RSSB Patwari 2025 (17 Aug, Shift 1) — SPZ8 — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

Reasoning Ability — Solved Questions

1. Q1: The country does not have enough funds to develop water resources.
   Answer: D — Definitely true
   The correct answer is Definitely true. Key Points - The passage directly states the country lacks funds for water resource development — so the statement is "Definitely true".
2. Q2: Occurrence of floods adds to the water resources.
   Answer: A — Definitely false
   The correct answer is Definitely false. Key Points - Floods cause destruction and contaminate water sources rather than adding to usable water resources. - Hence "Definitely false".
3. Q3: Rainwater harvesting plays no role in increasing water resources.
   Answer: C — Definitely false
   The correct answer is Definitely false. Key Points - Rainwater harvesting is a proven technique for conserving and augmenting water resources. - The claim that it plays no role is "Definitely false".
4. Q4: In a row of 5 girls facing North, Rita is sitting second to the right of Lata and Alka is sitting third to the left of Seema. Seema is not sitting at either of the extreme ends of the row. Who is sitt
   Answer: B — Lata
   The correct answer is Lata. Key Points - Positions 1–5 (left to right). - Seema ≠ ends → Seema ∈ 2,3,4. - Alka is 3rd to left of Seema → Seema=4, Alka=1. Rita is 2nd to right of Lata; Alka occupies pos 1, Seema pos 4 → Lata=3, Rita=5. Remai
5. Q5: Reena is travelling to her college from her home. She walks 500 m towards the North, then takes a sharp left from the temple and walks another 700 m. Taking a right turn, she takes a rickshaw for the
   Answer: B — 5 km
   The correct answer is 5 km. Key Points - Starting at home (0,0): 500 m North → (0, 0.5 km). - Sharp left (West) 700 m → (−0.7, 0.5). - Right turn (North) 2.5 km → (−0.7, 3.0). - Left turn (West) 3.3 km → (−4.0, 3.0). - Shortest aerial dista
6. Q6: C, H, I, P, S and Y are sitting around a regular hexagonal table facing the centre. P is sitting second to the right of Y. I is the only person sitting between C and S. Who is sitting opposite to H?
   Answer: C — I
   The correct answer is I. Key Points - Hexagonal positions 1–6. Y=1, P=3 (2nd right of Y). - Remaining: C, H, I, S at positions 2,4,5,6. I is the only person between C and S → C=4, I=5, S=6; H=2. Opposite pairs in a hexagon: (1,4), (2,5), (3
7. Q7: In the given series, choose the option that indicates the numbers that are exactly divisible by both 2 and 3, and are also preceded by an odd number and succeeded by an even number. 26, 27, 36, 6, 6,
   Answer: B — 6
   The correct answer is 6. Key Points - Scan the series for multiples of 6 preceded by an odd number and followed by an even number: 36(pos 3)—prev 27(odd), next 6(even) ✓; 6(pos 7)—prev 5(odd), next 6(even) ✓; 24(pos 11)—prev 37(odd), next 1
8. Q8: If in a certain language, ORANGE is coded as QTCPIG, then YCVGTOGNQP is the code for which word?
   Answer: C — WATERMELON
   The correct answer is WATERMELON. Key Points - Each letter in ORANGE is shifted +2 positions forward: O→Q, R→T, A→C, N→P, G→I, E→G → QTCPIG. - Reversing (−2) on YCVGTOGNQP: Y→W, C→A, V→T, G→E, T→R, O→M, G→E, N→L, Q→O, P→N = WATERMELON.
9. Q9: A boy comes to meet his friend in the morning at 8:30 AM, he again comes at 9:15 AM then he comes third time at 10:15 AM and the fourth time he comes at 11:30 AM. When will he come again?
   Answer: B — 01:00 PM
   The correct answer is 01:00 PM. Key Points - Gaps between visits: 8:30→9:15 = 45 min; 9:15→10:15 = 60 min; 10:15→11:30 = 75 min. - Pattern: each gap increases by 15 minutes. Next gap = 90 min. - 11:30 AM + 90 min = 1:00 PM.
10. Q10: For the word and number arrangement input Strike 82 Reference 25 Depends 38 Of 53 Wind 36, what is the sum of the numbers that are towards the right of Wind in Step I?
    Answer: B — 118
    The correct answer is 118. Key Points - Input: Strike 82 Reference 25 Depends 38 Of 53 Wind 36. In Step I the arrangement machine places numbers in ascending order toward the left. - Numbers to the right of Wind in Step I are 82 and 36, but
11. Q11: In the word and number arrangement machine, which element is second to the left of the third element from the right end in Step III?
    Answer: D — 53
    The correct answer is 53. Key Points - Following the word-number arrangement machine's step-by-step rearrangement logic, in Step III the element that is second to the left of the third element from the right end is 53.
12. Q12: In the word and number arrangement machine, which element is second to the left of the third element from the right end in Step V?
    Answer: C — 82
    The correct answer is 82. Key Points - Following the word-number arrangement machine's step-by-step rearrangement logic, in Step V the element that is second to the left of the third element from the right end is 82.
13. Q17: Statement: People who speak too much against bribery are those who had taken it themselves. Conclusions: I. All people are corrupt. II. It is easier said than done. Which conclusion follows?
    Answer: A — Only conclusion II follows
    The correct answer is Only conclusion II follows. Key Points - The statement implies those who speak against bribery have practiced it — illustrating a gap between words and actions. - Conclusion II ("easier said than done") logic
14. Q20: Arrange the following geometrical figures in ascending order based on the number of their angles: i. Heptagon ii. Triangle iii. Hexagon iv. Decagon v. Pentagon vi. Quadrilateral
    Answer: C — ii, vi, v, iii, i, iv
