JKCCE Prelims 2025 — General Studies Paper I (Set B) — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

Environment & Ecology — Solved Questions

1. Q1: What is the permissible limit of noise pollution, prescribed by CPCB during night time?
   Answer: A — Less than 40 dB
   The correct answer is Less than 40 dB. Key Points - CPCB prescribes ambient noise limits by area type. - Silence zones (around hospitals, courts, educational institutions) have the strictest night-time limit of 40 dB, which falls in the &qu
2. Q3: What is the correct increasing order of Global Warming Potential of the following Greenhouse Gases? I. Methane II. Fluorinated Gases III. Carbon dioxide IV. Nitrous Oxide Select the correct answer usi
   Answer: D — III, I, IV, II
   The correct answer is III, I, IV, II. Key Points - Global Warming Potential (GWP, 100-year): CO₂ (III) = 1 (baseline) < Methane (I) ≈ 25–28 < Nitrous Oxide (IV) ≈ 265–298 < Fluorinated gases (II) = thousands to tens of thousands. -
3. Q38: Consider the following statements regarding the Blue Flag Certification: I. It is an internationally recognised eco-label awarded by the Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE) in Denmark. II. Th
   Answer: C — Both I and II
   The correct answer is Both I and II. Key Points - Blue Flag Certification: It is indeed awarded by the Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE), headquartered in Denmark (I ✓). - Chandrabhaga Beach in Odisha's Konark was the first India
4. Q39: Which of the following traditional cultivation techniques practiced by the Kondh tribes is under threat due to the monocropping of Eucalyptus?
   Answer: B — Dongar cultivation
   The correct answer is Dongar cultivation. Key Points - The Kondh tribes of Odisha practice "Dongar" (also called "Podu") cultivation — a form of shifting cultivation in forested hill areas. - This traditional practice is
5. Q66: Which of the following statements about coral reefs in India is/are correct? Statement 1: The Fourth Global Coral Bleaching Event (GCBE4) has not impacted the coral reefs of India in regions such as t
   Answer: A — Only one statement
   The correct answer is Only one statement. Key Points - Statement 1 is incorrect — the 4th Global Coral Bleaching Event (2024) DID impact Indian reefs (Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep, Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of Kachchh). - Statement 2 is co
6. Q74: Arrange the following Biosphere Reserves of India in the chronological order of their establishment: 1. Gulf of Mannar, Tamil Nadu 2. Simlipal, Odisha 3. Pachmarhi, Madhya Pradesh 4. Agasthyamalai, Ta
   Answer: A — Gulf of Mannar, Simlipal, Pachmarhi, Agasthyamalai, Kachchh
   The correct answer is Gulf of Mannar, Simlipal, Pachmarhi, Agasthyamalai, Kachchh. Key Points - Chronological order of Biosphere Reserve establishment in India: Gulf of Mannar, Tamil Nadu (1989) → Simlipal, Odisha (1994) → Pachmarhi, Madhya
7. Q90: Consider the following statements regarding the Lion-tailed Macaque (Macaca silenus): I. It is strictly arboreal in its habits. II. It is endemic to the Western Ghats. III. It is classified as "C
   Answer: B — I and II only
   The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Lion-tailed Macaque (Macaca silenus): It is strictly arboreal — it lives and forages almost exclusively in trees (I ✓). - It is endemic to the Western Ghats of India (II ✓). - It is classifi
8. Q91: Which of the following organisms breed only once in their lifetime (semelparous species)? I. Pelagic fishes II. Oysters III. Pacific salmon fish IV. Bamboo Select the correct answer using the code giv
   Answer: D — III and IV
   The correct answer is III and IV. Key Points - Semelparous species reproduce only once in their lifetime: Pacific salmon (III ✓ — die after spawning) and Bamboo (IV ✓ — monocarpic, flowers once then dies). - Pelagic fishes (I) and oysters (
9. Q92: Recently, patches of coral reefs have been reported in which of the following locations in India? I. Ratnagiri II. Malvan and Redi III. Gaveshani Bank IV. South Bombay Which of the statements given ab
   Answer: C — I, II, III and IV
   The correct answer is I, II, III and IV. Key Points - Recent coral reef patch discoveries in India: Malvan and Redi (both in Maharashtra coastal areas, II ✓) and Gaveshani Bank (off Karnataka coast near Karwar, III ✓) have been reported. -
10. Q93: Identify the States in India that have approved Plastic Parks: I. Uttarakhand II. Maharashtra III. Madhya Pradesh IV. Jharkhand Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    Answer: B — I, III and IV only
    The correct answer is I, III and IV only. Key Points - States approved for Plastic Parks under the Ministry of Chemicals and Petrochemicals: Uttarakhand (I ✓), Madhya Pradesh (III ✓), and Jharkhand (IV ✓). - Maharashtra (II) is not among th
11. Q94: Which of the following birds exhibit brood parasitism? I. Indigobird II. Common Cuckoo III. Honeyguide IV. Eagle V. Pigeon VI. Cowbirds Choose the correct answer:
    Answer: D — I, II, III and VI
    The correct answer is I, II, III and VI. Key Points - Brood parasitism (laying eggs in another species' nest): Indigobird (I ✓ — parasitizes finches), Common Cuckoo (II ✓ — the classic example), Honeyguide (III ✓ — parasitizes bee-eaters),
12. Q96: Find the correctly matched extinct species and their countries: Species — Country 1. Dodo — 1. Mauritius 2. Quagga — 2. Australia 3. Thylacine — 3. Africa 4. Steller's sea cow — 4. Russia Which of the
    Answer: B — 1 and 4 only
    The correct answer is 1 and 4 only. Key Points - Correctly matched extinct species: Dodo — Mauritius (1-1 ✓), Steller's sea cow — Russia/Commander Islands (4-4 ✓). - Quagga was a South African zebra subspecies — NOT from Australia (pair 2 ✗
13. Q97: International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) became a treaty-based intergovernmental organization after ratification by five countries. Which of the following combinations is/are correct?
    Answer: D — India, Liberia, Eswatini, Somalia, and Nicaragua
    The correct answer is India, Liberia, Eswatini, Somalia, and Nicaragua. Key Points - The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) became a treaty-based intergovernmental organization after ratification by five founding countries: India, Liberi
14. Q98: Consider the following statements regarding Carbon Pricing: I. Carbon pricing is a policy tool that puts a financial cost on greenhouse gas emissions, primarily methane. II. It works by making emitter
    Answer: B — II only
    The correct answer is II only. Key Points - Statement I is incorrect — carbon pricing is a policy tool that assigns financial cost to ALL greenhouse gas emissions (primarily CO₂, not primarily methane). - Methane is one of many covered gase
15. Q100: Consider the following statements: I. The Montreux Record is maintained under the Ramsar Convention as part of the List of Wetlands of International Importance. II. In India, Keoladeo National Park (R
    Answer: A — I only
    The correct answer is I only. Key Points - Statement I: The Montreux Record is maintained under the Ramsar Convention as part of the Ramsar List of Wetlands of International Importance — it lists wetlands where ecological character has chan

