BPSC 70th CCE Prelims 2024 — General Studies — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

General Science — Solved Questions

1. Q1: Dalton's atomic theory successfully explained: i. Law of conservation of mass. ii. Law of constant composition. iii. Law of radioactivity. iv. Law of multiple proportion.
   Answer: C — i, ii and iv
   The correct answer is i, ii and iv. Key Points - Dalton's atomic theory (1808) was the first modern scientific theory of matter and successfully explained three fundamental laws of chemical combination: the (i) Law of Conservation of Mass —
2. Q3: Which of the following acid is secreted in the stomach?
   Answer: D — Hydrochloric acid
   The correct answer is Hydrochloric acid. Key Points - The human stomach secretes Hydrochloric acid (HCl), produced by the parietal (oxyntic) cells in the lining of the stomach wall. - It creates a strongly acidic environment with a pH of ab
3. Q6: The meter that is used to measure the distance moved by the vehicle is known as
   Answer: D — Odometer
   The correct answer is Odometer. Key Points - An odometer is the instrument that measures the total distance travelled by a vehicle, shown on the dashboard. - The name derives from the Greek words hodos (meaning path) and metron (meaning mea
4. Q15: Heat transfer that does not require a medium is called
   Answer: A — Radiation
   The correct answer is Radiation. Key Points - Radiation is the mode of heat transfer that does not require any material medium — it can travel even through a vacuum. - Heat from the Sun reaches the Earth through radiation, crossing millions
5. Q16: Which type of rock is formed from cooling and solidification of lava?
   Answer: A — Igneous
   The correct answer is Igneous. Key Points - Igneous rocks are formed by the cooling and solidification of molten material — magma (below the surface) or lava (on the surface). - When lava erupted by a volcano cools and hardens, it forms ext
6. Q20: Which of the following represents the suitable condition for the liquefaction of gases?
   Answer: A — Low temperature, high pressure
   The correct answer is Low temperature, high pressure. Key Points - Gases are most easily liquefied under conditions of low temperature and high pressure. Lowering the temperature reduces the kinetic energy of the gas molecules so they move
7. Q24: Which of the following is an iron ore?
   Answer: C — Limonite
   The correct answer is Limonite. Key Points - Limonite is an ore of iron — a hydrated iron oxide (roughly Fe2O3·H2O) that is yellowish-brown in colour. - Along with haematite, magnetite and siderite, it is one of the principal ores from whic
8. Q31: Which component of fertilizer is used for stimulating early growth purpose?
   Answer: D — Phosphorus
   The correct answer is Phosphorus. Key Points - Phosphorus is the nutrient in fertilizers primarily responsible for stimulating early growth, especially strong root development, and for flowering, fruiting and seed formation. - It plays a ce
9. Q40: Which of the following are the constituents of a soda acid fire extinguisher?
   Answer: C — Dil. sulphuric acid and sodium bicarbonate solution
   The correct answer is Dil. sulphuric acid and sodium bicarbonate solution. Key Points - A soda-acid fire extinguisher contains a solution of sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃) together with a small bottle of dilute sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄). - When t
10. Q41: Which of the following bacterial diseases is called as splenic fever?
    Answer: B — Anthrax
    The correct answer is Anthrax. Key Points - Anthrax is the bacterial disease known as 'splenic fever', because in affected animals it causes a massive, dark enlargement of the spleen. - It is caused by the spore-forming bacterium Bacillus a
11. Q45: Which of the following radiation is used to get relief from body aches?
    Answer: A — Infra-red radiation
    The correct answer is Infra-red radiation. Key Points - Infra-red (IR) radiation is used to get relief from body aches and muscle pain. - Because infra-red waves carry heat, they penetrate the skin and provide deep-heat therapy, which impro
12. Q51: Which one of the following is an example of melamine used for making floor tiles?
    Answer: D — Thermosetting plastic
    The correct answer is Thermosetting plastic. Key Points - Melamine is a thermosetting plastic. Thermosetting plastics (thermosets) are polymers that, once moulded and set by heat, become permanently hard and cannot be softened or remoulded
13. Q56: In which organisms does spore formation occur as a mode of reproduction?
    Answer: Deleted — Deleted
    This question was deleted/cancelled from the official BPSC 70th CCE Prelims 2024 paper. Additional Information - BPSC withdrew this question when finalising the answer key, so it carried no marks for any candidate and the paper was evaluate
14. Q63: Which of the following is the first artificially prepared element?
    Answer: B — Tc (Technetium)
    The correct answer is Tc (Technetium). Key Points - Technetium (Tc, atomic number 43) was the first element to be produced artificially (synthetically). It was created in 1937 by Carlo Perrier and Emilio Segrè by bombarding molybdenum with
15. Q66: Which of the following is the fluid part of the blood?
    Answer: B — Plasma
    The correct answer is Plasma. Key Points - Plasma is the fluid (liquid) part of blood. It is a pale-yellow liquid that makes up about 55% of the total blood volume and is roughly 90-92% water, with the rest being proteins (albumin, globulin
16. Q70: Which of the following has a highly elongated elliptical orbit?
    Answer: B — Comet
    The correct answer is Comet. Key Points - Comets have highly elongated (eccentric) elliptical orbits around the Sun. - A comet is a body of ice, dust and rocky material ('a dirty snowball'); when it approaches the Sun, the ice vaporises and
17. Q79: What is the structural and functional unit of life?
    Answer: A — Cell
    The correct answer is Cell. Key Points - The cell is the basic structural and functional unit of life. Every living organism is made up of one or more cells, and all the essential life processes — growth, respiration, nutrition, excretion a
18. Q85: Which of the following is a non-contact force?
    Answer: A — Magnetic force
    The correct answer is Magnetic force. Key Points - Magnetic force is a non-contact force — a magnet can attract or repel magnetic materials (or another magnet) without physically touching them, acting across the space of its magnetic field.
19. Q93: For which of the following metals are corundum and cryolite important ores?
    Answer: A — Aluminium
    The correct answer is Aluminium. Key Points - Corundum and cryolite are important ores/minerals associated with aluminium. Bauxite is the chief ore of aluminium, but corundum is a form of aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃), and cryolite (Na₃AlF₆) is c
20. Q104: Which of the following represents the resistance of a wire (Ohm's law)?
    Answer: C — R = V/I
    The correct answer is R = V/I. Key Points - According to Ohm's law, the resistance of a wire is given by R = V/I, where V is the potential difference (voltage) across the wire and I is the current flowing through it. - Ohm's law states that
21. Q108: Which of the following are exothermic processes? i. Evaporation of water. ii. Dilution of an acid (H₂SO₄). iii. Reaction of water with quick lime. iv. Sublimation of camphor (crystals).
    Answer: B — ii and iii
    The correct answer is ii and iii. Key Points - An exothermic process releases heat to the surroundings. - Among the options: (ii) dilution of concentrated sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄) releases a large amount of heat (which is why acid is always a
22. Q113: Which of the following is the value of the solar constant?
    Answer: B — 1.4 kW/m²
    The correct answer is 1.4 kW/m². Key Points - The solar constant is approximately 1.4 kW/m² (about 1.36-1.37 kW/m², or roughly 1360-1370 watts per square metre). It is defined as the amount of solar energy received per unit area per unit ti
23. Q120: For which of the following functions is chlorophyll used in photosynthesis?
    Answer: D — Absorbing light
    The correct answer is Absorbing light. Key Points - The main function of chlorophyll in photosynthesis is to absorb light energy. Chlorophyll is the green pigment present in the chloroplasts of plant cells; it captures sunlight (mainly the
24. Q123: Which of the following is equivalent to Tesla (unit of magnetic field)?
    Answer: D — Newton per ampere-metre
    The correct answer is Newton per ampere-metre. Key Points - The tesla (T), the SI unit of magnetic flux density (magnetic field), is equivalent to Newton per ampere-metre (N/(A·m)). This comes directly from the formula for the force on a cu
25. Q128: Which of the following is a zaid (summer/short-season) crop?
    Answer: B — Fodder
    The correct answer is Fodder. Key Points - Among the given options, fodder is a Zaid crop. Zaid crops are short-duration crops grown in the summer season between the rabi and kharif seasons (roughly March to June), relying on irrigation. -
26. Q134: Which part of the alimentary canal receives bile from the liver?
    Answer: C — Small intestine
    The correct answer is Small intestine. Key Points - The small intestine (specifically its first part, the duodenum) receives bile from the liver. Bile is produced by the liver, stored and concentrated in the gall bladder, and released throu
27. Q139: Which of the following pairs will give displacement reactions?
    Answer: A — AgNO₃ solution and copper metal
    The correct answer is AgNO₃ solution and copper metal. Key Points - A displacement reaction occurs when a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its salt solution. - In silver nitrate (AgNO₃) solution with copper metal, co
28. Q143: The process of breaking down organic matter by micro-organisms is called
    Answer: C — Decomposition
    The correct answer is Decomposition. Key Points - Decomposition is the process of breaking down of dead organic matter by micro-organisms. Micro-organisms called decomposers — mainly bacteria and fungi — break down dead plants, animals and
29. Q148: Which of the following is a major cause of air pollution?
    Answer: B — Burning of fossil fuels
    The correct answer is Burning of fossil fuels. Key Points - The burning of fossil fuels is a major cause of air pollution. Combustion of coal, petroleum and natural gas in vehicles, power plants and industries releases large amounts of poll
30. Q150: Who was the first one to propose a model for the structure of an atom?
    Answer: D — J. J. Thomson
    The correct answer is J. J. Thomson. Key Points - J. J. Thomson was the first scientist to propose a model for the structure of the atom — his 'plum pudding' model (1904). - Having discovered the electron (1897), Thomson suggested that the