    The correct answer is ii, vi, v, iii, i, iv. Key Points - Angles: Triangle=3, Quadrilateral=4, Pentagon=5, Hexagon=6, Heptagon=7, Decagon=10. Ascending: ii(3), vi(4), v(5), iii(6), i(7), iv(10) → ii, vi, v, iii, i, iv.
15. Q22: In the following sum, which digit does the symbol stand for? 2 + + 1 + 0 = 1
    Answer: B — 8
    The correct answer is 8. Key Points - Testing = 8: 82 + 8 + 18 + 80 = 188. The result 1 fits 188. So = 8.
16. Q27: If Z+Y means Z is brother of Y, Z÷Y means Z is father of Y and ZxY means Z is sister of Y. Which of the following means M is uncle of P?
    Answer: D — M+K+T×P
    The correct answer is M+K+T×P. Key Points - Decoding the chain M+K+T×P: M is brother of K; K is brother of T; T is sister of P. Tracing the blood relationship, M (brother of K who is brother of T who is sister of P) is the maternal uncle of
17. Q30: Choose the numeral group which is different from others.
    Answer: B — 18 (188) 6
    The correct answer is 18 (188) 6. Key Points - Pattern: middle = (left)² − (right)². - Check: 6(20)4 → 36−16=20 ✓; 12(128)4 → 144−16=128 ✓; 4(12)2 → 16−4=12 ✓; but 18(188)6 → 324−36=288 ≠ 188 ✗. - So 18(188)6 breaks the pattern and is the o
18. Q32: Arrange the following words in logical sequence: i. Adult ii. Old iii. Infant iv. Youth v. Child
    Answer: C — iii, v, iv, i, ii
    The correct answer is iii, v, iv, i, ii. Key Points - Logical sequence of human life stages: Infant (iii) → Child (v) → Youth (iv) → Adult (i) → Old (ii) = iii, v, iv, i, ii.
19. Q38: Statements: No A is B. Some B are C. All C are D. Conclusions: I. Some A are D is a possibility. II. All A are C.
    Answer: D — Only conclusion I follows
    The correct answer is Only conclusion I follows. Key Points - No A is B; Some B are C; All C are D. Conclusion I (Some A are D is a possibility): Since no A is B, A has no direct link to D through B→C→D, but it remains a possibility. - Conc
20. Q46: In the number 6425798, how many digits remain unchanged after rearranging digits in ascending order?
    Answer: A — Two
    The correct answer is Two. Key Points - Original: 6,4,2,5,7,9,8. Sorted ascending: 2,4,5,6,7,8,9. Comparing positions: pos 2: 4=4 ✓; pos 5: 7=7 ✓. - Two digits remain in their original positions.
21. Q49: Find the missing number in figure (iii).
    Answer: C — 9
    The correct answer is 9. Key Points - Observing the pattern in the given figure (iii), applying the same mathematical relationship used in figures (i) and (ii), the missing number is 9.
22. Q50: Observe the given figures and find the missing number in figure (iii).
    Answer: A — 220
    The correct answer is 220. Key Points - Observing the pattern in the given figure (iii), applying the same mathematical relationship used in figures (i) and (ii), the missing number is 220.
23. Q51: You face East. Turn 45° clockwise, 180° anti-clockwise, then 270° clockwise. Which direction are you facing now?
    Answer: A — South-West
    The correct answer is South-West. Key Points - Start: East. +45° clockwise → South-East. +180° anti-clockwise → North-West (SE + 180° = NW). +270° clockwise = −90° (anti-clockwise 90°). - NW rotated 90° anti-clockwise → South-West.
24. Q143: If A - B C D + E, then A is E's:
    Answer: B — Grand-daughter
    The correct answer is Grand-daughter. Key Points - Decoding: A-B (A is wife of B / married to B), C (C is male), D (D is some relation), +E (E is son/daughter). - Following the full chain A−B∗CD+E, A is E's grand-daughter.
25. Q144: In the series, how many pairs of letters appear in exact alphabetical order? C, A, B, E, G, H, D, L, M, Q, R, F, T, S, U, W
    Answer: B — 4
    The correct answer is 4. Key Points - In C,A,B,E,G,H,D,L,M,Q,R,F,T,S,U,W — pairs of consecutive alphabetical letters: A−B (pos 2,3) ✓; G−H (pos 5,6) ✓; L−M (pos 8,9) ✓; Q−R (pos 10,11) ✓. Total = 4 pairs.
26. Q145: Select the figure that would complete the given figure matrix.
    Answer: A
    The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Observing the pattern/rule governing the given figure matrix (rows/columns transformation), the figure that correctly completes the matrix is option A.
27. Q146: Select the figure that would complete the following matrix.
    Answer: B
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Observing the pattern/rule governing the given figure matrix (rows/columns transformation), the figure that correctly completes the matrix is option B.
28. Q147: If Clear, Clown, Client, Clean are arranged in dictionary order, which word comes last?
    Answer: A — Clown
    The correct answer is Clown. Key Points - Alphabetical order — compare letter by letter: Clean(CL-E-A-N) < Clear(CL-E-A-R) < Client(CL-I-E-N-T) < Clown(CL-O-W-N). - After "CL": E < I < O. So Clown (with O) comes las
29. Q148: Find the missing term: 0, 3, 8, ?, 24, 35
    Answer: C — 15
    The correct answer is 15. Key Points - Pattern: n² − 1. Check: 1²−1=0, 2²−1=3, 3²−1=8, 4²−1=15, 5²−1=24, 6²−1=35. Missing term (n=4) = 15.
30. Q149: RSAB : 34 :: TABF : ?
    Answer: D — 13
    The correct answer is 13. Key Points - Pattern: (1st + 2nd letter position) − (3rd + 4th letter position). - RSAB: (R=18, S=19) − (A=1, B=2) = 37 − 3 = 34 ✓. - TABF: (T=20, A=1) − (B=2, F=6) = 21 − 8 = 13.
31. Q150: If YOURSELF is coded as URYOEFSL, how will PLATINUM be coded?
    Answer: B — ATPLNMIU
    The correct answer is ATPLNMIU. Key Points - YOURSELF coding: Y(1)O(2)U(3)R(4)S(5)E(6)L(7)F(8) → URYOEFSL = positions 3,4,1,2,6,8,5,7. Apply same to PLATINUM P(1)L(2)A(3)T(4)I(5)N(6)U(7)M(8): positions 3,4,1,2,6,8,5,7 → A,T,P,L,N,M,I,U = AT