Geography — Solved Questions

1. Q2: Amount of destruction caused by an earthquake is measured by:
   Answer: D — Mercalli Scale
   The correct answer is Mercalli Scale. Key Points - The Richter scale measures the magnitude (energy released) of an earthquake. - The Modified Mercalli Intensity (MMI) scale measures the intensity of ground shaking and destruction at a spec
2. Q67: The equator does NOT pass through which of the following African countries?
   Answer: B — Cameroon
   The correct answer is Cameroon. Key Points - The equator in Africa passes through Gabon, Republic of Congo, DR Congo, Uganda, Kenya, and Somalia. - Cameroon lies entirely north of the equator (between 2°N and 13°N latitude); the equator doe
3. Q70: The longitudinal extent of India is:
   Answer: B — 68°7' E to 97°25' E
   The correct answer is 68°7' E to 97°25' E. Key Points - India's longitudinal extent is approximately 68°7'E (westernmost point near Rann of Kachchh, Gujarat) to 97°25'E (easternmost point in Arunachal Pradesh — Kibithu). - The latitudinal e
4. Q72: Match the indigenous cattle breeds with their corresponding regions of origin in India: Breed — Region of Origin a. Bargur — i. Karnataka b. Hallikar — ii. Kerala c. Vechur — iii. Tamil Nadu d. Bachau
   Answer: A — a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
   The correct answer is a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv. Key Points - Indigenous cattle breeds and regions: Bargur — Tamil Nadu (a-iii) ✓, Hallikar — Karnataka (b-i) ✓, Vechur — Kerala (c-ii) ✓ (world's smallest cattle breed), Bachaur — Bihar (d-iv) ✓

Economy — Solved Questions

1. Q4: Which of the following indicators are used to calculate the Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI)? I. Infant mortality rate II. Life expectancy at age one III. Standard of living (income per capita) W
   Answer: A — I and II only
   The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - The Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI), developed by Morris D. Morris, uses three indicators: (1) infant mortality rate, (2) life expectancy at age one, and (3) basic literacy rate. - Inc
2. Q5: Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Currency depreciation always leads to an improvement in the trade balance. Reason (R): The real exchange rate adjusts the nominal exchange rate for di
   Answer: B — Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
   The correct answer is Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. Key Points - Currency depreciation does not always improve trade balance — the Marshall-Lerner condition must be satisfied, and the J-curve effect means
3. Q6: Consider the following statements: I. The Exchange Rate Mechanism (ERM) of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) facilitates currency convertibility among member countries. II. Under a flexible foreig
   Answer: B — II only
   The correct answer is II only. Key Points - Statement I is incorrect: the Exchange Rate Mechanism (ERM) is a European Union mechanism (formerly European Monetary System), not an IMF instrument. - Statement II is correct: under a flexible ex
4. Q7: As per the Union Budget 2025-26, what target (in gigawatts) has been set for nuclear power capacity by the year 2047?
   Answer: C — 100 GW (gigawatts)
   The correct answer is 100 GW (gigawatts). Key Points - The Union Budget 2025-26 set a target of 100 GW of nuclear power capacity by 2047, reflecting India's ambition to diversify its clean energy mix under the Viksit Bharat 2047 framework.
5. Q10: Match the following key deficit indicators with their respective values in percentage of GDP for the Financial Year 2025-26 as per the Union Budget: i. Primary Deficit — a. 0.3 percent ii. Effective R
   Answer: A — i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
   The correct answer is i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b. Key Points - As per Union Budget 2025-26 (% of GDP): Fiscal Deficit = 4.4% (iv-b), Revenue Deficit = 1.5% (iii-d), Effective Revenue Deficit = 0.3% (ii-a), Primary Deficit = 0.8% (i-c). - Primar
6. Q13: The following countries are India's top five trade partners in Financial Year 2024-25. Choose the correct sequence in terms of trade values in decreasing order: I. UAE II. USA III. China IV. Russia V.
   Answer: B — II, III, I, IV, V
   The correct answer is II, III, I, IV, V. Key Points - India's top five trade partners by total trade value in FY 2024-25 in decreasing order: USA (II) China (III) UAE (I) Russia (IV) Saudi Arabia (V). - The USA surpassed China as India's la
7. Q15: Match the following countries with the year in which they crossed the pre-pandemic GDP (constant prices, national currency): Countries — Year 1. India — i. 2020 2. China — ii. 2021 3. Japan — iii. 202
   Answer: C — 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
   The correct answer is 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii. Key Points - Recovery to pre-pandemic GDP levels (constant prices): China (2020, first major economy to recover), India (2021), United Kingdom (2022), Japan (2023). - Correct match: 1-India-ii(2
8. Q18: Which of the following pairs of Chairperson and their respective Finance Commission are correctly matched? I. 10th Finance Commission — KC Pant II. 12th Finance Commission — Dr. C Rangarajan III. 13th
   Answer: D — I, II, III and IV
   The correct answer is I, II, III and IV. Key Points - Finance Commission Chairpersons: 10th (1995–2000) — KC Pant ✓, 12th (2005–10) — Dr. C. Rangarajan ✓, 13th (2010–15) — Vijay Kelkar ✓, 14th (2015–20) — Dr. YV Reddy ✓. - All four pairs ar
9. Q71: Consider the following statements regarding the Human Poverty Index (HPI) developed by the UNDP: I. The HPI-1 measures human poverty in developing countries, focusing on deprivation in longevity, know
   Answer: D — I, II and III
   The correct answer is I, II and III. Key Points - Human Poverty Index (UNDP): HPI-1 measures poverty in developing countries across longevity, knowledge, and standard of living (I ✓). - HPI-2 measures poverty in industrialised countries wit

