm; IV. Shark, Reptile Choose the correct match:
    Answer: A — Only II
    The correct answer is Only II. Key Points - Examining each pair: - I. Rose — Monocotyledon: INCORRECT. The rose (Rosa) is a dicotyledon. Its seeds have two cotyledons, its leaves show reticulate (net-like) venation, and its floral parts occ

General Knowledge — Solved Questions

  1. Q61: Match the following books/texts with their respective authors Books/Texts, Authors; i. Voice of India, a. R.C. Dutt; ii. Economic History of India, b. Dadabhai Naoroji; iii. Unhappy India, c. Rajendra
    Answer: C — i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c. Key Points - The correct matching is: Book, Author; ---, ---; Voice of India, Dadabhai Naoroji; Economic History of India, R.C. Dutt; Unhappy India, Lala Lajpat Rai; India Divided, Rajendra Pras
  2. Q62: Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Geographical Discoveries, Discoverers; I. Cape of Good Hope, Vasco De Gama; II. Solar System, Kepler; III. Australia, James Cook
    Answer: B — III only
    The correct answer is III only. Key Points - Examining each pair: - I. Cape of Good Hope — Vasco da Gama: INCORRECT. The Cape of Good Hope was first rounded by the Portuguese navigator Bartolomeu Dias in 1488. Vasco da Gama later sailed pas
  3. Q63: Consider the following information regarding the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and identify the INCORRECT statements. I. Every member country has an equal voting power regardless of its financial
    Answer: C — I and III only
    The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - The question asks for the INCORRECT statements. - Statement I is INCORRECT. IMF members do not have equal voting power. Voting is based on a quota system reflecting each member's relative p
  4. Q64: Which of the following Space Missions are successfully conducted by ISRO to develop and demonstrate the technology needed for the docking and undocking of two small spacecraft in a low-Earth circular
    Answer: D — SPADEX
    The correct answer is SPADEX. Key Points - SPADEX (Space Docking Experiment) was launched by ISRO on 30 December 2024 aboard a PSLV-C60 rocket, carrying two small spacecraft — SDX01 (Chaser) and SDX02 (Target) — each weighing about 220 kg.
  5. Q65: Which of the following personalities of Jammu and Kashmir was recently awarded Padma Shri (2026) for his/her social work?
    Answer: D — Brij Lal Bhat
    The correct answer is Brij Lal Bhat. Key Points - Brij Lal Bhat of Jammu and Kashmir was conferred the Padma Shri in 2026 in the field of social work. - The Padma Shri is the fourth-highest civilian award of the Republic of India, conferred
  6. Q66: Following the 2019 Reorganization, while the legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir can legislate on state matters, which of the following subjects are exclusively reserved for the Union government
    Answer: A — Public order and Police
    The correct answer is Public order and Police. Key Points - Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, Jammu & Kashmir became a Union Territory with a legislature — like Delhi and Puducherry, and unlike ordinary States. - In
  7. Q67: Which of the following rivers are tributaries of the river Chenab? I. Ujh river II. Marusudar river III. Niru river IV. Ans river V. Tawi river Choose the correct option:
    Answer: C — II, III, IV and V only
    The correct answer is II, III, IV and V only. Key Points - The Chenab (ancient Asikni or Chandrabhaga) rises from the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga streams at Tandi in Himachal Pradesh, then flows through the Jammu region. - Its tribu
  8. Q68: Match the following: Kashmir Sultans, Major Contribution/Title; i. Shams-ud-din Shah Mir, a. Establishment of the Sultanate in Kashmir in 1339 CE; ii. Sikandar Butshikan, b. Construction of the magnif
    Answer: C — i-a, ii-b, iii-c
    The correct answer is i-a, ii-b, iii-c. Key Points - The correct matching is: Sultan, Contribution / Title; ---, ---; Shams-ud-din Shah Mir, Establishment of the Sultanate in Kashmir in 1339 CE; Sikandar Butshikan, Construction of the Jama
  9. Q69: According to the Indian State of Forest Report, 2023, what is the 'Total Forest Cover' of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir as a percentage of its total geographic area?
    Answer: C — 39.15%
    The correct answer is 39.15%. Key Points - According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023, the total forest cover of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is 39.15% of its geographical area. - Forest cover is defined as all la
  10. Q70: Identify the correct statements about the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project I. Indian Railway's first cable-stayed bridge has been constructed over the Anji Khad in this project. I
    Answer: C — Both I and II
    The correct answer is Both I and II. Key Points - Statement I is correct. The Anji Khad bridge is Indian Railways' first cable-stayed bridge, built across the Anji river, a tributary of the Chenab, in Reasi district. It rests on a single ce