Computer Knowledge — Solved Questions

1. Q13: What is the full form of FTP in computer terminology?
   Answer: A — File Transfer Protocol
   The correct answer is File Transfer Protocol. Key Points - FTP = File Transfer Protocol. - It is a standard network protocol (port 20/21) used to transfer files between a client and server over a TCP/IP-based network.
2. Q14: Which of the following commands is not used in the proofing section while reviewing a presentation?
   Answer: A — Voice button to find the correct pronunciation of a particular word
   The correct answer is Voice button to find the correct pronunciation of a particular word. Key Points - The Proofing section in PowerPoint's Review tab includes Spelling, Research, Thesaurus, and Translate tools. - There is no "Voice b
3. Q15: Which is not a commonly used type of cell data in Spreadsheet?
   Answer: C — User authentication
   The correct answer is User authentication. Key Points - Common spreadsheet cell data types are: numeric values, date/time, text labels, and formulas. - "User authentication" is a security/access control concept, not a cell data ty
4. Q23: Which of the following is NOT a type of computer network?
   Answer: A — LAN (Large Area Network)
   The correct answer is LAN (Large Area Network). Key Points - LAN = Local Area Network (small geographic area like a building), NOT "Large Area Network." MAN = Metropolitan Area Network, WAN = Wide Area Network, PAN = Personal Area
5. Q24: Which shortcut key is used to close the currently open document in MS Word?
   Answer: A — Ctrl + W
   The correct answer is Ctrl + W. Key Points - Ctrl + W closes the current document in MS Word. - Ctrl + K inserts a hyperlink, Ctrl + R aligns right, Ctrl + M increases paragraph indent.
6. Q28: Which of the following is equivalent to 1024 TB?
   Answer: D — 1 PB (Petabyte)
   The correct answer is 1 PB (Petabyte). Key Points - 1 PB (Petabyte) = 1024 TB. - Other units: 1 EB = 1024 PB, 1 ZB = 1024 EB, 1 YB = 1024 ZB, 1 GB = 1024 MB.
7. Q31: Which of the following is an output device?
   Answer: A — Projector
   The correct answer is Projector. Key Points - A Projector displays images/video on a screen — it is an output device. - Keyboard and Mouse are input devices; Scanner converts physical documents into digital data (input device).
8. Q33: Which computers are fastest and employed for specialized applications requiring large amounts of mathematical calculations?
   Answer: D — Super-computers
   The correct answer is Super-computers. Key Points - Supercomputers are the fastest and most powerful computers, used for specialized applications requiring massive mathematical computation: weather forecasting, nuclear research, climate mod
9. Q35: Which tab in PowerPoint allows you to insert shapes?
   Answer: B — Insert
   The correct answer is Insert. Key Points - Shapes in PowerPoint are inserted via the Insert tab (Insert → Illustrations → Shapes). - Design tab controls themes/layouts, View controls display options, Review is for proofing.
10. Q36: Which of the following is not a classification of operating system?
    Answer: B — Time-Batch Processing OS
    The correct answer is Time-Batch Processing OS. Key Points - Standard OS classifications: Batch Processing, Time-Sharing, Distributed, Multi-programming, Multi-processing, Real-time, Multitasking, and Multithreading. - "Time-Batch Proc
11. Q41: In computer science, what is the full form of SSD?
    Answer: B — Solid State Drive
    The correct answer is Solid State Drive. Key Points - SSD = Solid State Drive. - It uses NAND flash memory, has no moving mechanical parts, offers faster data access, lower power consumption, and greater durability than traditional HDDs.
12. Q44: According to functioning, which is not a category of computers?
    Answer: B — Hydrobrid
    The correct answer is Hydrobrid. Key Points - Computers classified by functioning: Analog, Digital, and Hybrid. - "Hydrobrid" is a misspelling and not a valid classification category.
13. Q47: Which OS component is responsible for managing files?
    Answer: D — File System Manager
    The correct answer is File System Manager. Key Points - The File System Manager is the OS component responsible for organizing, storing, retrieving, naming, and managing files on disk. - Memory Manager handles RAM allocation; Process Manage
14. Q48: Linux is a family of which type of operating system?
    Answer: C — Open source
    The correct answer is Open source. Key Points - Linux is an open-source operating system. - Its kernel source code is freely available, and it can be modified and redistributed by anyone under the GNU General Public License.
15. Q52: Which shortcut key is used to insert a hyperlink in MS Word?
    Answer: B — Ctrl + K
    The correct answer is Ctrl + K. Key Points - Ctrl + K inserts a hyperlink in MS Word. - Alt + X converts between Unicode hex code and character, Ctrl + S saves, Ctrl + F opens Find dialog.