Indian Polity — Solved Questions

1. Q8: Consider the following initiatives: I. PM SHRI II. STARS III. DIKSHA IV. ULLAS V. PM POSHAN Through how many of the above initiatives does the Government aim to achieve the objectives of the National
   Answer: D — All five
   The correct answer is All five. Key Points - All five government initiatives — PM SHRI (model schools), STARS (strengthening assessment systems), DIKSHA (digital learning platform), ULLAS (adult literacy through NEP), and PM POSHAN (school
2. Q9: Which of the following sub-schemes being implemented under the Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan programme are to achieve the objectives of the National Education Policy (NEP), 2020? I. NISHTHA II. Vidya Praves
   Answer: A — I, II and III
   The correct answer is I, II and III. Key Points - NISHTHA (teacher training), Vidya Pravesh (play-based school readiness), and DIETs (District Institutes of Education and Training for teacher education) are NEP-aligned sub-schemes under Sam
3. Q11: Which of the following are e-initiatives of the Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC)? I. E-Pehchan II. E-Biz Platform III. ABHA Number Creation IV. UPI App for IPs V. GIS based Maps Choose th
   Answer: A — I, II, III and IV
   The correct answer is I, II, III and IV. Key Points - ESIC e-initiatives include E-Pehchan (biometric identity cards for insured persons), E-Biz Platform (online employer registration and compliance), ABHA Number Creation (health account li
4. Q12: Which of the following are the key pillars of health policy? I. Preventive health care II. Early detection of ailments III. Free and low-cost treatment and medicines IV. Availability of doctors in urb
   Answer: B — I, II, III and V
   The correct answer is I, II, III and V. Key Points - Standard pillars of health policy: preventive care (I), early detection of ailments (II), free/low-cost treatment and medicines (III), and expansion of health technology (V). - "Avai
5. Q14: Consider the following statements regarding the PM e-Bus Sewa scheme: I. PM e-Bus Sewa is a centrally sponsored scheme initiated in 2023. II. It aims to augment bus operations in urban areas with cent
   Answer: A — I, II and III only
   The correct answer is I, II and III only. Key Points - PM e-Bus Sewa (2023) is a centrally sponsored scheme (I ✓) targeting 10,000 electric buses with Rs. 20,000 crore central assistance (II ✓), open to cities with population 3–40 lakh per
6. Q16: Match the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): Goal — Name of Goal 1. Goal 4 — i. Gender Equality 2. Goal 5 — ii. Quality Education 3. Goal 6 — iii. Reduced Inequality 4. Goal 10 — iv. Clea
   Answer: A — 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
   The correct answer is 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii. Key Points - SDG numbers and names: Goal 4 = Quality Education (ii), Goal 5 = Gender Equality (i), Goal 6 = Clean Water and Sanitation (iv), Goal 10 = Reduced Inequalities (iii). - Correct match
7. Q17: How many houses have been completed under Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G) from 2016 till January 2025?
   Answer: B — 2.69 crore
   The correct answer is 2.69 crore. Key Points - Under Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G), approximately 2.69 crore houses were completed from 2016 to January 2025, against a target of 2.95 crore houses under Phase I and Phase II. Ad
8. Q20: Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? I. Education — Concurrent List II. Income Tax — Concurrent List III. Public Health — State List IV. Census — Union List Choose the correct answer:
   Answer: C — I, III and IV only
   The correct answer is I, III and IV only. Key Points - Correct list assignments: Education (I) is in the Concurrent List (added by 42nd Amendment, 1976) ✓; Income Tax (II) is in the Union List (Entry 82), NOT Concurrent ✗; Public Health (II
9. Q21: Consider the following statements regarding the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India: Statement-I: It is not mandatory for the Supreme Court to provide its opinion on a Presidential ref
   Answer: C — Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
   The correct answer is Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Key Points - Under Article 143, the Supreme Court may give its opinion on a Presidential reference but is not obligated to — it can decline (Statement I: correct).
10. Q22: Consider the following statements regarding the Advocate General of the State: I. He/She is appointed by the Governor of a State. II. He/She holds office during the pleasure of the Governor. III. His/
    Answer: C — III
    The correct answer is III. Key Points - The Advocate General (Article 165): appointed by the Governor (I ✓), holds office at the Governor's pleasure (II ✓). - However, remuneration is determined by the Governor, not the State Legislature (I
11. Q23: Consider the following functionaries: I. Chief Justice of India II. Cabinet Secretary III. Chief Election Commissioner IV. Union Cabinet Ministers The correct sequence in the order of precedence is:
    Answer: D — I, IV, III, II
    The correct answer is I, IV, III, II. Key Points - Warrant of Precedence (India): Chief Justice of India (I) ranks 6th, Union Cabinet Ministers (IV) rank 9th, Chief Election Commissioner (III) ranks around 18th, Cabinet Secretary (II) ranks
12. Q24: With reference to the jurisdiction of the Lokpal, consider the following public authorities: I. Prime Minister II. Union Ministers III. Members of Parliament IV. Officials of the Central Government Wh
    Answer: D — I, II and IV
    The correct answer is I, II and IV. Key Points - Under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 (Section 14), Lokpal's jurisdiction covers the Prime Minister (I, with restrictions), Union Ministers (II), and officials of the Central Government (
13. Q25: When a Money Bill is presented to the President of India for assent, which of the following powers does she exercise? I. She may give her assent to the bill. II. She may withhold her assent to the bil