Geography — Solved Questions

1. Q2: Which of the following is a technopolis?
   Answer: A — Silicon Valley
   The correct answer is Silicon Valley. Key Points - A technopolis is a specialized urban area or region designed to promote and house high-tech industries, innovation and research. - It integrates cutting-edge infrastructure, technology hubs
2. Q9: Which of the following ports is an artificial port?
   Answer: D — Chennai
   The correct answer is Chennai. Key Points - Chennai (Madras) port is an artificial harbour — it has no natural shelter, so an artificial breakwater and enclosed basin had to be built out into the Bay of Bengal to protect ships from the open
3. Q18: Which of the following human races inhabits in China, Mongolia and Japan?
   Answer: C — Mongoloid
   The correct answer is Mongoloid. Key Points - The Mongoloid race is the human racial group that predominantly inhabits China, Mongolia and Japan, as well as much of East and Southeast Asia. - Typical physical features associated with this g
4. Q28: Following are the mountain ranges of India: 1. Garo Hills 2. Nandadevi 3. Kamet 4. K2 Which of the following is their correct sequence from east to west?
   Answer: D — 1, 2, 3, 4
   The correct answer is 1, 2, 3, 4. Key Points - Arranged from east to west, the correct sequence of these features is Garo Hills → Nanda Devi → Kamet → K2, i.e. 1, 2, 3, 4. - The Garo Hills (1) lie farthest east, in Meghalaya in the northeas
5. Q53: Which of the following is a cause of rural to urban migration in India?
   Answer: D — All the above
   The correct answer is All the above. Key Points - Rural-to-urban migration in India is driven by all the factors listed. These are classic 'push' and 'pull' factors: the high demand for labour in cities (a pull factor) draws people towards
6. Q61: Which one of the following rivers is different from the others?
   Answer: B — Narmada
   The correct answer is Narmada. Key Points - The Narmada is the odd one out because it flows westward, while the other three rivers flow eastward. The Narmada rises at Amarkantak and flows west through a rift valley to drain into the Arabian
7. Q68: Which of the following minerals occurs in the Minas Gerais province of Brazil?
   Answer: B — Iron ore
   The correct answer is Iron ore. Key Points - The Minas Gerais province of Brazil is famous for its huge deposits of iron ore. Its very name means 'General Mines' in Portuguese, and it is the heart of Brazil's mining industry, containing the
8. Q74: Which of the following cities is located along the side of river Seine?
   Answer: A — Paris
   The correct answer is Paris. Key Points - Paris, the capital of France, is situated on the banks of the River Seine. The Seine flows through the heart of the city, dividing it into the Right Bank and Left Bank, and many of Paris's famous la
9. Q95: Which of the following states of India has major reserves of coal?
   Answer: D — All the above
   The correct answer is All the above. Key Points - Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Odisha all have major coal reserves — together with West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh, they hold the bulk of India's coal. Most of India's coal comes from the Gondwa
10. Q140: The Andes mountain range extends along which of the following?
    Answer: D — West Coast of South America
    The correct answer is West Coast of South America. Key Points - The Andes mountain range extends along the western coast of South America, running north to south for about 7,000 km through countries such as Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Per