Quantitative Aptitude — Solved Questions

1. Q16: In the year 2023, there were 5000 students in a college. The number of students is increased by 24% every year. How many students will there be in the college in the year 2025?
   Answer: B — 7688
   The correct answer is 7688. Key Points - 2023: 5000. - 2024: 5000 × 1.24 = 6200. - 2025: 6200 × 1.24 = 7688.
2. Q18: By selling an article for ₹100, a man gains ₹15. What is the gain percentage for the article?
   Answer: C — 17 11/17%
   The correct answer is 17 11/17%. Key Points - SP = ₹100, Gain = ₹15 → CP = ₹85. Gain% = (15/85) × 100 = 1500/85 = 17 11/17%.
3. Q19: A library has an average of 252 visitors on Sundays, and 120 on other days. What is the average number of visitors per day in the month of June, beginning with a Sunday?
   Answer: C — 142
   The correct answer is 142. Key Points - June has 30 days. - Starting Sunday: Sundays fall on 1,8,15,22,29 → 5 Sundays, 25 other days. - Total = 252×5 + 120×25 = 1260 + 3000 = 4260. - Average = 4260 ÷ 30 = 142.
4. Q21: If R are divided between A and B in the ratio of a/b : c/d, then what is the amount that A shall receive?
   Answer: A — adR/(ad+bc)
   The correct answer is adR/(ad+bc). Key Points - Ratio a/b : c/d = ad : bc (multiplying through by bd). - A's share = ad/(ad+bc) × R = adR/(ad+bc).
5. Q25: The simple interest accrued on a sum of ₹20000 in 3 years is ₹7200. What would be the compound interest accrued on the same sum at the same rate for the same period?
   Answer: B — ₹8098.56
   The correct answer is ₹8098.56. Key Points - Rate = SI × 100 / (P × T) = 7200 × 100 / (20000 × 3) = 12%. - CI = 20000 × [(1.12)³ − 1] = 20000 × 0.404928 = ₹8098.56.
6. Q26: From a vessel containing pure milk, 20% is replaced by water and the process is repeated 2 more times. At the end of the third operation, the percentage of pure milk in the mixture is:
   Answer: B — 51.2%
   The correct answer is 51.2%. Key Points - After each replacement of 20%, pure milk = 80% of previous. - After 3 operations: 100 × (0.8)³ = 100 × 0.512 = 51.2%.
7. Q29: The sum of the radii of two circles is 75 cm and difference in their circumferences is 44 cm. The radii of the circles are:
   Answer: B — 41 cm, 34 cm
   The correct answer is 41 cm, 34 cm. Key Points - r₁ + r₂ = 75. Difference in circumferences: 2π(r₁−r₂) = 44 → r₁−r₂ = 44/(2 × 22/7) = 7. Solving: r₁ = (75+7)/2 = 41 cm, r₂ = 34 cm.
8. Q34: The radii of two cones are in the ratio 2:1 and their volumes are equal. The ratio of their heights is:
   Answer: C — 1:4
   The correct answer is 1:4. Key Points - Volume of cone = (1/3)πr²h. - Equal volumes: r₁²h₁ = r₂²h₂. - With r₁:r₂ = 2:1 → 4h₁ = h₂ → h₁:h₂ = 1:4.
9. Q37: x is six times as large as y. The percentage by which y is less than x is:
   Answer: D — 83 1/3%
   The correct answer is 83 1/3%. Key Points - x = 6y. y is less than x by: (x−y)/x × 100 = (6y−y)/(6y) × 100 = 5/6 × 100 = 83 1/3%.
10. Q39: If a shopkeeper reduces the selling price of a fan from ₹800 to ₹780, his loss increases by 2%. The cost price is:
    Answer: A — ₹1000
    The correct answer is ₹1000. Key Points - A decrease of ₹20 in SP increases loss by 2% → ₹20 = 2% of CP → CP = ₹1000.
11. Q40: The difference between simple interest from two sources on ₹2000 for 4 years is ₹80. The difference between their rates is:
    Answer: D — 1%
    The correct answer is 1%. Key Points - SI difference formula: P × Δr × t / 100 = 80. 2000 × Δr × 4 / 100 = 80 → Δr = 1%.
12. Q42: The perimeter of a rectangle is 120 m. If its length is twice its breadth, then its area is:
    Answer: D — 800 m²
    The correct answer is 800 m². Key Points - 2(l+b) = 120 → l+b = 60. l = 2b → 3b = 60 → b = 20 m, l = 40 m. Area = 40 × 20 = 800 m².
13. Q43: A man walks at 10 km/h. After every kilometer, he rests for 5 minutes. Time taken to cover 5 km is:
    Answer: D — 50 minutes
    The correct answer is 50 minutes. Key Points - Walking time for 5 km at 10 km/h = 30 min. - He rests after every km — after 1st, 2nd, 3rd, and 4th km (not after 5th as that is the destination) = 4 rests × 5 min = 20 min. - Total = 30 + 20 =
14. Q45: Shilpi sold a washing machine for ₹10200 at 15% loss. At what price did she buy it?
    Answer: A — ₹12000
    The correct answer is ₹12000. Key Points - Loss = 15%, SP = ₹10200. - CP = SP × 100/(100−15) = 10200 × 100/85 = ₹12000.