    Answer: A — I and II only
    The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Article 111 on Presidential assent to bills: the President may give assent (I ✓) or withhold assent (II ✓). - However, Article 109(5) specifically prohibits the President from returning a Mo
14. Q26: Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): The Chairperson of NITI Aayog is appointed by the Prime Minister. Reason (R): The NITI Aayog was created by an executive resolution of the Government
    Answer: D — A is NOT correct, but R is correct
    The correct answer is A is NOT correct, but R is correct. Key Points - The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairperson of NITI Aayog, not "appointed" to the position by the PM — Assertion A is incorrect. - Reason R is correct: NI
15. Q27: Which of the following authorities' salaries, allowances, and pensions are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India? I. Judges of the Supreme Court II. Comptroller and Auditor General of India III.
    Answer: A — I and II only
    The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Salaries charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (not subject to vote of Parliament): Judges of the Supreme Court (Article 125) ✓, Comptroller and Auditor General (Article 148) ✓, Chief El
16. Q28: Consider the following pairs regarding the veto powers of the President of India: 1. Absolute Veto — President withholds assent to a bill passed by the Parliament. 2. Suspensive Veto — President retur
    Answer: C — Only three
    The correct answer is Only three. Key Points - Presidential veto powers in India: Absolute Veto (1 ✓), Suspensive Veto (2 ✓), Pocket Veto (3 ✓ — informally, when President neither assents nor returns indefinitely). - Line-Item Veto (4) does
17. Q29: Through which Constitutional Amendment was sub-clause (1A) added to Article 75, stating that the total number of Ministers including the Prime Minister shall not exceed 15% of the total number of memb
    Answer: A — 91st Amendment
    The correct answer is 91st Amendment. Key Points - The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 inserted Article 75(1A), capping the total number of Union Ministers (including the Prime Minister) at 15% of the total membership of the Lok Sab
18. Q30: Consider the following statements regarding the 37th Constitutional Amendment: I. Article 239A was added by the 37th Amendment. II. Article 239A has been made applicable to Union Territory of Jammu an
    Answer: B — II only
    The correct answer is II only. Key Points - Statement I: Article 239A was NOT added by the 37th Amendment — it was inserted by the 14th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962 to allow creation of a legislature for Puducherry. - Statement II: Af
19. Q31: Who among the following served as Vice-President of India? I. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan II. Dr. Zakir Hussain III. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed IV. Giani Zail Singh Choose the correct answer:
    Answer: B — I and II
    The correct answer is I and II. Key Points - Vice Presidents of India: S. Radhakrishnan (I ✓, 1st VP 1952–62), Zakir Hussain (II ✓, 2nd VP 1962–67). - Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed (III) was the 5th President, NOT VP. - Giani Zail Singh (IV) was the
20. Q32: Arrange the following states in descending order according to the number of times President's Rule has been imposed: I. Uttar Pradesh II. Tamil Nadu III. Madhya Pradesh IV. Karnataka Select the correc
    Answer: A — I — IV — II — III
    The correct answer is I — IV — II — III. Key Points - Among the four states listed, President's Rule has been imposed most frequently in Uttar Pradesh (I), followed by Karnataka (IV), Tamil Nadu (II), and Madhya Pradesh (III), in descending
21. Q33: Arrange the following states in the ascending order of their representation (seats) in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha): I. West Bengal II. Rajasthan III. Punjab IV. Karnataka Choose the correct an
    Answer: A — III — II — IV — I
    The correct answer is III — II — IV — I. Key Points - Rajya Sabha seats (ascending order): Punjab (III) = 7 seats, Rajasthan (II) = 10 seats, Karnataka (IV) = 12 seats, West Bengal (I) = 16 seats. - Correct ascending sequence: III — II — IV
22. Q35: How many national parties participated in the first Lok Sabha election of India held in 1952?
    Answer: C — 14
    The correct answer is 14. Key Points - In the first general elections held in 1951-52, the Election Commission of India recognised 14 national parties that participated in the Lok Sabha elections.
23. Q36: In which Article of the Indian Constitution is the provision related to the audit of Panchayat accounts mentioned?
    Answer: A — 243 J
    The correct answer is 243 J. Key Points - Article 243 J of the Indian Constitution provides for the audit of accounts of Panchayats. - The state legislature is empowered to make provisions regarding the maintenance and audit of Panchayat ac
24. Q37: Which of the following pairs accurately represent dominant castes in state politics in India? I. Lingayats — Karnataka II. Patidars — Gujarat III. Vokkalingas — Tamil Nadu IV. Kammas — Andhra Pradesh
    Answer: C — I, II and IV only
    The correct answer is I, II and IV only. Key Points - Dominant caste-state associations: Lingayats (I) in Karnataka ✓, Patidars/Patels (II) in Gujarat ✓, Kammas (IV) in Andhra Pradesh ✓. - Vokkalingas (III) are dominant in Karnataka, NOT Ta
25. Q47: As per the Constitution of India, the State can impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression on which of the following grounds? I. Sovereignty and integrity of India II. Publ
    Answer: D — I, II, III and IV
    The correct answer is I, II, III and IV. Key Points - Article 19(2) lists valid grounds for restricting freedom of speech and expression. - All four mentioned — sovereignty and integrity of India (I), public order (II), contempt of court (I

