UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 General Studies Paper I (Set A)

History — Solved Questions

1. Q1: Consider the following assertion: In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ga
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - Explanation: The assertion is a palaeo-drainage hypothesis, and the evidence cited for it is biogeographic. - Statement 3 is the basis: the same species of river dolphin (Platanista) occurs in bo
2. Q3: Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched? 1. Vitasta : Chenab 2. Asikni : Jhelum 3. Parushni : Ravi 4. Yavyavati : Beas
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Explanation: Only Parushni : Ravi is correctly matched. - Parushni is the Rigvedic name of the Ravi, and it is famous as the river on which the Dasarajna, the Battle of Ten Kings, was fought. - W
3. Q5: Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched? 1. Senguttuvan : Chera 2. Udiyanjeral : Chola 3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Explanation: The question asks which pairs are NOT correctly matched, so read it carefully. - Only pair 2 is wrong: Udiyanjeral (Perunchottu Udiyan Cheralathan) was a Chera ruler, not a Chola. -
4. Q6: Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939? 1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi. 2. The Congress Left was disunit
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Explanation: Subhas Chandra Bose won the Congress presidency at Tripuri in 1939 by defeating Gandhi's candidate Pattabhi Sitaramayya, but was then forced to resign and went on to form the Forward
5. Q7: Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856: 1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms a
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Explanation: Statement 2 is correct: the Summary Revenue Settlement of 1856 in Awadh proceeded on the assumption that the taluqdars were interlopers or outsiders with no permanent stake in the la
6. Q8: Consider the following assertion: The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919. Which of the following statements support/suppo
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - Explanation: All three statements support the assertion. - Statement 1: the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, given effect by the Government of India Act, 1919, retained separate electorates for Musli
7. Q10: In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate?
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Explanation: The term kshetra-patni, meaning "mistress of the field", occurs in the Atharvaveda. - The Atharvaveda carries a large body of practical and agricultural material — charms,
8. Q12: The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness. - Explanation: The Hilton-Young Commission, formally the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance (1926)
9. Q13: Consider the following statements: I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika. II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Explanation: Statement I records the first definite references to coins — kahapana, nikkha, kamsa and kakanika — in Pali texts, and Statement II notes that this literary evidence is corroborated
10. Q17: Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India: 1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat
    Answer: D — D
    The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - Explanation: All three statements are correct. - Statement 1: the earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat, dated AD 595-596, where t
11. Q18: Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns: I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels. II. Weights and measu
    Answer: A — A
    The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Explanation: Inference 1 follows from Statement I: spindle-whorls occur widely in houses but spinning wheels are absent, which indicates thread was spun by hand at home — a slow and laborious act
12. Q19: Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?
    Answer: C — C
    The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Explanation: The Bardoli Satyagraha (1928, Surat district, Gujarat) was a no-tax campaign against a steep enhancement of land revenue ordered by the Bombay government, and it was led by Vallabhbh
13. Q20: Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period: I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Harya
    Answer: C — C
    The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Explanation: Statement 1 supports the claim about well irrigation: the Rigveda refers to the ashma chakra, a stone pulley wheel, and the ahava, strapped wooden pails — precisely the apparatus for

Art & Culture — Solved Questions

1. Q2: What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - the meditation of the Buddha. - Early Buddhist art was aniconic: the Buddha was never shown in human form, and his presence and life events were conveyed through symbols. - Explanation: In this s
2. Q4: Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct? 1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley. 2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in si
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: the Amaravati Stupa stood in the lower Krishna valley, in present-day Andhra Pradesh. - Statement 3 is correct: the Amaravati school of sculpture had a lastin
3. Q9: Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - Explanation: Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur (1910-1992), the celebrated Hindustani classical vocalist from Karnataka, belonged to the Jaipur-Atrauli gharana. - He was trained in it by Manji Khan and B
4. Q11: Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - Explanation: Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music uses all seven shuddha (natural) swaras and corresponds to the natural major scale. - Its Carnatic counterpart is Dheera Shankarabharanam, the 29th m
5. Q14: Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara? 1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami 2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole 3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh 4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - The Nagara style is the North Indian temple form, marked by a curvilinear shikhara. - The Dravida style is the South Indian form, with a stepped, pyramidal vimana. - Explanation: The Huchimalligu
6. Q15: Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included?
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Explanation: Jain philosophy recognises four gatis, or states of existence, into which a soul may be born: Deva (gods), Manushya (humans), Tiryancha (animals and plants), and Naraki (hell-beings)
7. Q16: The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents:
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Explanation: The painting known as Hallisa Lasya in the Bagh Caves depicts a joyous folk dance. - The hallisaka or hallisa was a circular group dance performed by women, and lasya denotes the gra
8. Q27: Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct? 1. They acted as army fortresses. 2. T
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Moidams are the mound-burial vaults of the Tai-Ahom royalty and nobility, concentrated at Charaideo, the first capital of the Ahom kingdom, in Assam. - They are burial grounds — statement 3 alone
9. Q50: Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong': 1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children's and Family Film category
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - statements 1, 2 and 3 are all correct. - The film 'Boong': - Statement 1 is correct: it won the BAFTA (British Academy of Film and Television Arts) Award in the Children's and Family Film categor