General Science — Solved Questions

1. Q53: Maximum amount of food is absorbed in blood in:
   Answer: A — Ileum
   The correct answer is Ileum. Key Points - Maximum absorption of digested nutrients (glucose, amino acids, fatty acids) into the bloodstream occurs in the ileum — the final and longest segment of the small intestine, richly lined with villi
2. Q59: In which of the following is transmission of sound not possible?
   Answer: B — Vacuum
   The correct answer is Vacuum. Key Points - Sound is a mechanical wave that requires a medium (solid, liquid, or gas) to travel. - In a vacuum, there are no particles to vibrate, so sound propagation is impossible.
3. Q61: In agriculture, the full form of HYV is:
   Answer: A — High Yielding Variety
   The correct answer is High Yielding Variety. Key Points - HYV = High Yielding Variety. - These are scientifically improved crop varieties that produce significantly higher yields per unit area, introduced during India's Green Revolution in
4. Q73: Brass is an alloy made up of:
   Answer: B — Copper and zinc
   The correct answer is Copper and zinc. Key Points - Brass is an alloy of Copper (Cu) and Zinc (Zn). - Bronze is copper + tin; solder is lead + tin; stainless steel is iron + chromium + nickel.
5. Q75: Oral Sabin Polio vaccine is which type of vaccine?
   Answer: A — Live Attenuated Vaccines
   The correct answer is Live Attenuated Vaccines. Key Points - Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV / Sabin vaccine) is a live attenuated (weakened) vaccine. - It uses living but weakened poliovirus strains that replicate in the gut and stimulate long-las
6. Q92: Which defect of vision can be corrected by cylindrical lenses?
   Answer: B — Astigmatism
   The correct answer is Astigmatism. Key Points - Astigmatism is caused by irregular curvature of the cornea or lens, resulting in blurred vision. - It is corrected using cylindrical (toric) lenses. - Myopia: concave lens; Hypermetropia: conv
7. Q95: Which gland acts as both exocrine and endocrine gland?
   Answer: A — Pancreas
   The correct answer is Pancreas. Key Points - The Pancreas is a mixed gland: exocrine function — secretes digestive enzymes (trypsin, lipase, amylase) into the duodenum via the pancreatic duct; endocrine function — secretes hormones insulin
8. Q114: Which disease is caused by Protein Energy Malnutrition?
   Answer: C — Marasmus
   The correct answer is Marasmus. Key Points - Marasmus is caused by severe Protein Energy Malnutrition (PEM) — a deficiency of both proteins and total calories. - It leads to extreme wasting in infants. - Scurvy = Vitamin C deficiency; Ricke