History — Solved Questions

1. Q19: Which one of the following Acts provided for the establishment of a Public Service Commission in India for the first time?
   Answer: C — Government of India Act, 1919
   The correct answer is Government of India Act, 1919. Key Points - The Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) first provided for the establishment of a Public Service Commission in India. - The actual commission was creat
2. Q34: Which of the following pairs of states and their formation dates is correctly matched? I. Arunachal Pradesh — 1986 II. Telangana — 2013 III. Goa — 1986 IV. Uttarakhand — 2001 Choose the correct answer
   Answer: A — Only I
   The correct answer is Only I. Key Points - State formation: Arunachal Pradesh — The State of Arunachal Pradesh Act was enacted in 1986 (effective February 20, 1987), so 1986 is considered correct (I ✓). - Telangana was formed in June 2014 (
3. Q40: Recently, the Union Cabinet granted Classical Language Status to five languages. Consider the following statements regarding the revised criteria for a language to be conferred with Classical status:
   Answer: A — I, II and III only
   The correct answer is I, II and III only. Key Points - The revised criteria for Classical Language status include: high antiquity (1500-2000 years) of early texts (I ✓), ancient literature considered a valuable heritage (II ✓), and an origi
4. Q50: Match the following proponents of Indian classical music with their Gharanas: Musician — Gharana 1. Channulal Mishra — i. Agra Gharana 2. Krishnarao Shankar Pandit — ii. Kirana Gharana 3. Bhimsen Josh
   Answer: D — 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
   The correct answer is 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i. Key Points - Indian classical music Gharana associations: Channulal Mishra — Banaras Gharana (1-iv), Krishnarao Shankar Pandit — Gwalior Gharana (2-iii), Pandit Bhimsen Joshi — Kirana Gharana (3
5. Q52: Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Valley Civilization: I. The buildings at Harappa were more elaborately constructed than those at Mohenjo-Daro. II. Mohenjo-Daro had a large tank (
   Answer: B — II only
   The correct answer is II only. Key Points - IVC facts: Statement I is incorrect — Mohenjo-Daro was the more elaborately planned city, not Harappa. - Statement II is correct — the Great Bath was located on the Citadel mound at Mohenjo-Daro.
6. Q53: Match the following Buddhist Councils with their respective venues: Council — Venue 1. First Buddhist Council — a. Rajgriha 2. Second Buddhist Council — b. Vaishali 3. Third Buddhist Council — c. Kash
   Answer: B — Only two pairs
   The correct answer is Only two pairs. Key Points - Buddhist Councils: 1st — Rajgriha ✓, 2nd — Vaishali ✓, 3rd — Pataliputra (NOT Kashmir, so pair 3 is incorrectly matched ✗), 4th — Kashmir (NOT Pataliputra, so pair 4 is incorrectly matched
7. Q54: Consider the following locations: I. Surat II. Madras III. Bombay In how many of the above-given locations did the British East India Company establish their factories during the reign of Mughal emper
   Answer: A — Only one
   The correct answer is Only one. Key Points - During Mughal Emperor Jahangir's reign (1605-1627), the British East India Company established its factory at Surat (1612-13) — only one location among the three listed. - Madras (Fort St. George
8. Q55: Consider the following monuments: I. Taj Mahal II. Agra Fort III. Red Fort IV. Shalimar Bagh In how many of the above monuments has the pietra dura (inlay work with semi-precious stones) technique bee
   Answer: C — Only three
   The correct answer is Only three. Key Points - Pietra dura (inlay work with semi-precious stones) technique was used in: Taj Mahal (I ✓ — extensively throughout the mausoleum), Agra Fort (II ✓ — in the Khas Mahal and Sheesh Mahal), and Red
9. Q56: Which of the following foreign accounts provide contemporary evidence about the Vijayanagara Empire? I. Abdur Razzaq's writings II. Domingo Paes' travel account III. Ibn Battuta's Rihla IV. Niccolo de
   Answer: D — All four
   The correct answer is All four. Key Points - Foreign accounts on Vijayanagara: Abdur Razzaq (I, Persian ambassador, 1443) ✓, Domingo Paes (II, Portuguese traveller, early 16th c.) ✓, Ibn Battuta (III, Moroccan traveller, mid-14th c. — he vi
10. Q57: Consider the following statements regarding the provisions of the Cripps Mission (1942): I. The provinces were to enjoy full autonomy and could choose to remain outside the proposed Indian Union. II.
    Answer: C — I, II and III
    The correct answer is I, II and III. Key Points - Cripps Mission (1942): Provinces could opt out of the proposed Indian Union (I ✓) and a Constituent Assembly would draft the constitution after the war (II ✓). - Statement III is an oversimp
11. Q58: With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements: I. It introduced provincial autonomy with ministries responsible to the elected provincial legislatures. II. It
    Answer: A — I and II only
    The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Government of India Act, 1935: Provincial autonomy with ministries responsible to elected legislatures (I ✓), Governor-General retained sweeping overriding powers (II ✓). - Statement III is
12. Q59: With reference to the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929), consider the following statements: I. It was presided over by Subhas Chandra Bose. II. The resolution of Purna Swaraj was a
    Answer: B — II and III only
    The correct answer is II and III only. Key Points - Lahore Congress Session, 1929: Presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru (NOT Subhas Chandra Bose — Statement I ✗). - Purna Swaraj (Complete Independence) resolution was adopted (II ✓). - 26 Janua
13. Q60: Consider the following personalities: I. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee II. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar III. Ishan Chandra Roy IV. Ram Mohan Roy V. Sambhunath Pal VI. Tomma Dora How many of the above persona
    Answer: A — Only two
    The correct answer is Only two. Key Points - Pabna Agrarian Revolt (1873-76) in Bengal was led by peasant leaders including Ishan Chandra Roy, Sambhunath Pal, and Sham Sudar Pal. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee wrote about the revolt but was not
14. Q61: With reference to journals in Modern Indian History, consider the following pairs: Journal — Founder / Associated Person 1. Kesari — Surendranath Banerjee 2. Bengalee — Bal Gangadhar Tilak 3. Sudharak
    Answer: B — Only two pairs
    The correct answer is Only two pairs. Key Points - Correct journal-founder pairs: Kesari was founded by Bal Gangadhar Tilak (not Surendranath Banerjee — pair 1 ✗), Bengalee was founded by Surendranath Banerjee (not Tilak — pair 2 ✗), Sudhar
15. Q63: Ramcharita was written by:
    Answer: D — Sandhyakaranandin
    The correct answer is Sandhyakaranandin. Key Points - Ramcharita (not Ramcharitamanas) was written by Sandhyakaranandin, a 12th-century Sanskrit poet from Bengal. It is a historical poem describing the life and campaigns of the Pala king Ra
16. Q73: Recently, archaeologists conducted the first-ever scientific dating of a sarcophagus (terracotta coffin), along with burial offerings such as carnelian beads indicating trade contacts with northern re
    Answer: C — Sivagalai
    The correct answer is Sivagalai. Key Points - The recently discovered site of Sivagalai in Tamil Nadu made news when archaeologists conducted the first-ever scientific (AMS radiocarbon) dating of a terracotta sarcophagus, along with Harappa