General Intelligence & Reasoning — Solved Questions

  1. Q71: Complete the following number series 3, 3, 13, 81, 603,
    Answer: C — 5491
    The correct answer is 5491. Key Points - The series is 3, 3, 13, 81, 603, - Each term is obtained from the previous one by multiplying by successive odd numbers and adding successive squares of even numbers: - 3 × 1 + 0^2 = 3 - 3 × 3 + 2^2
  2. Q72: Fill in the blanks with appropriate letters to complete the following letter series adkdadfkadfkd
    Answer: B — c,f,c,d,c
    The correct answer is c,f,c,d,c. Key Points - The given series is: adkdadfkadfkd - The pattern is the six-letter block acdfkd repeated three times: - a\,c\,d\,f\,k\,d1 \;\; a\,c\,d\,f\,k\,d2 \;\; a\,c\,d\,f\,k\,d3 - Filling the blanks block
  3. Q73: In a certain language, BRAIN is coded as TPKDC, then in that language, MINDS will be coded as
    Answer: A — UPOKF
    The correct answer is UPOKF. Key Points - In the given code, BRAIN is written as TPKDC, and the same substitution applied to MINDS gives UPOKF. - The letter-by-letter correspondence for MINDS is: Letter, M, I, N, D, S; ---, ---, ---, ---, -
  4. Q74: At 5 p.m., Mr. Floyd is standing facing a tower. His shadow falls exactly to his right. After 30 minutes, he turns 180° and starts walking straight. In which direction is he walking?
    Answer: C — South
    The correct answer is South. Key Points - Step 1 — locate the shadow. At 5 p.m. the Sun is in the west, so all shadows fall towards the east. - Step 2 — find the direction he faces. His shadow falls exactly to his right, so east lies to his
  5. Q75: Consider the following information and answer the given question M is the mother of N. N is the brother of O. O is the wife of P. P is the son of Q. How is O related to Q?
    Answer: D — Daughter-in-law
    The correct answer is Daughter-in-law. Key Points - Working through each statement: - M is the mother of N → N is M's child. - N is the brother of O → O is N's sibling, so O is also M's child. - O is the wife of P → O is female, and P is he
  6. Q76: A pump fills a water tank. If its pumping speed is increased to 9/7 of its original speed, the tank gets filled 30 minutes earlier than usual. How much time did the pump originally take to fill the ta
    Answer: A — 135 minutes
    The correct answer is 135 minutes. Key Points - Speed and time are inversely proportional for a fixed volume of water. - If the speed becomes 9/7 of the original, the time becomes the reciprocal of that factor: - New time = 7/9 × Original t
  7. Q77: Three boats, A, B and C, start from the same jetty and move in the same direction along a river. Their speeds in still water are 18 km/h, 24 km/h and 36 km/h, respectively. Boat B starts 1 hour after
    Answer: A — 1 hour
    The correct answer is 1 hour. Key Points - All three boats travel downstream in the same direction along the same river, so the current adds equally to each speed and cancels out in every relative-speed calculation. The still-water speeds c
  8. Q78: Choose the correct inference from the statements Statements: I. All scientists are researchers. II. No researcher is a poet. Conclusions: I. No scientist is a poet. II. Some researchers are definitely
    Answer: C — Both I and II follow
    The correct answer is Both I and II follow. Key Points - The statements are: - I. All scientists are researchers — the set of scientists lies entirely within the set of researchers. - II. No researcher is a poet — the sets of researchers an
  9. Q79: Find the correct answer If SMART = 96 and MIND = 56, then PRO = ?
    Answer: D — 58
    The correct answer is 58. Key Points - The code is the sum of the alphabetical positions of the letters, plus the square of the number of letters. - Verifying with SMART (5 letters): - S + M + A + R + T = 19 + 13 + 1 + 18 + 20 = 71 - 71 + 5
  10. Q80: A company divides its total investment of Rs. 12,00,000 among three projects A, B and C in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. After one year: Project A gives a return of 10% profit Project B gives a return of 20% p
    Answer: B — 3% profit
    The correct answer is 3% profit. Key Points - Step 1 — divide the investment in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. Total parts = 10, so one part = 12,00,00010 = 1,20,000. - Project A = 2 × 1,20,000 = 2,40,000 - Project B = 3 × 1,20,000 = 3,60,000 - Proje