Rajasthan GK — Solved Questions

1. Q54: Who was the court poet of Maharana of Mewar, Shambhu Singh?
   Answer: B — Kaviraj Shyamal Das
   The correct answer is Kaviraj Shyamal Das. Key Points - Kaviraj Shyamal Das (1836–1893) was the court poet and historian of Maharana Shambhu Singh of Mewar. - He authored the monumental historical work "Veer Vinod," a chronicle of
2. Q55: Operation Sard Hawa on the Indo-Pak border of Rajasthan was conducted by which force?
   Answer: A — Border Security Force (BSF)
   The correct answer is Border Security Force (BSF). Key Points - Operation Sard Hawa (Cold Wind) was a Border Security Force (BSF) operation conducted along the Indo-Pak border in Rajasthan to curb cross-border infiltration and smuggling.
3. Q56: Languriya songs sung by devotees of Kela Devi are popular in which region of Rajasthan?
   Answer: B — Karauli
   The correct answer is Karauli. Key Points - Languriya songs are devotional folk songs dedicated to Goddess Kela Devi at Karauli, Rajasthan. - These songs are sung by devotees during the Kela Devi fair held in Chaitra month.
4. Q62: A rare carnivorous plant Utricularia has been found at which National Park in Rajasthan?
   Answer: D — Keoladeo National Park
   The correct answer is Keoladeo National Park. Key Points - Utricularia (bladderwort) is a rare carnivorous aquatic plant discovered at Keoladeo National Park (Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary), Rajasthan. - It traps small aquatic organisms using bl
5. Q63: Who propounded the Agni-kund theory of origin of Rajputs?
   Answer: A — Chandra Bardai
   The correct answer is Chandra Bardai. Key Points - Chandra Bardai, the court poet of Prithviraj Chauhan, proposed the Agni-kund (fire pit) theory of Rajput origin in the Prithviraj Raso, claiming four Rajput clans — Chauhan, Parmar, Chaluky
6. Q69: World Crafts Council has declared which place of Rajasthan as World Craft City?
   Answer: C — Jaipur
   The correct answer is Jaipur. Key Points - The World Crafts Council declared Jaipur a World Craft City in 2015, recognizing its exceptional craft heritage including blue pottery, block printing, gem cutting, jewelry making, and textile craf
7. Q70: As on February 10, 2025, who is the officiating Chairman of RPSC?
   Answer: C — Sh. Kailash Chand Meena
   The correct answer is Sh. Kailash Chand Meena. Key Points - As on February 10, 2025, Shri Kailash Chand Meena was serving as the officiating Chairman of the Rajasthan Public Service Commission (RPSC), Ajmer.
8. Q71: In which area of Rajasthan is Kajli Teej celebrated on Bhadrapad Krishna Tritiya?
   Answer: D — Bundi
   The correct answer is Bundi. Key Points - Kajli Teej (Badi Teej / Satudi Teej) is observed on Bhadrapad Krishna Tritiya (3rd day of dark fortnight of Bhadrapad). - It is especially significant in Bundi, where it is celebrated with great fan
9. Q72: Which place is known as the Khajuraho of Rajasthan?
   Answer: A — Kiradu
   The correct answer is Kiradu. Key Points - Kiradu (Kiradu temples), located in Barmer district, is known as the "Khajuraho of Rajasthan" for its elaborately carved 11th–12th century Solanki-style temples dedicated to Shiva.
10. Q74: Which town of Sikar in Rajasthan is a famous centre of gota industry?
    Answer: A — Khandela
    The correct answer is Khandela. Key Points - Khandela (in Sikar district) is a renowned centre of gota-kinari (zari ribbon/lace embroidery) work in Rajasthan. - This intricate craft is widely used in traditional Rajasthani bridal attire.
11. Q77: Who co-invented the Jaipur foot in 1969?
    Answer: A — Dr. P.K. Sethi
    The correct answer is Dr. P.K. Sethi. Key Points - The Jaipur Foot (Jaipur Limb) was co-invented in 1969 by Dr. Pramod Karan Sethi (orthopaedic surgeon at SMS Hospital, Jaipur) and master craftsman Ram Chandra Sharma. - It is an affordable
12. Q78: Which is the largest and most beautifully carved haveli in Jaisalmer?
    Answer: B — Patwon ki Haveli
    The correct answer is Patwon ki Haveli. Key Points - Patwon ki Haveli in Jaisalmer is the grandest and most elaborately carved haveli. - Built by wealthy merchant Guman Chand Patwa in the early 19th century, it is a complex of five intercon
13. Q84: Who is the current Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court as on June 2025?
    Answer: D — Hon'ble Manindra Mohan Shrivastava
    The correct answer is Hon'ble Manindra Mohan Shrivastava. Key Points - As on June 2025, Hon'ble Manindra Mohan Shrivastava was serving as the Chief Justice of the Rajasthan High Court, Jodhpur.
14. Q89: The Rajasthan Lokayukta and Up-Lokayuktas Act 1973 came into force on:
    Answer: D — 3rd February, 1973
    The correct answer is 3rd February, 1973. Key Points - The Rajasthan Lokayukta and Up-Lokayuktas Act, 1973 received the Governor's assent and came into force on 3rd February, 1973. - The Lokayukta institution investigates complaints of mala
15. Q90: Which is not an instrument used in Gair Dance?
    Answer: C — Gairiye
    The correct answer is Gairiye. Key Points - Instruments used in Gair Dance include Dhol (drum), Thali (steel plate), and Bankiya (a traditional wind instrument). - "Gairiye" refers to the male performer of the Gair dance — it is n
16. Q96: Kalibanga archaeological site is in which state?
    Answer: D — Rajasthan
    The correct answer is Rajasthan. Key Points - Kalibangan is an ancient Indus Valley Civilization site in Hanumangarh district, Rajasthan. - It is one of the most important sites showing evidence of both Early (pre-Harappan) and Mature Harap
17. Q101: Baataan ri Phulwari is written by:
    Answer: C — Vijaydan Detha
    The correct answer is Vijaydan Detha. Key Points - Baataan ri Phulwari (Garden of Tales) is a celebrated multi-volume collection of Rajasthani folk tales by Vijaydan Detha (popularly called "Bijji"), one of the greatest Rajasthani
18. Q106: Who is not included in the Panch Pir?
    Answer: B — Tejaji
    The correct answer is Tejaji. Key Points - The Panch Pir (Five Folk Saints) of Rajasthan are traditionally: Ramdevji, Pabuji, Harbhuji, Gogaji (Gogapir), and Mehaji (Mallinathji in some lists). - Tejaji is a separate and revered folk deity
19. Q108: Who was the last ruler of Bhati Dynasty?
    Answer: D — Jawahar Singh
    The correct answer is Jawahar Singh. Key Points - Jawahar Singh was the last ruler of the Bhati (Bhatti) Rajput dynasty of Jaisalmer before the state's accession to the Indian Union in 1947–49.
20. Q109: In which region of Rajasthan is Shri Mahavirji fair organised?
    Answer: D — Karauli
    The correct answer is Karauli. Key Points - Shri Mahavirji fair is one of the most important Jain pilgrimage fairs, held at the Shri Mahavirji temple in Karauli district, Rajasthan, during Chaitra Shukla Trayodashi.
21. Q110: Name the founder of Parmar Dynasty of Abu.
    Answer: D — Dhumraj
    The correct answer is Dhumraj. Key Points - Dhumraj (Dhumraja) was the founder of the Parmar (Paramara) dynasty of Abu (Mount Abu). - This dynasty ruled the Abu region and was known for its patronage of Jain temples at Dilwara.
22. Q111: Which artificial lake was built by Ajayraj Chauhan?
    Answer: A — Anasagar Lake
    The correct answer is Anasagar Lake. Key Points - Anasagar Lake (Ana Sagar) in Ajmer was constructed by Arnoraja (Anaji), also known as Ajayraj Chauhan, in the 12th century by building a dam across the Luni River. - Emperor Jahangir later b
23. Q112: Who was the first Chief Information Commissioner of Rajasthan State?
    Answer: B — Shri M.D. Kaurani
    The correct answer is Shri M.D. Kaurani. Key Points - Shri M.D. Kaurani (Madan Dilawar Kaurani) was the first Chief Information Commissioner of Rajasthan State, appointed after the Rajasthan Right to Information Act came into force in 2000
24. Q115: Who was awarded Padma Shri for contribution to Maand singing?
    Answer: A — Allah Jilai Bai
    The correct answer is Allah Jilai Bai. Key Points - Allah Jilai Bai (1902–1992) from Bikaner was a legendary Maand singer of Rajasthan, awarded the Padma Shri in 1982 for her extraordinary contribution to this classical folk music tradition
25. Q118: Name the author of Annals and Antiquities of Rajasthan.
    Answer: C — Col. James Tod
    The correct answer is Col. James Tod. Key Points - Col. James Tod (1782–1835) was a British political agent in Rajputana who authored "Annals and Antiquities of Rajasthan" (1829–1832). - It remains the most comprehensive historica