Geography — Solved Questions

1. Q21: Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Tungurahua ('Throat of Fire' in Quechua) is an active stratovolcano in the Cordillera Oriental of the Andes in central Ecuador, standing about 5,023 m high near the town of Banos, roughly 140 km
2. Q23: With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate. 2. It receives rainf
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct: the Andaman and Nicobar Islands have a humid, tropical coastal climate, moderated by the surrounding sea, with temperatures generally in the 23–31 degrees C range and cons
3. Q24: Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India? 1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity 2. Presence of res
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct: parts of the western coast were submerged as a result of tectonic (faulting) activity in the early Tertiary period. - This submergence explains the west coast's straight,
4. Q29: Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct? 1. It is the largest desert lake in the world. 2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the S
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct: Lake Turkana is the world's largest permanent desert lake, and also the largest alkaline lake on Earth. - It lies in the Great Rift Valley and is fed chiefly by the Omo ri
5. Q35: Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information: 1. It has an antecedent drainage system. 2. It flows through three countries. 3. It originates in the Tibetan
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Checking the Sutlej against all four clues: - 1. Antecedent drainage — the Sutlej is older than the Himalayas. As the mountains rose, it maintained its course by cutting down through them, carvin
6. Q36: Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct? 1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States. 2. Rajasthan shares the longest internat
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - statements 2 and 3 are NOT correct. - Read the question carefully: it asks which statements are NOT correct. - This reversal is itself the trap. - Statement 1 IS correct (so it is not part of the
7. Q40: Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean? 1. Bahrain 2. Syria 3. Qatar 4. Egypt
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - The Strait of Hormuz is the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean. - It lies between Iran to the north and Oman/UAE to the south, connecting the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oma
8. Q86: Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries: 1. 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh. 2. Jh
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - Statement 3 is correct: the Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal, on the India-Nepal border in West Bengal. - Statement 1 is incorrect: the M

Environment & Ecology — Solved Questions

1. Q22: With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025. 2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct: Madhav National Park, in Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh, was notified as India's 58th Tiger Reserve in March 2025, and the 9th in Madhya Pradesh — the state with the
2. Q26: Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid): 1. It is an epiphytic orchid. 2. The species is endemic to North-east India. 3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Prade
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct: Rhynchostylis retusa, the Foxtail orchid, is an epiphyte — it grows on the trunks and branches of other trees for support, drawing moisture and nutrients from the air and
3. Q28: At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life. - The 'Four Betters' are the aspirations of the FAO Strategic Framework 2022–31, which guides all FAO work, including its
4. Q30: Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - the Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project. - The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project in Meghalaya is India's first Plan Vivo certified REDD+ project. - It is a community-led initiative of the Feder
5. Q31: Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change: I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissi
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - relationships 1 and 2 only. - This is a statement-relationship question: you judge how statements I, II and III relate, not merely whether each is true. - Relationship 1 is correct: Statement II
6. Q32: With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct: the Western Hoolock Gibbon is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List, and the Hoollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Jorhat district, Assam, is dedicated to it. - It is India
7. Q33: Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience? 1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal s
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - Statement 3 is correct: mangroves absorb and dissipate the energy of tidal surges, storm surges and cyclonic waves, acting as natural bio-shields for coastal settlements; at the same time they su
8. Q37: Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct? 1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct: Doyang Lake in Wokha district, Nagaland, is the celebrated example of community-led conservation. - Until 2012 tens of thousands of Amur Falcons were being trapped and hun
9. Q42: Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions un
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience) is a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest an