History — Solved Questions

  1. Q81: Following the suppression of the revolt of 1857, what major constitutional change was adopted via the Government of India Act, 1858?
    Answer: C — The power of the East India Company was abolished, and power was transferred to the British Crown.
    The correct answer is The power of the East India Company was abolished, and power was transferred to the British Crown. Key Points - The Government of India Act, 1858, also called the Act for the Better Government of India, was passed afte
  2. Q82: Which of the following administrative measures taken by Lord Lytton was a factor in the rise of Indian Nationalism?
    Answer: D — Passing of the Vernacular Press Act (1878)
    The correct answer is Passing of the Vernacular Press Act (1878). Key Points - Lord Lytton was Viceroy of India from 1876 to 1880, and the Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was his measure. - The Act empowered the government to seize the printin
  3. Q83: The 'Safety Valve theory' propounded by leaders like Lala Lajpat Rai in the context of the formation of the Indian National Congress suggests that-
    Answer: D — The congress was formed to provide a peaceful outlet for public discontent and prevent another revolt like 1857.
    The correct answer is The congress was formed to provide a peaceful outlet for public discontent and prevent another revolt like 1857. Key Points - The Safety Valve theory holds that the Indian National Congress was created at the initiativ
  4. Q84: What was/were the primary political demands of the Moderates during the early phase of the Indian National Congress?
    Answer: C — Expansion of Legislation Councils and greater representation of Indians in the Civil Services
    The correct answer is Expansion of Legislation Councils and greater representation of Indians in the Civil Services. Key Points - The Moderate phase of the Congress ran from 1885 to 1905, led by figures such as Dadabhai Naoroji, Gopal Krish
  5. Q85: Match the following in the context of the Swadeshi Movement- Swadeshi Initiatives, Associated Leaders; i. Bengal Chemicals Factory, a. V.O. Chidambaram Pilai; ii. Steam Navigation Company, b. Prafulla
    Answer: B — i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c. Key Points - The correct matching is: Swadeshi Initiative, Associated Leader; ---, ---; Bengal Chemicals Factory, Prafulla Chandra Ray; Steam Navigation Company, V.O. Chidambaram Pillai; Dawn So
  6. Q86: Arrange the following historical events in the correct Chronological order. I. Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak II. Formation of the Swaraj Party by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru III. Self-Respect Movement b
    Answer: D — I-IV-II-III
    The correct answer is I-IV-II-III. Key Points - Placing each event by date: - I. Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak — 1 August 1920, in Bombay, on the very day the Non-Cooperation Movement was launched. - IV. Chauri Chaura incident — 5 February 1
  7. Q87: Why was the Shimla deputation (1906) prominent for the rise of the Muslim League in India?
    Answer: D — The deputation received a positive assurance from Lord Minto regarding separate electorates
    The correct answer is The deputation received a positive assurance from Lord Minto regarding separate electorates. Key Points - The Shimla Deputation of 1 October 1906 was a delegation of 35 prominent Muslims led by the Aga Khan which met V
  8. Q88: Who were the two primary brothers who founded the 'All India Khilafat Committee' in 1919?
    Answer: D — Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali
    The correct answer is Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali. Key Points - The All India Khilafat Committee was founded in 1919 at Bombay by the brothers Maulana Mohammad Ali and Maulana Shaukat Ali, known together as the Ali Brothers. - Their aim wa
  9. Q89: In which of the following places was a 'Parallel Government' (Prati Sarkar) formed by Nana Patil during the Quit India Movement?
    Answer: D — Satara (Maharashtra)
    The correct answer is Satara (Maharashtra). Key Points - Nana Patil established the Prati Sarkar — literally "parallel government" — at Satara in Maharashtra in 1943, during the Quit India Movement. - It was the longest-lasting of
  10. Q90: On which of the following dates was the 'Indian Independence Act-1947' given the British Royal Assent, thereby giving legal effect to the Mountbatten Plan?
    Answer: C — July 18, 1947
    The correct answer is July 18, 1947. Key Points - The Indian Independence Act, 1947 received the Royal Assent on 18 July 1947, giving legal effect to the Mountbatten Plan. - The Act's main provisions: - Partition of British India into the t