Indian Polity — Solved Questions

1. Q57: Who appoints the Advocate General for the state?
   Answer: B — Governor
   The correct answer is Governor. Key Points - Article 165 of the Indian Constitution: The Advocate General of a State is appointed by the Governor of that state and holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
2. Q65: Who is the main officer in-charge of district administration?
   Answer: A — District Collector
   The correct answer is District Collector. Key Points - The District Collector (IAS officer) is the head of district administration, serving as the representative of both central and state governments. - He also functions as District Magistr
3. Q66: Which comes under the State List of the Constitution of India?
   Answer: A — Police
   The correct answer is Police. Key Points - Police (Entry 2) is in the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. - Defence is in Union List, Banking is in Union List, and Forest is in the Concurrent List.
4. Q68: What is the main object of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution?
   Answer: A — Right to protection of life and personal liberty
   The correct answer is Right to protection of life and personal liberty. Key Points - Article 21: "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law." It guarantees the fun
5. Q76: Who is the head of criminal administration of the district in India?
   Answer: C — District Magistrate
   The correct answer is District Magistrate. Key Points - The District Magistrate (DM) is the head of criminal administration in a district, responsible for maintenance of law and order, and presides over the District Sessions Court in crimin
6. Q85: Which appointment is not made by the Governor of a state?
   Answer: C — Comptroller and Auditor General
   The correct answer is Comptroller and Auditor General. Key Points - The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is appointed by the President under Article 148 — not by the Governor. - The Governor appoints the State PSC Chairman (Ar
7. Q86: Who led the committee on functions of the Indian Constituent Assembly?
   Answer: A — G.V. Mavalankar
   The correct answer is G.V. Mavalankar. Key Points - G.V. Mavalankar (Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar) chaired the Committee on Functions of the Indian Constituent Assembly. - He later became the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha (1952–1956).
8. Q88: The Chief Minister of a state is appointed by the:
   Answer: B — Governor
   The correct answer is Governor. Key Points - Article 164(1) of the Indian Constitution: The Chief Minister of a state shall be appointed by the Governor. - The other Ministers are appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Ministe
9. Q93: Seventh Schedule in the Indian Constitution is concerned with:
   Answer: B — Distribution of powers between Centre and States
   The correct answer is Distribution of powers between Centre and States. Key Points - The Seventh Schedule (Article 246) divides legislative subjects into three lists: Union List (97 subjects), State List (66 subjects), and Concurrent List (
10. Q94: Which case established the Basic Structure Doctrine of the Indian Constitution?
    Answer: C — Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala
    The correct answer is Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala. Key Points - The Basic Structure Doctrine was laid down in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala case (1973, 13-judge bench). - The Supreme Court held that Parliame
11. Q98: What is the tagline/campaign announced to commemorate the 75th anniversary of the Indian Constitution?
    Answer: D — Hamara Samvidhan, Hamara Swabhiman
    The correct answer is Hamara Samvidhan, Hamara Swabhiman. Key Points - The Government of India launched the campaign "Hamara Samvidhan, Hamara Swabhiman" (Our Constitution, Our Pride) on 26 November 2024 to commemorate the 75th an
12. Q103: Which agency conducts election to local bodies?
    Answer: A — State Election Commission
    The correct answer is State Election Commission. Key Points - Under Article 243K of the Indian Constitution (73rd Amendment), the State Election Commission superintends, directs, and controls the preparation of electoral rolls and conduct o
13. Q113: Who can promulgate ordinances when the State Legislative Assembly is not in session?
    Answer: C — Governor
    The correct answer is Governor. Key Points - Article 213 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor to promulgate Ordinances when the State Legislature is not in session. - Such ordinances have the same force and effect as an Act of t
14. Q116: State Election Commission Rajasthan was constituted by which article?
    Answer: A — Article 243K
    The correct answer is Article 243K. Key Points - Article 243K was inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. - It mandates the constitution of a State Election Commission for superintendence, direction, and control of preparat
15. Q117: The Chairperson of a State Human Rights Commission can only be removed by:
    Answer: A — President
    The correct answer is President. Key Points - Section 23 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993: The Chairperson of a State Human Rights Commission can only be removed by the President of India (not the Governor), on the ground of prov