Economy — Solved Questions

1. Q25: Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India: I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - relationships 1 and 2 only. - This is a statement-relationship question: you are not judging whether I, II and III are individually true, but whether the stated relationships between them hold. -
2. Q34: In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy? 1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce rel
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - Statement 3 is correct: Vizhinjam International Seaport in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, is India's first dedicated deep-water container trans-shipment port. - Its structural significance rests on
3. Q38: Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)? 1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - Statement 3 is correct: Rainfed Area Development (RAD) is a component of the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA), and its core approach is the Integrated Farming System (IFS) — co
4. Q39: Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry? 1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Both statements describe genuine implications, and they are complementary rather than contradictory — which is what makes 'both' correct. - Statement 1 is correct: Oeko-Tex certification signals
5. Q52: An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - In dropshipping, the seller lists and prices products and takes the customer's order, but holds no inventory. - The order and shipping details are passed to a third-party supplier, who ships the
6. Q53: Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Access, Usage and Quality. - The RBI's Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index), first published in 2021, measures the extent of financial inclusion across the country on a scale of 0 to 100. - It is
7. Q54: Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative?
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - to break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks. - The Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is a government-backed initiative (under the DPII
8. Q55: Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - 'In both cases, the liability lies with the users and their respective banks' is NOT correct. - The question asks which statement is wrong. - For the Digital Rupee (CBDC), the currency is a direc
9. Q56: Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct? 1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology. 2
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - statements 1, 2 and 3 are all correct. - Real-World Asset (RWA) tokenisation issues blockchain-based digital tokens that represent ownership or a share in a physical or financial asset (real esta
10. Q57: A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called:
    Answer: C — C
    The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - A Sustainability Bond raises money whose proceeds finance (or refinance) a combination of both green (environmental) and social projects. - That dual purpose is exactly what defines it. - these f
11. Q58: Which of the following statements about M1xchange's role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct? 1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs. 2. M1xchange
    Answer: B — B
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - M1xchange is one of the RBI-licensed TReDS (Trade Receivables Discounting System) platforms. - Statement 2 is correct: it facilitates the discounting of invoices and bills of exchange — an MSME s
12. Q59: Which one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy?
    Answer: B — B
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - a situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment. - The crowding-out effect occurs when large-scale government borrowing to fund a fiscal de
13. Q60: Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct? 1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space explo
    Answer: A — A
    The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct: REEs are essential to modern technology — AI hardware, robotics, EVs, wind turbines, defence and space applications all rely on rare-earth magnets and phosphors. - Stateme
14. Q61: Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct? 1. 'Aviation Hull Insurance' covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment. 2. U
    Answer: C — C
    The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - both statements 1 and 2 are correct. - Statement 1 is correct: Aviation Hull Insurance covers physical loss of or damage to the aircraft itself — the airframe (body), engines and on-board equipme
15. Q62: Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct? 1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking s
    Answer: C — C
    The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - both statements 1 and 2 are correct. - Statement 1 is correct: crowdfunding is the solicitation of small amounts of money from a large number of people, typically through a web-based platform or
16. Q63: With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details: 1. R. N. Malhotra Committee, Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India, Insurance Regulatory and Development A
    Answer: B — B
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - only two rows are correctly matched. - Reading the third column as the authority that constituted each committee: - Row 2 (correct): the L. C. Gupta Committee on a roadmap for derivatives trading
17. Q64: Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India: 1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits. 2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the
    Answer: A — A
    The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct: NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits (chequable/withdrawable-on-demand accounts) — this is a core distinction from banks. - Statement 4 is correct: the DICGC deposit insura
18. Q65: Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI): 1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology. 2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators. 3.
    Answer: A — A
    The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct: the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is computed using the Alkire-Foster methodology (developed at OPHI, Oxford), which identifies who is poor across multiple deprivat