History — Solved Questions

1. Q4: Which of the following ruler ruled Assam in the time of Harsha?
   Answer: B — Bhaskar Varman
   The correct answer is Bhaskar Varman. Key Points - Bhaskar Varman was the most powerful ruler of the Varman dynasty of Kamarupa (ancient Assam) and reigned during the time of Harshavardhana (606–647 CE). - He was a close political ally of H
2. Q13: Match the following in context of the Pradhan of Ashta Pradhan system of Maratha rulers: Official Department a. Sachiva 1. Prime Minister b. Peshwa 2. Incharge of Correspondence c. Samant 3. Finance M
   Answer: A — a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
   The correct answer is a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3. Key Points - The Ashta Pradhan was the eight-minister council created by Chhatrapati Shivaji to run the Maratha administration. - Matching the officials with their departments: - Peshwa (b) → Prime
3. Q19: "Chach Nama" was translated to Persian by
   Answer: C — Muhammad Ali Bin Abu Bakr Kufi
   The correct answer is Muhammad Ali Bin Abu Bakr Kufi. Key Points - The 'Chach Nama' is a historical chronicle that describes the Arab conquest of Sindh by Muhammad bin Qasim (712 CE) and the earlier Chach dynasty. - Originally written in Ar
4. Q22: To highlight the hardships faced by the peasants, Sahajanand Saraswati published which newspaper?
   Answer: A — Lok Sangraha
   The correct answer is Lok Sangraha. Key Points - Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was the pioneering peasant leader of Bihar and the founder-president of the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (1929) and later the All India Kisan Sabha (1936). - To spr
5. Q25: Who was the founder of the Farazi Movement?
   Answer: A — Haji Shariatullah
   The correct answer is Haji Shariatullah. Key Points - The Farazi Movement was founded by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in the Faridpur district of Bengal (present-day Bangladesh). - It was a socio-religious reform movement among Muslim peasants
6. Q32: Malik Kafur also known as "Hazar Dinar" was bought by whom?
   Answer: C — Nusrat Khan
   The correct answer is Nusrat Khan. Key Points - Malik Kafur, later a powerful general of Alauddin Khilji, was originally a slave who was purchased by Nusrat Khan for about one thousand dinars during the conquest of Gujarat (1299) — which is
7. Q34: Who wrote "New Lamps For The Old"?
   Answer: B — Aurobindo Ghosh
   The correct answer is Aurobindo Ghosh. Key Points - 'New Lamps for Old' was a series of articles written by Aurobindo Ghosh in 1893-94, published in the newspaper 'Indu Prakash' of Bombay. - In these writings he sharply criticised the moder
8. Q36: Who was the President of the Indian National Congress at the Patna Session held in 1912?
   Answer: D — R. N. Madhulkar
   The correct answer is R. N. Madhulkar. Key Points - The Indian National Congress session of 1912 was held at Bankipore (Patna), and it was presided over by Rao Bahadur Raghunath Narasinha Mudholkar (R. N. Mudholkar / Madhulkar). - He was a
9. Q43: Ramkrishna Mission was founded by
   Answer: C — Swami Vivekanand in 1897
   The correct answer is Swami Vivekanand in 1897. Key Points - The Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda in 1897 at Belur (near Kolkata), in memory of his guru Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa. - Its headquarters is at the Belur Mat
10. Q46: Which of the following was the capital of the Chera dynasty?
    Answer: A — Kuravur/Karur
    The correct answer is Kuravur/Karur. Key Points - The capital of the Chera dynasty was Karur (also called Vanji/Kuravur), located in present-day Tamil Nadu. - The Cheras were one of the three great Sangam-age Tamil kingdoms (the muventar),
11. Q57: When did the British shift the capital to Delhi?
    Answer: A — 1912
    The correct answer is 1912. Key Points - The British transferred the capital of India from Calcutta to Delhi in 1912. The decision was announced by King George V at the Delhi Durbar on 12 December 1911, and the capital was formally shifted
12. Q65: Who gave the slogan "DO OR DIE" and when?
    Answer: C — Gandhiji during Quit India Movement
    The correct answer is Gandhiji during Quit India Movement. Key Points - The famous slogan 'Do or Die' (Karo ya Maro) was given by Mahatma Gandhi during the Quit India Movement of 1942. In his historic speech at the Gowalia Tank (August Kran
13. Q67: Consider the following about Ajivika sect: a. Makhali Gosala was its most important leader. b. Central idea of the philosophy was "NIYATI" that is fate. c. The discrimination on the basis of
    Answer: B — a, b and d are correct
    The correct answer is a, b and d are correct. Key Points - Regarding the Ajivika sect: statement (a) is correct — Makkhali Gosala was its most important teacher/leader and a contemporary of Mahavira and Buddha; statement (b) is correct — th
14. Q76: Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer: Organization Headquarter I. Swadeshi Sevak Home a. Vancouver II. United India House b. Seattle III. Yugantar Ashram c. San Francisco IV. INA or
    Answer: D — I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
    The correct answer is I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d. Key Points - Matching the revolutionary organisations abroad with their headquarters: Swadeshi Sevak Home (I) → Vancouver (a); United India House (II) → Seattle (b); Yugantar Ashram (III) → San
15. Q77: When did Muslim League observe "Direct Action Day"?
    Answer: C — 16 August 1946
    The correct answer is 16 August 1946. Key Points - The Muslim League observed 'Direct Action Day' on 16 August 1946, called by Muhammad Ali Jinnah to press its demand for a separate nation of Pakistan after rejecting the Cabinet Mission Pla
16. Q83: Consider the types of land according to the Amarkosha: a. Urvara — fertile b. Maru — desert c. Shadvala — grassy d. Devmatrika — watered by rain Which of the following is correct?
    Answer: D — More than one of the above
    The correct answer is More than one of the above. Key Points - According to the ancient Sanskrit lexicon Amarakosha (by Amarasimha), land was classified into several types, and all four descriptions given are correct: (a) Urvara — fertile l
17. Q87: Consider the following about the King "Pravarasena": a. He was the real founder of Vakataka dynasty. b. His empire extended from Bundelkhand in the north to Hyderabad in the south. c. He suc
    Answer: D — More than one of the above
    The correct answer is More than one of the above. Key Points - Regarding the Vakataka king Pravarasena I: he was the greatest and most powerful ruler who truly consolidated the dynasty, (b) his empire is described as extending from Bundelkh
18. Q88: Match the following and choose the correct answer: Newspaper Editor I. Free Hindustan a. Mahatma Gandhi II. Indian Opinion b. Dadabhai Naoroji III. Voice of India c. Surendranath Banerjee IV. Bengalee
    Answer: B — I-d, II-a, III-b, IV-c
    The correct answer is I-d, II-a, III-b, IV-c. Key Points - Matching the newspapers with their editors: Free Hindustan (I) → Taraknath Das (d); Indian Opinion (II) → Mahatma Gandhi (a); Voice of India (III) → Dadabhai Naoroji (b); and Bengal
19. Q100: Match the following and choose the correct answer: Political Organisation Founder I. Khaksars a. Subhash Chandra Bose II. Socialist Party b. Inayatullah Mashriqui III. Independent Labour Party c. Jaya
    Answer: B — I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
    The correct answer is I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a. Key Points - Matching the political organisations with their founders: Khaksars (I) → Inayatullah Khan Mashriqui (b); Socialist Party (II) → Jayaprakash Narayan (c); Independent Labour Party (II
20. Q112: Who headed the Royal Commission on Indian currency appointed in 1913?
    Answer: C — Sir Austin Chamberlain
    The correct answer is Sir Austin Chamberlain. Key Points - The Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance appointed in 1913 was headed by Sir Austin Chamberlain, and is commonly known as the Chamberlain Commission. - It was set up to e
21. Q114: Which of the following was NOT one of the features of the Government of India Act, 1935?
    Answer: C — Appraisal of the Act of 1935
    The correct answer is Appraisal of the Act of 1935. Key Points - The genuine features of the Government of India Act, 1935 included Provincial Autonomy (replacing dyarchy in the provinces), a proposal for an All-India Federation of province
22. Q121: The political strategy Struggle-Truce-Struggle (S-T-S) came into prominence with a call for
    Answer: Deleted — Deleted
    This question was deleted/cancelled from the official BPSC 70th CCE Prelims 2024 paper. Additional Information - BPSC withdrew this question when finalising the answer key, so it carried no marks for any candidate and the paper was evaluate
23. Q122: During the Quit India Movement, parallel "National Governments" were established at many places. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
    Answer: A — Raiyati Sarkar – Kheda (Gujarat)
    The correct answer is Raiyati Sarkar – Kheda (Gujarat). Key Points - During the Quit India Movement (1942), people set up parallel 'National Governments' in several areas where British authority had broken down. - The correctly matched ones
24. Q130: What was the chief economic foundation of the triangular commerce between India, China and England?
    Answer: B — Opium
    The correct answer is Opium. Key Points - Opium was the chief economic foundation of the triangular commerce between India, China and England in the 18th-19th centuries. - The British grew opium in India (notably in Bengal and Bihar) and ex
25. Q132: In October 1943, Subhash Chandra Bose set up a provisional government of free India which was recognized by how many countries including Japan?
    Answer: D — 9
    The correct answer is 9. Key Points - In October 1943, Subhas Chandra Bose set up the Provisional Government of Free India (Arzi Hukumat-e-Azad Hind) in Singapore, and it was recognised by nine countries, including Japan, Germany, Italy, Cr
26. Q138: Under the Royal Titles Act, Queen Victoria became the Empress of India in
    Answer: C — 1877
    The correct answer is 1877. Key Points - Queen Victoria assumed the title of 'Empress of India' (Kaiser-i-Hind), and this was formally proclaimed at the grand Delhi Durbar of 1 January 1877. The title was created under the Royal Titles Act,
27. Q144: Who among the following Indian capitalists was NOT an architect of the "Bombay Plan"?
    Answer: A — Dhirubhai Ambani
    The correct answer is Dhirubhai Ambani. Key Points - The 'Bombay Plan' (1944) was a set of proposals for the economic development of independent India, drawn up by leading industrialists. - Its architects included J. R. D. Tata, G. D. Birla