Indian Polity — Solved Questions

  1. Q91: Match the following- Directive Principles, Constitutional Articles; i. Organisation of village panchayats, a. Article 44; ii. Uniform Civil Code for citizens, b. Article 40; iii. Separation of the Jud
    Answer: C — i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c. Key Points - The correct matching of Directive Principles to their Articles is: Directive Principle, Article; ---, ---; Organisation of village panchayats, Article 40; Uniform Civil Code for cit
  2. Q92: The Right to elementary education was made a Fundamental right under Article-2A through which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts?
    Answer: C — 86th Amendment Act
    The correct answer is 86th Amendment Act. Key Points - The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, made elementary education a Fundamental Right by inserting Article 21A, which provides that the State shall provide free and compulsory educ
  3. Q93: Consider the following statements about the Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A) and select the INCORRECT statements- I. These Duties were part of the original Constitution adopted in 1950. II. These Duties
    Answer: C — I and II only
    The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - The question asks for the INCORRECT statements. - Statement I is INCORRECT. Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution of 1950. They were added by the 42nd Constitutional
  4. Q94: Which of the following statements are correct about Direct democracy and Indirect democracy? I. In Indirect democracy, people themselves vote on every legislation. II. Recall, Initiative and Plebiscit
    Answer: B — II and III only
    The correct answer is II and III only. Key Points - Examining each statement: - Statement I is INCORRECT. It is direct democracy, not indirect, in which people themselves vote on every piece of legislation. In an indirect democracy the peop
  5. Q95: Which of the following pairs are correctly matched- Provisions, Legal/Constitutional Sources; I. Conduct of elections of President and Vice President, Representation of the People Act, 1950; II. Disqu
    Answer: C — II and III only
    The correct answer is II and III only. Key Points - Examining each pair: - Pair I is INCORRECTLY matched. The conduct of elections to the offices of President and Vice-President is governed by the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Election
  6. Q96: Who has the final authority to issue symbols to the political parties and solve disputes between the factions of a party claiming the same symbol?
    Answer: D — Election Commission of India
    The correct answer is Election Commission of India. Key Points - The Election Commission of India (ECI) has the final authority to allot symbols to political parties and to decide disputes between rival factions of a party claiming the same
  7. Q97: Identify the INCORRECT statements about the Presidential Elections in India- I. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha do not participate in the election of the President, but participate in the impeach
    Answer: D — II and IV only
    The correct answer is II and IV only. Key Points - The question asks for the INCORRECT statements. - Statement I is CORRECT. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha do not vote in the presidential election, because the Electoral College under
  8. Q98: Identify the correct statements about the languages in Schedule Eighth of the Indian Constitution- I. Rajasthani is one of the 22 languages currently included in the Eighth Schedule. II. The languages
    Answer: D — Neither I nor II
    The correct answer is Neither I nor II. Key Points - Examining each statement: - Statement I is INCORRECT. Rajasthani is NOT one of the 22 languages in the Eighth Schedule. Its inclusion has long been demanded but never granted. Along with
  9. Q99: Which of the following statements are correct? I. Article 343 of the Indian Constitution, designates Hindi in the Devanagari script as the official language of the Union. II. According to Article 350-
    Answer: C — Both I and II
    The correct answer is Both I and II. Key Points - Statement I is correct. Article 343(1) provides that the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in the Devanagari script, and that the form of numerals to be used shall be the interna
  10. Q100: Consider the following statements about the United Nations and select the correct option. I. All UN Members are part of the General Assembly. II. States are admitted to membership by the decision of t
    Answer: A — I and II only
    The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Examining each statement: - Statement I is CORRECT. All UN member states are members of the General Assembly, each with one seat. It is the only UN organ with universal membership. - Stateme