International Relations — Solved Questions

1. Q41: Match List I (INTERPOL Notice) with List II (Description): List I List II A. Silver Notice — 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies B. Blue Notice — 2. To collect additional information about a
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - INTERPOL issues colour-coded notices for international police cooperation. Matching each: - A. Silver Notice → 4 (to identify and trace criminal assets). This is INTERPOL's newest notice, piloted
2. Q43: The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit? 1. Signing of a Memorandum of Understand
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - statements 1 and 4 are NOT correct. - The question asks which listed outcomes did not occur during the German Chancellor's January 2026 visit to India, so the correct option lists the FALSE items
3. Q89: Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India? 1. Employment Policy Convention 2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention 3. International Convention on the Protection
   Answer: Deleted — Deleted
   This question was defective and has been discarded — no option is credited. The question asks which conventions India has not ratified. The factual position is: - India has ratified: (1) the ILO Employment Policy Convention (C122), (2) the
4. Q91: Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries? 1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project 2. IMT Trilateral Highway 3. Ag
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - ASEAN connectivity for India runs mainly through Myanmar and Thailand (both ASEAN members): - Project 1 — Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project: links Kolkata to Sittwe port in Myanmar, t
5. Q92: Match List I (Project Supported by India) with List II (Country): List I List II A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project — 1. Maldives B. Restoration of Stor Palace — 2. Afghanistan C. District Hospital a
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Matching each India-supported project to its country: - A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project → Bhutan (3): a 720 MW run-of-river project, part of India-Bhutan hydropower cooperation. - B. Restorat
6. Q94: Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation: 1. The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Statement 2 is correct: the Abu Dhabi Dialogue is a voluntary, non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination, to cooperate on contractual labour mobility
7. Q95: Consider the following UN organisations/agencies: 1. World Food Programme 2. United Nations Children's Fund 3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees 4. International Labour Organisation How ma
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Among the four, only the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize twice — in 1954 (for post-war refugee relief) and 1981 (for promoting refugee
8. Q96: Match List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation) with List II (Period of Operation): List I List II A. UNMIL — 1. 2007 – 2010 B. MINURCAT — 2. 2002 – 2005 C. MINUSTAH — 3. 2003 – 2018 D. UNMISET — 4. 2004 – 2
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Matching each UN peacekeeping operation to its period: - A. UNMIL (UN Mission in Liberia) → 2003-2018 (3). - B. MINURCAT (Central African Republic and Chad) → 2007-2010 (1). - C. MINUSTAH (UN Sta
9. Q97: Match List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment) with List II (Location): List I List II A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory — 1. NOIDA B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre — 2. Bengaluru C. BIMSTEC Centre for
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Matching each BIMSTEC establishment to its host location: - A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory → Thimphu, Bhutan (4). - B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre → Bengaluru, India (2) — housed at the Cen
10. Q100: Which of the following countries are members of the European Union? 1. Belarus 2. Poland 3. Germany 4. Switzerland
    Answer: C — C
    The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Poland and Germany (2 and 3). - 2. Poland — EU member (joined in 2004). ✓ - 3. Germany — EU member (a founding member, 1957). ✓ - 1. Belarus — NOT an EU member; it is a former Soviet republic ali

Science & Technology — Solved Questions

1. Q44: Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct? 1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India. 2.
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - both statements 1 and 2 are correct. - DHRUV64 is an indigenous microprocessor developed by C-DAC under the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY). - Statement 1 is correct: it is the third chip
2. Q45: The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct? 1. The
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) introduced a national standard for testing and assessing bomb-disposal systems. - Statement 1 is correct: the standard is designated IS 19445 : 2025. - Statem
3. Q46: X, born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify X:
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - X was born in the UK and was a professor at an American university when the prize was announced — this is John Clarke, awarded the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics. - Clarke was born in Cambridge, Eng
4. Q48: Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched?
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh (NOT correctly matched). - The question asks which pair is wrong. - Checking each semiconductor project's location: - (A) CG Power + Ren
5. Q49: Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct? 1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Pa
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - The Bharat Forecast System (BFS) is India's indigenous high-resolution weather-prediction model. - Statement 1 is correct: its objective is to generate very fine-scale forecasts down to the Panch
6. Q51: Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct? 1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Blockchain is a distributed, tamper-evident digital ledger. Checking each feature: - Statement 1 is correct: records can be made visible to relevant stakeholders while remaining tamper-resistant
7. Q66: Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct? 1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease. 2. Engineered viruses and lipid
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct: genetic medicines work by correcting, replacing or compensating for the faulty gene(s) responsible for a disease — the basis of gene therapy. - Statement 2 is correct: the
8. Q67: Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct? 1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one wit
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct: a Large Language Model predicts text by assigning probabilities to the next possible token/word and selecting a high-probability continuation (with some controlled randomn
9. Q68: Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct? 1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material. 2. Stealth ob
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct: stealth objects are designed for a very small radar cross-section (RCS) — through shaping — and are coated with Radar-Absorbing Material (RAM) that absorbs incident radar
10. Q69: Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct? 1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection. 2. They recor
    Answer: B — B
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Statement 2 is correct: an aircraft 'black box' is actually two recorders — the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) and the Flight Data Recorder (FDR) — capturing crew audio and hundreds of flight param
11. Q70: Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct? 1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS). 2. It
    Answer: B — B
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Statement 2 is correct: Green Hydrogen is produced by the electrolysis of water using electricity from renewable sources (solar, wind) — the process emits no carbon, which is what makes the hydro
12. Q71: Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme: 1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous
    Answer: C — C
    The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct: IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre) is an autonomous, single-window agency under the Department of Space, set up to promote, authorise and
13. Q72: Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct? 1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre. 2. Individual drones in the swarm can comm
    Answer: B — B
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Statement 2 is correct: in a drone swarm, individual drones communicate with one another (peer-to-peer) and coordinate autonomously — the essence of swarm behaviour, so the loss of one drone does
14. Q73: Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct? 1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project. 2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Gov
    Answer: B — B
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Statement 2 is correct: the GenomeIndia Project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India. - Statement 3 is correct: its primary aim is to build a comprehensive cata
15. Q74: Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct? 1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50 – 1000 physical qubits. 2. Its
    Answer: C — C
    The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - both statements 1 and 2 are correct. - Statement 1 is correct: the National Quantum Mission (NQM), approved in 2023, aims to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qub
16. Q75: Which of the following statements with regard to India's Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct? 1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India. 2. Matsya-6000 has
    Answer: B — B
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Statement 2 is correct: Matsya-6000, the crewed submersible, is designed to carry three people to a depth of 6,000 metres for deep-sea exploration. - Statement 3 is correct: Samudrayaan — India's
17. Q90: Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi: 1. The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras: People, Planning, and Pro
    Answer: D — D
    The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - The AI Impact Summit 2026 was held in New Delhi, concluding with the New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact. - Statement 3 is correct: the Declaration was structured around seven 'Chakras' (pillars),