Current Affairs — Solved Questions

1. Q5: When was the undersea cable-based Chennai-Andaman and Nicobar (CANI) Project inaugurated and dedicated to the nation by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi?
   Answer: D — August 10, 2020
   The correct answer is August 10, 2020. Key Points - The Chennai–Andaman & Nicobar Islands (CANI) submarine optical fibre cable project was inaugurated and dedicated to the nation by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 10 August 2020 through
2. Q10: In April 2024, how many members of the UN Security Council either rejected or abstained from voting for the proposal to allow Palestine to become a full member of the UN?
   Answer: C — 3
   The correct answer is 3. Key Points - In April 2024, a resolution recommending full UN membership for Palestine was put to a vote in the UN Security Council. - The result was 12 votes in favour, 1 against and 2 abstentions. - The lone 'agai
3. Q11: In the Union Budget speech for 2024-25, which oilseeds were noted as not being covered under the goal of 'Atmanirbharta' (self-reliance) for oil?
   Answer: B — Coconut
   The correct answer is Coconut. Key Points - In the Union Budget 2024-25 speech, the Finance Minister announced a strategy to achieve 'Atmanirbharta' (self-reliance) in oilseeds, aiming to cut India's heavy dependence on imported edible oil.
4. Q12: Sheikh Ahmad Abdullah al-Ahmad al-Sabah was appointed as the new Prime Minister of which country in April 2024?
   Answer: D — Kuwait
   The correct answer is Kuwait. Key Points - Sheikh Ahmad Abdullah al-Ahmad al-Sabah was appointed the new Prime Minister of Kuwait in April 2024 by the Amir, Sheikh Meshal al-Ahmad al-Jaber al-Sabah. - He belongs to the ruling Al-Sabah famil
5. Q17: After elections to the 18th Lok Sabha, who was appointed as the Union Minister of Textiles in the Modi government?
   Answer: A — Giriraj Singh (Begusarai)
   The correct answer is Giriraj Singh (Begusarai). Key Points - After the 18th Lok Sabha elections (2024), Giriraj Singh, the BJP MP from Begusarai (Bihar), was appointed the Union Minister of Textiles in the Modi government. - He is a senior
6. Q21: Name the constituency from where the new Chief Minister of Odisha, Mohan Charan Majhi, was elected in the recent State Assembly elections.
   Answer: B — Keonjhar
   The correct answer is Keonjhar. Key Points - Mohan Charan Majhi, who became the Chief Minister of Odisha after the 2024 Assembly elections, was elected from the Keonjhar constituency. - A prominent tribal (Adivasi) leader of the BJP, he bec
7. Q26: Where was the top leader of Hamas, Ismail Haniyeh, assassinated on 31st July 2024, allegedly in an Israeli airstrike?
   Answer: C — Iran
   The correct answer is Iran. Key Points - Ismail Haniyeh, the top political leader (head of the political bureau) of Hamas, was assassinated on 31 July 2024 in Tehran, the capital of Iran, in a strike widely attributed to Israel. - He had be
8. Q30: After remaining neutral for almost 200 years, which one of the following countries officially joined NATO in March 2024?
   Answer: A — Sweden
   The correct answer is Sweden. Key Points - Sweden officially joined NATO in March 2024, becoming its 32nd member, ending roughly 200 years of military non-alignment/neutrality that it had maintained since the Napoleonic era. - Sweden, along
9. Q35: What was the theme of the International Olympic Day 2024, which is celebrated every year on 23rd June?
   Answer: D — Let's Move and Celebrate
   The correct answer is Let's Move and Celebrate. Key Points - International Olympic Day is celebrated every year on 23rd June to mark the founding of the International Olympic Committee (IOC) in 1894 by Pierre de Coubertin. - The theme adopt
10. Q42: Where was the Japan-India bilateral Maritime Exercise (JIMEX-24) held in 2024?
    Answer: A — Yokosuka, Japan
    The correct answer is Yokosuka, Japan. Key Points - JIMEX-24 (Japan-India Maritime Exercise 2024) was held off Yokosuka, Japan, in the Pacific. - It is a bilateral naval exercise between the Indian Navy and the Japan Maritime Self-Defense F
11. Q50: Which country took over the chairmanship of BRICS on January 1, 2024?
    Answer: B — Russia
    The correct answer is Russia. Key Points - Russia took over the rotating chairmanship of BRICS on 1 January 2024. BRICS is the grouping of major emerging economies; following its major expansion, its members now include the original five —
12. Q58: Zoji-la Tunnel will connect which of the following places?
    Answer: C — Srinagar and Leh
    The correct answer is Srinagar and Leh. Key Points - The Zoji-la Tunnel is being built to connect Srinagar (Kashmir Valley) with Leh (Ladakh) by providing all-weather road connectivity across the Zoji-la Pass on the Srinagar–Leh National Hi
13. Q59: Who is the author of the autobiography "I Have the Streets: A Kutti Cricket Story"?
    Answer: D — R. Ashwin and S. Monga
    The correct answer is R. Ashwin and S. Monga. Key Points - The autobiography 'I Have the Streets: A Kutti Cricket Story' was written by Indian cricketer Ravichandran Ashwin along with Sidharth Monga. - In it, the celebrated off-spinner reco
14. Q60: Where was the 13th Ministerial Conference of World Trade Organization (WTO) held in February 2024?
    Answer: B — Abu Dhabi
    The correct answer is Abu Dhabi. Key Points - The 13th Ministerial Conference (MC13) of the World Trade Organization (WTO) was held in Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates, in February 2024. - The Ministerial Conference is the highest decision-m
15. Q72: Name the place where Donald Trump was speaking at an election rally when an alleged shooter, Thomas Matthew Crooks, shot and injured him.
    Answer: A — Pennsylvania
    The correct answer is Pennsylvania. Key Points - Former US President and 2024 presidential candidate Donald Trump was shot and injured at an election rally in Butler, Pennsylvania, on 13 July 2024, in an assassination attempt. - The alleged