Science & Technology — Solved Questions

1. Q41: Consider the following institutions and their corresponding domains under India's National Quantum Mission (NQM): Institution — Domain 1. IISc, Bengaluru — i. Quantum Computing Hub 2. IIT, Madras — ii
   Answer: A — 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-iii
   The correct answer is 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-iii. Key Points - Under India's National Quantum Mission: IISc Bengaluru leads the Quantum Computing Hub (1-i), IIT Madras leads the Quantum Communication Hub (2-ii), IIT Bombay leads the Quantum Sen
2. Q42: Consider the following statements with reference to the Gaganyaan Mission of ISRO: I. The mission aims to place astronauts in a geostationary orbit. II. It comprises two uncrewed flights followed by o
   Answer: A — I only
   The correct answer is I only. Key Points - Gaganyaan Mission: Statement I is incorrect — Gaganyaan targets a Low Earth Orbit (~400 km altitude), NOT geostationary orbit (~36,000 km). - Statements II (two uncrewed missions followed by one cr
3. Q43: Consider the following statements regarding the Nipah Virus (NiV): I. It is an orthopoxvirus. II. NiV is a zoonotic disease transmitted from animals to humans. III. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is
   Answer: C — Only three
   The correct answer is Only three. Key Points - Nipah Virus (NiV): It is a paramyxovirus (NOT an orthopoxvirus, making I incorrect). - It is zoonotic — transmitted from fruit bats to humans, sometimes via intermediate hosts like pigs (II ✓).
4. Q45: Consider the following technologies: I. Natural Language Processing II. Quantum Computing III. Audio Processing IV. Computer Vision Which of the above are supported by Hugging Face's AI model hub?
   Answer: C — I, III and IV
   The correct answer is I, III and IV. Key Points - Hugging Face's AI model hub supports Natural Language Processing (I ✓), Audio Processing (III ✓), and Computer Vision (IV ✓). - Quantum Computing (II) is not part of the Hugging Face platfor
5. Q62: Glucose is classified as:
   Answer: A — Aldohexose
   The correct answer is Aldohexose. Key Points - Glucose is a monosaccharide with 6 carbon atoms (making it a hexose) and an aldehyde group (–CHO) at carbon-1 (making it an aldose). - Combined: glucose is an aldohexose. - Fructose, by contras
6. Q76: Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Heavier objects fall faster than lighter ones. Reason (R): Acceleration due to gravity is independent of the mass of the object. Select the correct an
   Answer: D — A is NOT correct, but R is correct
   The correct answer is A is NOT correct, but R is correct. Key Points - Assertion: Heavier objects fall faster — this is INCORRECT (disproved by Galileo and Newton; all objects fall at the same rate in vacuum). - Reason: Acceleration due to
7. Q77: Consider the following statements regarding light: I. Reflection and refraction are optical phenomena. II. Both reflection and refraction involve a change in the speed of light. III. Refraction bends
   Answer: C — Only I and III are correct
   The correct answer is Only I and III are correct. Key Points - Statement I: Reflection and refraction are optical phenomena ✓. - Statement II: Reflection does NOT involve a change in the speed of light — only refraction changes the speed of
8. Q78: Which of the following statements about viruses and bacteria is correct?
   Answer: B — Bacteria can live independently and reproduce by binary fission.
   The correct answer is Bacteria can live independently and reproduce by binary fission.. Key Points - Bacteria are unicellular living organisms that can reproduce independently by binary fission (B ✓). - Viruses are not independently living
9. Q79: Identify the correct match between digestive enzymes and the substances they act upon: 1. Amylase — carbohydrates 2. Lipase — fats 3. Pepsin — proteins How many of the above matches is/are correct?
   Answer: A — Only one match
   The correct answer is Only one match. Key Points - All three enzyme-substrate pairs are biologically correct: Amylase acts on carbohydrates (starch), Lipase acts on fats (lipids), and Pepsin acts on proteins. - All three matches are accurat