Geography & Environment — Solved Questions

  1. Q101: Which of the following statements about the solar system are correct? I. The planet Venus is also known as 'the Morning Star'. II. The asteroid belt, a region of rocky debris, lies between the orbits
    Answer: B — I and II only
    The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Examining each statement: - Statement I is CORRECT. Venus is known as both the "Morning Star" and the "Evening Star", because as an inner planet it appears near the Sun a
  2. Q102: A ship is sailing from the International Date Line on Wednesday, from East to West (from America to Russia). What will happen to the day or date on the ship?
    Answer: C — Date will change to Thursday (one day forward).
    The correct answer is Date will change to Thursday (one day forward). Key Points - The International Date Line (IDL) runs roughly along the 180° meridian in the Pacific Ocean, deviating around island groups so that no inhabited territory is
  3. Q103: On December 22nd, Winter Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, which of the following statements stands true?
    Answer: B — The sun never sets at the Antarctic Circle
    The correct answer is The sun never sets at the Antarctic Circle. Key Points - On 22 December, the Winter Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, the Earth's axial tilt of 23.5° places the South Pole towards the Sun. - The Sun's rays fall vert
  4. Q104: As one ascends from Jammu plains (300 m) to the Himalayas (4000 m), what would be the correct ecological sequence of these forest types?
    Answer: C — Tropical thorns- Sub-tropical pine- Himalayan moist temperate-Alpine Meadows
    The correct answer is Tropical thorns - Sub-tropical pine - Himalayan moist temperate - Alpine Meadows. Key Points - Because temperature falls with altitude at roughly 6.5 °C per 1,000 m, vegetation changes in a predictable sequence as one
  5. Q105: The Forest Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2023, exempted which of the following projects from the prior approval of the Central government?
    Answer: D — All of the above
    The correct answer is All of the above. Key Points - The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023, which renamed the parent Act the Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam, exempted several categories of project from the requirement of
  6. Q106: Match the following Wildlife sanctuaries with the districts they are located in Wildlife Sanctuaries, Specific Districts; i. Hirapora sanctuary, a. Reasi; ii. Rajparian (Daksum) sanctuary, b. Shopian;
    Answer: C — i-b, ii-c, iii-a
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-c, iii-a. Key Points - The correct matching is: Wildlife Sanctuary, District; ---, ---; Hirapora Sanctuary, Shopian; Rajparian (Daksum) Sanctuary, Anantnag; Trikuta Sanctuary, Reasi - Hirapora Wildlife Sanctuar
  7. Q107: Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Dams, Rivers; I. Uri-II, Jhelum; II. Salal dam, Chenab; III. Pakul Dul dam, Marusudar; IV. Dulhasti dam, Ravi
    Answer: C — I, II and III only
    The correct answer is I, II and III only. Key Points - Examining each pair: - I. Uri-II — Jhelum: CORRECT. The Uri-II Hydroelectric Project (240 MW) is on the Jhelum in Baramulla district, downstream of Uri-I (480 MW). - II. Salal Dam — Che
  8. Q108: Which of the following is/are examples of In-situ rainwater harvesting?
    Answer: D — Storing water in the soil profile through mulching or contour bunding
    The correct answer is Storing water in the soil profile through mulching or contour bunding. Key Points - In-situ rainwater harvesting means conserving rainwater where it falls, allowing it to infiltrate and be stored within the soil profil
  9. Q109: Identify the INCORRECT statements about tunnels in Jammu and Kashmir- I. Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel is a 9 km long, twin-tube, all-weather road tunnel connecting Udhampur and Ramban. II. Tunnel
    Answer: A — I only
    The correct answer is I only. Key Points - The answer to this question was revised from option D to option A. The question asks which statements are INCORRECT. - Statement I is INCORRECT, and therefore the answer. The Dr. Syama Prasad Mooke
  10. Q110: The UNESCO World Heritage Sites 'Mountain Railways of India' recognises which of the following?
    Answer: D — All of the above
    The correct answer is All of the above. Key Points - The UNESCO World Heritage Site "Mountain Railways of India" is a serial inscription comprising three railways: - Darjeeling Himalayan Railway — inscribed 1999, the first to be l