16. Q73: What is the position of India in manufacturing of mobile phones in 2023?
    Answer: B — 2nd
    The correct answer is 2nd. Key Points - India became the world's second-largest manufacturer of mobile phones, behind only China. - From being almost entirely dependent on imports a decade ago, India now assembles the vast majority of the m
17. Q78: In June 2024, which city was named India's "First UNESCO City of Literature"?
    Answer: B — Kozhikode
    The correct answer is Kozhikode. Key Points - In June 2024, Kozhikode (Calicut) in Kerala was designated India's first 'UNESCO City of Literature', joining the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) in the literature category. - The recognit
18. Q89: In which one of the following freestyle weight categories did Aman Sehrawat become the first Indian male wrestler to qualify for the 2024 Paris Olympics at the World Wrestling Olympic Qualifiers, Turk
    Answer: D — 57 kg
    The correct answer is 57 kg. Key Points - Aman Sehrawat became the first Indian male wrestler to qualify for the 2024 Paris Olympics — he did so in the 57 kg freestyle category at the World Olympic Qualifiers held in Istanbul, Türkiye, in M
19. Q97: In which Lok Sabha seat did one of India's Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), the Shompen tribe, for the first time exercise their democratic right to vote in April 2024?
    Answer: D — Andaman and Nicobar
    The correct answer is Andaman and Nicobar. Key Points - In April 2024, the Shompen tribe — one of India's Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) living on Great Nicobar Island — voted for the first time in a general election, in the
20. Q99: Which of the following centres in Bihar is proposed to be developed under Vishnupad Yojana for promotion of tourism in Union Budget 2024?
    Answer: D — Gaya
    The correct answer is Gaya. Key Points - In the Union Budget 2024-25, the government proposed to develop the Vishnupad Temple corridor at Gaya (Bihar) under a special scheme to promote tourism, on the lines of the Kashi Vishwanath Corridor.
21. Q101: Before his appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court of India in July 2024, Justice N. Kotiswar Singh was the Chief Justice of which High Court?
    Answer: A — Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh High Court
    The correct answer is Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh High Court. Key Points - Before his elevation as a judge of the Supreme Court of India in July 2024, Justice N. Kotiswar Singh was serving as the Chief Justice of the High Court of Jammu &a
22. Q107: Which one of the following is true about Ruchira Kamboj, who was the first woman to become the Indian Ambassador to the United Nations and recently retired?
    Answer: C — She held the position of Permanent Representative of India to UNESCO Paris
    The correct answer is She held the position of Permanent Representative of India to UNESCO Paris. Key Points - Ruchira Kamboj, a 1987-batch IFS officer, made history as the first woman to serve as India's Permanent Representative (Ambassado
23. Q116: Which community was categorized as Scheduled Caste (SC) by a 2015 Bihar government notification, which was quashed in July 2024 by the Supreme Court, ruling that states cannot make changes to the SC l
    Answer: B — Tanti-Tantwa
    The correct answer is Tanti-Tantwa. Key Points - In July 2024, the Supreme Court quashed a 2015 Bihar government notification that had merged the Tanti-Tantwa community into the Scheduled Caste (SC) category (clubbing it with the 'Pan/Sawas
24. Q117: Who won the Men's Singles title at the French Open Tennis Tournament 2024?
    Answer: D — Carlos Alcaraz
    The correct answer is Carlos Alcaraz. Key Points - Carlos Alcaraz of Spain won the Men's Singles title at the French Open (Roland Garros) 2024, defeating Alexander Zverev in the final. It was Alcaraz's first French Open title and his third
25. Q118: Who among the following achieved the distinction of being the first Indian mountaineer to scale Mount Everest and Mount Lhotse twice in one season?
    Answer: A — Satyadeep Gupta
    The correct answer is Satyadeep Gupta. Key Points - Satyadeep Gupta became the first Indian mountaineer to scale Mount Everest (8,849 m) and Mount Lhotse (8,516 m) twice each in a single climbing season (in 2024). - Everest is the world's h
26. Q133: What is the title of the film by Payal Kapadia for which she became the first Indian filmmaker to win the Grand Prix Award at the Cannes Film Festival in May 2024?
    Answer: A — All We Imagine as Light
    The correct answer is All We Imagine as Light. Key Points - Payal Kapadia became the first Indian filmmaker to win the Grand Prix at the Cannes Film Festival (May 2024) for her film 'All We Imagine as Light'. The Grand Prix is the second-hi
27. Q137: Who is the winner of the prestigious Goldman Environmental Prize 2024 from the region of Asia?
    Answer: B — Alok Shukla, India
    The correct answer is Alok Shukla, India. Key Points - Alok Shukla of India won the Goldman Environmental Prize 2024 from the Asia region. He led a successful grassroots campaign — the 'Hasdeo Aranya Bachao' movement — that helped protect t
28. Q142: What is the current profession of the young UP woman, Arti, who was conferred the Amal Clooney Women's Empowerment Award by King Charles III in May 2024?
    Answer: D — E-rickshaw driver
    The correct answer is E-rickshaw driver. Key Points - Arti, a young woman from Uttar Pradesh, who works as an e-rickshaw driver, was conferred the Amal Clooney Women's Empowerment Award by King Charles III in May 2024. The award, part of Th
29. Q145: Which country became the first to bring soil from the far side (dark side) of the Moon in June 2024?
    Answer: B — China
    The correct answer is China. Key Points - China became the first country in the world to bring back soil/samples from the far side (the 'dark side') of the Moon, through its Chang'e-6 mission in June 2024. The mission landed in the South Po