10. Q80: Consider the following statements regarding genetic material and cell divisions: I. Genetic traits are carried by DNA. II. RNA is a double-stranded molecule. III. Mitosis leads to the formation of new
    Answer: B — Only I and III
    The correct answer is Only I and III. Key Points - Statement I: Genetic traits are carried by DNA ✓. - Statement II: RNA is typically single-stranded, NOT double-stranded — DNA is double-stranded (Statement II is incorrect ✗). - Statement I
11. Q81: Consider the following pairs: Plant Hormone — Function 1. Auxin — Involved in phototropism 2. Cytokinin — Stimulates cell division 3. Gibberellin — Promotes stem elongation 4. Abscisic acid — Promotes
    Answer: D — All four pairs
    The correct answer is All four pairs. Key Points - Plant hormones and functions: Auxin — phototropism and growth regulation ✓, Cytokinin — promotes cell division and delays senescence ✓, Gibberellin — promotes stem elongation and seed germi
12. Q82: A satellite moving in a circular orbit around the Earth has which of the following characteristic?
    Answer: B — Constant speed but changing velocity
    The correct answer is Constant speed but changing velocity. Key Points - A satellite in circular orbit moves at constant speed (magnitude of velocity is unchanged) but its direction changes continuously as it follows the circular path. - Si
13. Q84: Which of the following acts as the natural pacemaker of the human heart?
    Answer: B — SA node
    The correct answer is SA node. Key Points - The SA node (Sinoatrial node), located in the right atrium, initiates the electrical impulse that triggers each heartbeat. - It is the natural pacemaker of the heart. - The AV node (atrioventricul
14. Q85: Consider the following statements regarding Diethylene Glycol (DEG): I. It is an industrial solvent used in a variety of products, including antifreeze, brake fluid, and fabric and dye manufacturing.
    Answer: A — I only
    The correct answer is I only. Key Points - Statement I: DEG is indeed an industrial solvent used in antifreeze, brake fluid, and textile/dye manufacturing ✓. - Statement II: DEG is NOT a standard ingredient in e-cigarette liquid — propylene
15. Q86: Consider the following statements regarding electricity: I. Static electricity does not flow through wires. II. Lightning is an example of static electricity. III. Electric current is always static in
    Answer: A — Only I and II are correct
    The correct answer is Only I and II are correct. Key Points - Statement I: Static electricity is a stationary buildup of charge — it does not flow through wires like current electricity ✓. - Statement II: Lightning is a massive discharge of
16. Q87: Pure water has a pH of 7 at which of the following temperatures?
    Answer: D — 25°C
    The correct answer is 25°C. Key Points - Pure water has a pH of exactly 7 at 25°C (298 K) — this is the standard reference temperature at which [H⁺] = [OH⁻] = 10⁻⁷ mol/L. At higher temperatures, water dissociates more, lowering the pH below
17. Q88: Consider the following statements: I. Diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon. II. Both diamond and graphite are good conductors of electricity. Which of the statements given above is/are correc
    Answer: A — I only
    The correct answer is I only. Key Points - Statement I: Diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon — both consist of pure carbon atoms arranged differently ✓. - Statement II: Diamond is an electrical insulator (all four valence electrons
18. Q95: Consider the following statements: I. Deep Ocean Mission, launched in 2021, focuses on sustainably harnessing ocean wealth and strengthening the Blue Economy, launched by the Ministry of Earth Science
    Answer: A — I only
    The correct answer is I only. Key Points - Deep Ocean Mission: Launched in 2021 under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) to sustainably harness ocean resources and strengthen the Blue Economy (I ✓). - India's first manned submersible veh