Computer Applications — Solved Questions

  1. Q111: A computer uses 8-bit 2's complement representation. Which of the following operations will cause overflow?
    Answer: Deleted
    This question was discarded and no marks were awarded for it. It is reproduced here for practice, with a full explanation of why it could not be answered as set. Key Points - In 8-bit 2's complement representation, the range of values is −1
  2. Q112: Which of the following statements is true regarding applications of Information Technology?
    Answer: C — Telemedicine allows doctors to provide consultation using communication networks.
    The correct answer is Telemedicine allows doctors to provide consultation using communication networks. Key Points - Telemedicine is the delivery of healthcare at a distance using information and communication technology — video consultatio
  3. Q113: Match the following: Column - I, Column - II; i. Firmware, a. Translates high-level language into machine code; ii. Utility Software, b. Controls communication between operating system and hardware de
    Answer: A — i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
    The correct answer is i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a. Key Points - The correct matching is: Term, Description; ---, ---; Firmware, Stored permanently in ROM to initialize hardware; Utility Software, Performs system maintenance tasks like disk clean
  4. Q114: A student is using a computer with 8 GB RAM. He opens: A web browser with 25 tabs A video editing software A music player A code editor After some time, the system becomes slow, but it does NOT crash.
    Answer: C — The operating system is using virtual memory and swapping data between RAM and disk.
    The correct answer is The operating system is using virtual memory and swapping data between RAM and disk. Key Points - The three symptoms together point unambiguously to virtual memory in use: - The system slows but does not crash — the op
  5. Q115: A government launches a system where: Citizens apply for documents online Applications are automatically verified using databases SMS/email updates are sent automatically Officials approve requests di
    Answer: C — IT integrates communication, data processing, storage, and automation.
    The correct answer is IT integrates communication, data processing, storage, and automation. Key Points - The system described performs four distinct functions, and the correct option is the only one that captures all of them: - Communicati
  6. Q116: A student uploads a PDF file to an online PDF-to-JPG converter website. After conversion, he downloads the JPG files but later notices: The images are blurred File size is much larger than expected Te
    Answer: A — The PDF was converted into raster images.
    The correct answer is The PDF was converted into raster images. Key Points - All three symptoms follow directly from converting vector content into raster form: - Blurred images — text in a PDF is normally stored as vector outlines that sca
  7. Q117: Which of the following statements is true regarding KMZ files and geo-tagged photos?
    Answer: B — Geo-tagging embeds latitude and longitude inside image metadata.
    The correct answer is Geo-tagging embeds latitude and longitude inside image metadata. Key Points - Geo-tagging is the process of attaching geographical coordinates to a file. In a photograph, the latitude, longitude, altitude and timestamp
  8. Q118: Which of the following statements is correct regarding computer viruses and modern antivirus systems?
    Answer: B — Signature-based antivirus detects only previously identified malware patterns.
    The correct answer is Signature-based antivirus detects only previously identified malware patterns. Key Points - Signature-based detection works by comparing files against a database of signatures — distinctive byte patterns or hashes extr
  9. Q119: Which of the following is incorrect regarding the use of modern computer applications in field operations of a Forest Department?
    Answer: C — Forest apps replace the need for physical field inspections completely.
    The correct answer is Forest apps replace the need for physical field inspections completely. Key Points - This statement is incorrect, and is therefore the answer. Digital tools support field operations without replacing them. Physical ins
  10. Q120: In an e-Office system, a confidential file is sent digitally from a section officer to a higher authority. The department wants to ensure that only the intended officer can read the file during transm
    Answer: B — Encrypting the file using the recipient's public key
    The correct answer is Encrypting the file using the recipient's public key. Key Points - Confidentiality means that only the intended recipient can read the content. In public key (asymmetric) cryptography this is achieved by encrypting wit

Frequently Asked Questions

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