Indian Polity — Solved Questions

1. Q7: Which Amendment to the Constitution abolished the two seats that were reserved for the Anglo-Indian community?
   Answer: D — 104th
   The correct answer is 104th. Key Points - The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 (which came into force on 25 January 2020) abolished the provision for nominating members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha and the State Le
2. Q84: Under Article 243J, which of the following can make provisions for the maintenance of accounts by Panchayats?
   Answer: B — State Legislature
   The correct answer is State Legislature. Key Points - Under Article 243J of the Constitution (part of the 73rd Amendment on Panchayati Raj), the State Legislature may, by law, make provisions with respect to the maintenance of accounts by t
3. Q94: What is the eligibility age, after the changes made in March 2024, for senior citizens to vote by postal ballot?
   Answer: A — 85 years
   The correct answer is 85 years. Key Points - After the changes made in March 2024, the eligibility age for senior citizens to opt for voting by postal ballot was revised to 85 years (raised from the earlier threshold of 80 years). - This me
4. Q96: Which two words have been incorporated in the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment?
   Answer: D — Secular and Socialist
   The correct answer is Secular and Socialist. Key Points - The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were added to the Preamble of the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (often called the 'Mini-Constitution'), during the E
5. Q105: Which Article of the Constitution restricts a Member of Parliament from holding an office of profit?
   Answer: D — Article 102 (1) (a)
   The correct answer is Article 102 (1) (a). Key Points - Article 102(1)(a) of the Constitution provides that a person shall be disqualified from being a member of either House of Parliament if he holds any office of profit under the Governme
6. Q109: What is the object of "cut motion" in Parliament?
   Answer: A — To move a proposal to reduce expenditure in the budget proposals
   The correct answer is To move a proposal to reduce expenditure in the budget proposals. Key Points - A cut motion is a parliamentary device used by members (usually the opposition) during the discussion on the Demands for Grants (Budget) to
7. Q115: What is the current position of representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in Lok Sabha?
   Answer: A — Nomination of them has been done away with by the 104th Constitutional Amendment
   The correct answer is Nomination of them has been done away with by the 104th Constitutional Amendment. Key Points - Currently, there is no reserved nomination for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha. The provision (under Articles 3
8. Q125: Among the following, who has been Speaker of Lok Sabha prior to his election as President of India?
   Answer: C — Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
   The correct answer is Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy. Key Points - Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy served as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha before becoming the President of India. He was Speaker of the Lok Sabha and later became the sixth President of India (19
9. Q135: The Indian National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on which date?
   Answer: D — 22 July 1947
   The correct answer is 22 July 1947. Key Points - The Indian National Flag (the Tricolour) was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22 July 1947, a few weeks before Independence. - The design — three horizontal bands of saffron, white and
10. Q136: The size of the Council of Ministers has been restricted to 15 percent of the membership of the Lok Sabha by which Constitutional Amendment?
    Answer: C — 91st Amendment
    The correct answer is 91st Amendment. Key Points - The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, restricted the size of the Council of Ministers to a maximum of 15 percent of the total membership of the Lok Sabha (and, for states, 15% of the
11. Q141: By which time must the Governor return an ordinary bill to the concerned State Legislature for reconsideration?
    Answer: C — No time limit
    The correct answer is No time limit. Key Points - The Constitution prescribes no specific time limit within which the Governor must return an ordinary bill to the State Legislature for reconsideration. - Under Article 200, when a bill is pr
12. Q147: Who decides the disqualification of members of a State Legislative Assembly for matters other than those in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution?
    Answer: A — Governor
    The correct answer is Governor. Key Points - For questions of disqualification of a member of a State Legislative Assembly on grounds OTHER than those in the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection), the Governor takes the decision under Article 192

Reasoning — Solved Questions

1. Q8: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following? 16 21 7, 10 15 ?; 36 16 64; 15 10 13, 10 21 14
   Answer: A — 22
   The correct answer is 22. Key Points - This is a number-matrix (missing-number) reasoning question, where the numbers in each grid follow a fixed arithmetic relationship and the same rule is applied to find the missing term. - Applying the
2. Q23: How many times do the hands of a clock coincide in a day?
   Answer: D — 22
   The correct answer is 22. Key Points - The hands of a clock coincide (overlap) 22 times in a full day (24 hours). - In any 12-hour period the hands overlap only 11 times, not 12 — because between 11 o'clock and 1 o'clock the hands coincide
3. Q37: What is the 14th term of the sequence 14, 10, 6, 2, ... ?
   Answer: D — -38
   The correct answer is -38. Key Points - The sequence 14, 10, 6, 2, ... is an Arithmetic Progression (AP) with first term a = 14 and a common difference d = -4 (each term is 4 less than the previous one). - The nth term of an AP is given by
4. Q44: In a certain code language COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How will MEDICINE be written in that code language?
   Answer: C — EOJDJEFM
   The correct answer is EOJDJEFM. Key Points - This is a coding-decoding question. - The rule to convert COMPUTER → RFUVQNPC is: first reverse the word, then shift each interior letter one step forward in the alphabet, keeping the first and l
5. Q52: How many triangles are there in the figure PQRS given below? [Figure: Rectangle PQRS divided into multiple triangles]
   Answer: D — 12
   The correct answer is 12. Key Points - This is a figure-counting reasoning question in which all the triangles formed within the rectangle PQRS — including the small individual triangles and the larger triangles made by combining them — mus
6. Q62: If + means ÷, − means +, × means − and ÷ means ×, then find the value of: (36 × 4) ÷ 8 − 4 ───────────────── 4 + 8 × 2 + 16 ÷ 1
   Answer: B — 0
   The correct answer is 0. Key Points - This is a mathematical operator-substitution question. - First replace each symbol as defined — + becomes ÷, − becomes +, × becomes −, and ÷ becomes × — throughout both the numerator and the denominator
7. Q71: If February 1, 1996 is Wednesday, what day is March 3, 1996?
   Answer: C — Saturday
   The correct answer is Saturday. Key Points - We are told 1 February 1996 is a Wednesday, and 1996 is a leap year, so February has 29 days. - From 1 February to 1 March is exactly 29 days. - Since 29 ÷ 7 leaves a remainder of 1 odd day, 1 Ma
8. Q80: Gaurav walks 20 metres towards North. He then turns left and walks 40 metres. He again turns left and walks 20 metres. Further, he moves 20 metres after turning to the right. How far is he from his or
   Answer: C — 60 metres
   The correct answer is 60 metres. Key Points - Let us trace Gaurav's path using directions. - Starting at the origin, he walks 20 m North, then turns left (now facing West) and walks 40 m, then turns left again (now facing South) and walks 2
9. Q86: Motorcycle is related to Battery in the same way as Life is related to
   Answer: D — Sun
   The correct answer is Sun. Key Points - This is an analogy question. - Just as a Battery is the source of power/energy that runs a Motorcycle, the Sun is the ultimate source of energy for Life on Earth. - The relationship in both pairs is t
10. Q92: Choose the group of letters which is different from others.
    Answer: B — PSVX
    The correct answer is PSVX. Key Points - In this odd-one-out question, we check the gap between consecutive letters in each group. - In ORUX: O→R, R→U, U→X are each +3. - In CFIL: C→F, F→I, I→L are each +3. - In JMPS: J→M, M→P, P→S are each