Current Affairs — Solved Questions

1. Q44: With reference to India's international humanitarian missions, consider the following pairs: Operation — Purpose 1. Operation Dost — Earthquake relief in Turkey and Syria 2. Operation Ganga — Evacuati
   Answer: D — 4 pairs
   The correct answer is 4 pairs. Key Points - All four Indian humanitarian operations are correctly matched: Operation Dost — Turkey-Syria earthquake relief (2023), Operation Ganga — evacuation from Ukraine conflict (2022), Operation Kaveri —
2. Q46: Match the following global awards conferred on Prime Minister Narendra Modi with the respective countries: Award — Country 1. The Grand Cross of the Order of Honour — i. Russia 2. The Grand Companion
   Answer: B — 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii
   The correct answer is 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii. Key Points - PM Modi's global awards: Grand Cross of the Order of Honour — Greece (1-ii), Grand Companion of the Order of Logohu — Papua New Guinea (2-iv), Order of the Holy Apostle Andrew the F
3. Q48: The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) has at present:
   Answer: D — 10 member states, 2 observer states and 14 dialogue partners
   The correct answer is 10 member states, 2 observer states and 14 dialogue partners. Key Points - As of 2025, the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) has 10 member states (including India, China, Russia, Pakistan, Iran, Belarus, and four
4. Q51: With reference to Mirabai Chanu, consider the following statements: I. She won a silver medal in the IWF Senior World Weightlifting Championship 2025. II. She won a gold medal in the IWF Senior World
   Answer: A — Only I, II and III are correct
   The correct answer is Only I, II and III are correct. Key Points - Mirabai Chanu achievements: She won the IWF World Championship gold in 2017 (II ✓), silver in 2022 (III ✓), and a silver medal at the IWF World Championship 2025 (I ✓). - Sh
5. Q83: Who among the following was/were awarded the Nobel Prize posthumously? I. Erik Axel Karlfeldt II. Dag Hammarskjold III. Pierre Curie Choose the correct answer:
   Answer: A — Only I and II
   The correct answer is Only I and II. Key Points - Posthumous Nobel Prizes: Erik Axel Karlfeldt (I) received the 1931 Nobel Prize in Literature posthumously (he died in April 1931, the prize was announced in November). - Dag Hammarskjöld (II
6. Q89: Which of the indigenous air defence systems was integrated with Akashteer during Operation Sindoor to automate low-level aerial threat response?
   Answer: A — Akash SAM
   The correct answer is Akash SAM. Key Points - During Operation Sindoor (May 2025), the Akashteer automated air defence control system was integrated with the indigenous Akash Surface-to-Air Missile (SAM) system to provide automated, rapid r

J&K General Knowledge — Solved Questions

1. Q49: The Jammu and Kashmir Energy Development Agency's mission and vision are: I. To lead the energy transition. II. To speed up the transition to partial renewable energy. III. To build a culture of excel
   Answer: C — Only I, III and IV are correct
   The correct answer is Only I, III and IV are correct. Key Points - J&K Energy Development Agency (JAKEDA) mission/vision: I (Lead the energy transition ✓), II (speed up transition to "full/complete" renewable energy — the word
2. Q64: The saffron cultivation in Kashmir was introduced by:
   Answer: A — Mijjhantika
   The correct answer is Mijjhantika. Key Points - According to tradition and historical records, saffron cultivation in Kashmir was introduced by Mijjhantika (also spelled Madhyantika), a Buddhist missionary sent to Kashmir by Emperor Ashoka
3. Q65: Choose the incorrect statement about the findings of the 1st Water Census of Jammu and Kashmir:
   Answer: B — More than half of total water bodies in Jammu and Kashmir are lakes.
   The correct answer is More than half of total water bodies in Jammu and Kashmir are lakes.. Key Points - According to the 1st Water Census of J&K, majority of water bodies are in rural areas ✓, more than 50% are publicly owned ✓, and th
4. Q68: Which among the following districts of J&K is covered under the NAVYA (Nurturing Aspirations through Vocational training for Young Adolescent Girls) initiative?
   Answer: A — Baramulla
   The correct answer is Baramulla. Key Points - The NAVYA (Nurturing Aspirations through Vocational training for Young Adolescent Girls) initiative is implemented in Baramulla district of Jammu & Kashmir, targeting skill development and v
5. Q69: Consider the following statements about the Surinsar-Mansar lake: Statement 1: It was designated as a Ramsar site in 2005. Statement 2: This site does not host migratory birds. Statement 3: It has a r
   Answer: B — Only 1 and 3
   The correct answer is Only 1 and 3. Key Points - Surinsar-Mansar Lake (J&K): It was designated a Ramsar site in 2005 (Statement 1 ✓). - The lake does host migratory birds — Statement 2 is incorrect ✗. - It has rich aquatic biodiversity
6. Q75: With reference to disaster management in India, consider the following statements regarding Operation Megh Rahat launched by the Indian Army in 2014: I. It was a major Humanitarian Assistance and Disa
   Answer: B — I and III only
   The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Operation Megh Rahat (September 2014) was a major HADR operation by the Indian Army in Jammu & Kashmir during the devastating floods (NOT earthquake — Statement II is incorrect). - It i

Agriculture — Solved Questions

1. Q99: Consider the following statements regarding cotton production and GM crops in India: I. Bt. cotton is the only Genetically Modified (GM) crop approved for commercial cultivation in India. II. India is
   Answer: A — I only
   The correct answer is I only. Key Points - Statement I: Bt. cotton (Bollgard) is the only GM crop approved for commercial cultivation in India (since 2002) ✓. - Statement II: India is not the third-largest cotton producer — India is consist

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are there in the JKCCE Prelims 2025 — General Studies Paper I (Set B)?

The JKCCE Prelims 2025 — General Studies Paper I (Set B) has 100 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

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The JKCCE Prelims 2025 — General Studies Paper I (Set B) was held on 7 December 2025.

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