Current Affairs — Solved Questions

1. Q47: Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct? 1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Gra
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - The four Grand Slam tennis tournaments are the Australian Open, French Open (Roland-Garros), Wimbledon and the US Open. - Statement 1 is correct: the four majors operate under a shared governance
2. Q85: Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India: 1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities. 2. This Mission is be
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Mission Sudarshan Chakra, announced by the Prime Minister on 15 August 2025, is a plan for a multi-layered national defence shield to be built by 2035. - Statement 1 is correct: it aims to streng
3. Q93: Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India? 1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets 2. T-90 MK-III Tanks 3. Akula Class Submarine
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Item 1 — Su-30 MKI fighter jets: built in India by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) at Nasik under licence from Russia's Sukhoi. ✓ - Item 2 — T-90 tanks: manufactured in India at the Heavy Veh
4. Q98: Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (Indian Army Corps — Headquarters)
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - '33 Corps — Srinagar' is NOT correctly matched. - Checking each Indian Army Corps headquarters: - (A) 3 Corps → Dimapur (Rangapahar, Nagaland) — correct. - (B) 4 Corps → Tezpur (Assam) — correct.

Ethics — Solved Questions

1. Q76: Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Mr. X detected quality compromise by a vendor, resisted pressure from vested interests, reported the matter to the vigilance authority and halted the contract to protect citizens. - By owning the
2. Q77: In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a was
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - statements 1, 3 and 4 only. - Good conflict resolution here is participatory, evidence-based and respectful of rights: - Statement 1 (contributes): beginning by acknowledging the tribal community
3. Q78: Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Ms. X holds unproven, confidential information about a shortlisted contractor. - The ethical course balances transparency with fairness and due process: - Option 3 is the right action: a 'limited

Indian Polity — Solved Questions

1. Q79: 'X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - the view of only 'Y' is correct. - Under Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution, the term 'law' is defined very broadly to include 'any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, cu
2. Q80: Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India: 1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially call
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - there is no correct statement (all three are false). - Each statement claims 'there is no Article' for something the Constitution in fact provides: - Statement 1 is false: Article 393 states, 'Th
3. Q81: Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct? 1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Statement 2 is correct: the Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) targets universal accessibility across three domains — the built environment, transport systems, and information &am
4. Q82: Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India: 1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the State
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - there are two correct statements, including statement 2. - Statement 2 is correct: under Section 10(26) of the Income-tax Act, members of certain Scheduled Tribes in specified areas are exempt fr
5. Q83: Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India: 1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House. 2. St
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - there is only one correct statement. - Statement 3 is correct: no supplementary questions can be asked on an unstarred question, because it receives only a written answer laid on the table (no or
6. Q84: Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India: 1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Ho
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - there is no correct statement (all four are false). - Statement 1 is false: the Chairperson of the Committee on the Welfare of SCs & STs is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (the Comm
7. Q87: Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct? 1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police sta
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - Statement 2 is correct: the Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR is lodged may, with the permission of a competent superior officer, initiate a preliminary enquiry — for certa
8. Q88: With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details: 1. Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB), To coordinate between various law enforcement agencie
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - none of the rows are correctly matched. - Row 1 is wrong: the Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) is under the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue) — not the Ministry of Home Affai
9. Q99: Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct? 1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026. 2. The k
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Statement 2 is correct: the key objective of the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is to develop the governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to deliver on the Su

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The Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2026 — General Studies Paper I has 100 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

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