Economy — Solved Questions

1. Q14: According to the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) data from the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, which indices experienced significant growth in Financial Year 2023?
   Answer: D — Capital goods and infrastructure/construction goods
   The correct answer is Capital goods and infrastructure/construction goods. Key Points - The Index of Industrial Production (IIP), released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), measures the growth of industrial
2. Q27: According to a CRISIL Rating report, how much is the corporate bond market expected to grow by Financial Year 2030 in India?
   Answer: A — ₹100-120 lakh crore
   The correct answer is ₹100-120 lakh crore. Key Points - According to a CRISIL Ratings report, India's corporate bond market is expected to grow to about ₹100-120 lakh crore by Financial Year 2030, roughly doubling from its size in the mid-2
3. Q38: What were the shares of the Agriculture, Industry and Services sectors in overall GVA at current prices in Financial Year 2024 according to the Economic Survey 2023-24?
   Answer: A — 17.7%, 27.6% and 54.7%
   The correct answer is 17.7%, 27.6% and 54.7%. Key Points - According to the Economic Survey 2023-24, the shares of the three broad sectors in India's overall Gross Value Added (GVA) at current prices in FY 2024 were approximately: Agricultu
4. Q49: By how much did the Female Labour Force Participation Rate increase from 2017-18 to 2022-23, according to the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)?
   Answer: B — From 23.3% to 37%
   The correct answer is From 23.3% to 37%. Key Points - According to the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) / Periodic Labour Force Survey data, the Female Labour Force Participation Rate (FLFPR) in India rose from about 23.3% in 2017-18 to
5. Q54: According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), what is the forecast for headline inflation in Financial Year 2025?
   Answer: Deleted — Deleted
   This question was deleted/cancelled from the official BPSC 70th CCE Prelims 2024 paper. Additional Information - BPSC withdrew this question when finalising the answer key, so it carried no marks for any candidate and the paper was evaluate
6. Q64: What is the full form of CGTMSE?
   Answer: D — Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises
   The correct answer is Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises. Key Points - CGTMSE stands for the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises. It was set up in 2000 by the Government of India together wit
7. Q75: According to the Reserve Bank of India, what is one of the eligibility criteria for a Small Finance Bank (SFB) to transition into a Universal Bank?
   Answer: D — Minimum net worth of ₹1,000 crore
   The correct answer is Minimum net worth of ₹1,000 crore. Key Points - According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines for the voluntary transition of a Small Finance Bank (SFB) into a Universal Bank, one key eligibility criterion is
8. Q81: Which one is NOT included in the Budget Priorities in pursuit of 'Vikasit Bharat' in Union Budget 2024-25?
   Answer: C — Sustainable Development
   The correct answer is Sustainable Development. Key Points - The Union Budget 2024-25 laid out nine priorities in pursuit of 'Viksit Bharat' (Developed India), including Productivity and Resilience in Agriculture, Employment and Skilling, Ma
9. Q131: What is the full form of PCRA?
   Answer: C — Petroleum Conservation Research Association
   The correct answer is Petroleum Conservation Research Association. Key Points - PCRA stands for the Petroleum Conservation Research Association. It is a registered society set up under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, Government o

Bihar Studies — Solved Questions

1. Q29: Match List-I with List-II: List-I List-II a. Vaishali 1. Silk Textile b. Bhagalpur 2. Gold c. Jamui 3. Rail coach factory d. Madhepura 4. Floriculture Select the correct answer using the codes given b
   Answer: C — a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
   The correct answer is a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3. Key Points - Matching the Bihar districts with what they are known for: Vaishali (a) → Floriculture (4); Bhagalpur (b) → Silk Textile (1); Jamui (c) → Gold (2); and Madhepura (d) → Rail Coach Factor
2. Q33: In which of the following years was the Bihar State Hydroelectric Power Corporation established?
   Answer: B — 1982
   The correct answer is 1982. Key Points - The Bihar State Hydroelectric Power Corporation (BSHPC) was established in 1982 to develop and manage hydroelectric power generation in the state. - It was set up to harness the hydro potential of Bi
3. Q39: In which city of Bihar is the recently inaugurated National Dolphin Research Centre located?
   Answer: B — Patna
   The correct answer is Patna. Key Points - The National Dolphin Research Centre (NDRC), India's first dedicated research centre for the Gangetic dolphin (Platanista gangetica) — the National Aquatic Animal of India — was inaugurated in Patna
4. Q47: The book critical of the British Policies "Gharib Hindustan" was banned in Bihar in 1930 by the British. It was written by
   Answer: B — Mohd. Wali Hassan
   The correct answer is Mohd. Wali Hassan. Key Points - The book 'Gharib Hindustan', which was critical of British policies, was written by Mohammad Wali Hassan and was banned by the British in Bihar in 1930, during the height of the Civil Di
5. Q48: What is the contribution of agriculture in the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of Bihar?
   Answer: Deleted — Deleted
   This question was deleted/cancelled from the official BPSC 70th CCE Prelims 2024 paper. Additional Information - BPSC withdrew this question when finalising the answer key, so it carried no marks for any candidate and the paper was evaluate
6. Q55: "The Hundred Years of Indian National Congress in Bihar" was edited by
   Answer: B — P. N. Ojha
   The correct answer is P. N. Ojha. Key Points - The book 'The Hundred Years of Indian National Congress in Bihar' was edited by P. N. Ojha. - It documents the history and role of the Indian National Congress in the province of Bihar over its
7. Q69: The first Hindi daily newspaper to be published in Bihar was
   Answer: C — Sarwa Hitaishi
   The correct answer is Sarwa Hitaishi. Key Points - The first Hindi daily newspaper published in Bihar was 'Sarwa Hitaishi' (also spelt Sarva Hitaishi). - It marked an important milestone in the growth of Hindi journalism and the spread of n
8. Q82: Which of the following drainage systems drains the lands of Bihar?
   Answer: A — Ghagra
   The correct answer is Ghagra. Key Points - Among the given options, the Ghaghara (also spelt Ghagra) river system drains part of the lands of Bihar. The Ghaghara is a major north-bank tributary of the Ganga, rising in the Himalayas and join
9. Q90: Which of the following districts of Bihar has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population in the 2011 census?
   Answer: A — Katihar
   The correct answer is Katihar. Key Points - According to the 2011 Census, among the given districts, Katihar has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe (ST) population. Bihar has a relatively small tribal population overall (most of the
10. Q91: Which sector received the highest allocation in the Bihar Budget 2024-25?
    Answer: D — Education
    The correct answer is Education. Key Points - In the Bihar Budget 2024-25, the Education sector received the highest allocation. Education has consistently been the single largest head of expenditure in Bihar's budgets, reflecting the state
11. Q98: What was the Per Capita Net State Domestic Product at Current Prices for Bihar for the fiscal year 2022-23, based on the base year 2011-12?
    Answer: A — ₹54,111
    The correct answer is ₹54,111. Key Points - The Per Capita Net State Domestic Product (NSDP) of Bihar at current prices for the fiscal year 2022-23 (base year 2011-12) was approximately ₹54,111. Per capita NSDP is the net value of goods and
12. Q102: The Sikh pilgrimage site "Takhat Sri Harimandir Ji Patna Sahib", which is considered the second holiest Takhat, is located at
    Answer: C — Patna
    The correct answer is Patna. Key Points - 'Takht Sri Harmandir Ji, Patna Sahib' is located in Patna, Bihar. It is one of the five Takhts (seats of Sikh temporal authority) and marks the birthplace of the tenth Sikh Guru, Guru Gobind Singh (
13. Q103: Bihula Festival is celebrated especially in which one of the following districts in Bihar, usually in the month of August each year?
    Answer: A — Bhagalpur
    The correct answer is Bhagalpur. Key Points - The Bihula festival is celebrated especially in the Bhagalpur region of Bihar, usually in the month of August. - It is associated with the folk legend of Bihula and Bishahari (Manasa, the serpen
14. Q106: Which of the following great rulers founded the "Haryanka Vansh" in ancient Bihar?
    Answer: A — Bimbisara
    The correct answer is Bimbisara. Key Points - Bimbisara founded the Haryanka dynasty of Magadha (in ancient Bihar) and ruled from around 544 BCE, with his capital at Rajgir (Girivraja). - He was a contemporary of both Gautam Buddha and Maha
15. Q110: Who presented the Bihar Budget 2024-25 in the State Assembly?
    Answer: D — Shri Samrat Choudhary
    The correct answer is Shri Samrat Choudhary. Key Points - The Bihar Budget 2024-25 was presented in the State Assembly by Shri Samrat Choudhary, the Deputy Chief Minister of Bihar, who also held the Finance portfolio. The Finance Minister o
16. Q111: When did the new province of Bihar come into force during British rule?
    Answer: A — April 1912
    The correct answer is April 1912. Key Points - The new province of Bihar (Bihar and Orissa) came into existence in April 1912, when it was carved out of the Bengal Presidency. - This followed the reorganisation announced along with the shif
17. Q119: What is the sex ratio in Bihar as per the Census 2011 of India?
    Answer: A — 918
    The correct answer is 918. Key Points - According to the Census of India 2011, the sex ratio of Bihar was 918 females per 1000 males. - This was below the national average of 943 for that census, placing Bihar among the states with a relati
18. Q124: Which dynasty ruled Magadh (Bihar) after the Shishunaga dynasty?
    Answer: C — Nanda Vansh
    The correct answer is Nanda Vansh. Key Points - In the succession of dynasties that ruled Magadha (Bihar), the Nanda dynasty came to power after the Shishunaga dynasty. The Nandas, founded by Mahapadma Nanda, built a vast and wealthy empire
19. Q126: When did Bihar State introduce the Green Budget for the first time?
    Answer: A — Financial Year 2020-21
    The correct answer is Financial Year 2020-21. Key Points - Bihar introduced its first 'Green Budget' in the Financial Year 2020-21. A Green Budget is an environment-focused budgeting exercise that consolidates and highlights the allocations
20. Q127: Manvi Madhu Kashyap recently became Bihar's first transgender
    Answer: D — Sub-Inspector of Police
    The correct answer is Sub-Inspector of Police. Key Points - Manvi Madhu Kashyap became Bihar's first transgender Sub-Inspector of Police, a landmark achievement for the transgender community in the state. - She cleared the Bihar Police Sub-
21. Q129: Shreyasi Singh, Member of the Legislative Assembly, who represented India in shooting at the Paris Olympics 2024, was elected from which constituency in Bihar?
    Answer: C — Jamui
    The correct answer is Jamui. Key Points - Shreyasi Singh, the shooter who represented India at the Paris Olympics 2024, is a Member of the Bihar Legislative Assembly (MLA) elected from the Jamui constituency. A national and Commonwealth Gam
22. Q146: What is the name of the one-month-long cattle fair organised at the confluence of the Ganga and Gandak rivers?
    Answer: B — Sonepur Mela
    The correct answer is Sonepur Mela. Key Points - The Sonepur Mela (Sonepur Cattle Fair), held in Bihar at the confluence of the Ganga and Gandak rivers, is a famous month-long fair. - Traditionally believed to be Asia's largest cattle fair,
23. Q149: Munger Hilly region is a part of which of the following physiographic regions?
    Answer: A — Southern Hilly Region
    The correct answer is Southern Hilly Region. Key Points - The Munger hilly region is part of the Southern Hilly Region of Bihar. Bihar is broadly divided into three physiographic regions: the North Bihar Plain, the South Bihar Plain, and th

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are there in the BPSC 70th CCE Prelims 2024 — General Studies?

The BPSC 70th CCE Prelims 2024 — General Studies has 150 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

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The BPSC 70th CCE Prelims 2024 — General Studies was held on 13 December 2024.

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Yes. BPSC CCE deducts 0.33 marks for every wrong answer, so accuracy matters as much as attempting more questions.

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