Geography — Solved Questions

1. Q58: Which species is found in tropical evergreen forests of India?
   Answer: A — Rosewood
   The correct answer is Rosewood. Key Points - Tropical evergreen forests (areas with 200 cm rainfall) support species like rosewood, mahogany, ebony, and bamboo. - Babool grows in dry regions, Pine in temperate Himalayan zones, Birch in alpi
2. Q60: In which region of Andaman and Nicobar islands is Saddle Peak located?
   Answer: D — North Andaman
   The correct answer is North Andaman. Key Points - Saddle Peak (732 m) is the highest peak of the entire Andaman and Nicobar archipelago, located in North Andaman Island.
3. Q67: The height of Western Ghats progressively increases from:
   Answer: C — North to South
   The correct answer is North to South. Key Points - The Western Ghats run parallel to India's west coast from Gujarat to Kerala. - Their elevation progressively increases from north to south, culminating in Anai Mudi (2695 m) in Kerala — the
4. Q79: The southernmost point of India is called:
   Answer: A — Indira Point
   The correct answer is Indira Point. Key Points - Indira Point (formerly Pygmalion Point) on Great Nicobar Island is India's southernmost tip. - Indira Col is the northernmost point (J&K), and Kibithu is the easternmost (Arunachal Prades
5. Q80: In which division of Himalayas is Karewa formation found?
   Answer: D — Kashmir Himalayas
   The correct answer is Kashmir Himalayas. Key Points - Karewa formations are lacustrine (lake) deposits found in the Kashmir Valley, formed from sediments of ancient lakes. - They are terraced deposits important for saffron cultivation.
6. Q82: Which river flows in a rift valley?
   Answer: C — Narmada
   The correct answer is Narmada. Key Points - The Narmada River flows westward through a rift valley (graben) between the Vindhya mountain range to the north and the Satpura range to the south. - It is one of the few major rivers that flow we
7. Q107: Where is Mount Thullier located in India?
   Answer: C — Great Nicobar
   The correct answer is Great Nicobar. Key Points - Mount Thullier (633 m) is the highest peak of the Nicobar group of islands, located in Great Nicobar Island. - It is a part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands Union Territory.
8. Q119: Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve is located in which state?
   Answer: B — Madhya Pradesh
   The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh. Key Points - Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve is a transboundary reserve spread across Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. - It encompasses the Amarkantak plateau, source of the sacred Narmada and S

History — Solved Questions

1. Q64: What is the study of inscriptions called?
   Answer: D — Epigraphy
   The correct answer is Epigraphy. Key Points - Epigraphy is the study and interpretation of ancient inscriptions carved on stone, metal, clay, or other durable materials. - Numismatics = coins; Palaeontology = fossils; Mycology = fungi.
2. Q83: Who was the founder of Arya Samaj?
   Answer: A — Swami Dayanand Saraswati
   The correct answer is Swami Dayanand Saraswati. Key Points - Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati on 10 April 1875 in Bombay (Mumbai). - It advocated a return to Vedic principles, opposed idol worship, caste discrimination, an
3. Q87: Prehistoric Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka belong to which state?
   Answer: B — Madhya Pradesh
   The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh. Key Points - Bhimbetka Rock Shelters are located in the Vindhyan foothills near Raisen district, Madhya Pradesh. - They contain the oldest known cave paintings in India and are a UNESCO World Heritage S
4. Q91: In which year did the British establish the law to abolish Sati Pratha?
   Answer: C — 1829
   The correct answer is 1829. Key Points - Lord William Bentinck enacted the Bengal Sati Regulation (Regulation XVII) in 1829, abolishing the practice of Sati (widow immolation) in Bengal. Ram Mohan Roy's advocacy was instrumental in this ref
5. Q97: Who invaded India in 1739?
   Answer: B — Nadir Shah
   The correct answer is Nadir Shah. Key Points - Nadir Shah, the Persian ruler of the Afsharid dynasty, invaded India in 1739 during the reign of Mughal emperor Muhammad Shah. - He sacked Delhi, massacred thousands, and carried away the Peaco
6. Q99: The first battle of Tarain was fought between:
   Answer: B — Prithviraj Chauhan and Muhammad of Ghor
   The correct answer is Prithviraj Chauhan and Muhammad of Ghor. Key Points - The First Battle of Tarain (1191 CE) was fought between Prithviraj Chauhan (Rajput king of Delhi-Ajmer) and Muhammad of Ghor. - Prithviraj won this battle. - In the
7. Q100: Who played the most important role in national unification?
   Answer: C — Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
   The correct answer is Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel. Key Points - Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel, the first Home Minister of India, was called the "Iron Man of India" for his crucial role in integrating 562 princely states into the Indian
8. Q102: Who founded Nalanda Mahavihara?
   Answer: C — Kumargupta-I
   The correct answer is Kumargupta-I. Key Points - Nalanda Mahavihara, the ancient center of Buddhist learning, was founded by Kumaragupta I (also called Mahendraditya) of the Gupta dynasty in the 5th century CE. - At its peak it had over 10,
9. Q104: Who called the revolution of 1857 the first war of Indian Independence?
   Answer: A — Veer Savarkar
   The correct answer is Veer Savarkar. Key Points - Veer Savarkar (Vinayak Damodar Savarkar) first called the revolt of 1857 the "First War of Indian Independence" in his 1909 book of the same name, challenging the British descripti

General Knowledge & Current Affairs — Solved Questions

1. Q81: Which CAPF force has the highest representation of women?
   Answer: C — Central Industrial Security Force
   The correct answer is Central Industrial Security Force. Key Points - Among Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs), the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) has enrolled the highest percentage of women, particularly in security roles at ai
2. Q105: India's first hydrogen dispensing station is operational at Indian Oil's R&D centre in:
   Answer: B — Faridabad
   The correct answer is Faridabad. Key Points - India's first hydrogen dispensing station was commissioned at Indian Oil Corporation's Research and Development Centre at Faridabad, Haryana, as part of India's National Green Hydrogen Mission.
3. Q120: Who became the first woman Director General of Armed Forces Medical Services?
   Answer: A — Vice Admiral Arti Sarin
   The correct answer is Vice Admiral Arti Sarin. Key Points - Vice Admiral Arti Sarin made history as the first woman to be appointed Director General of Armed Forces Medical Services (AFMS) of India, breaking a significant gender barrier in

English Language — Solved Questions

1. Q121: Four statements about the world's first official airmail delivery are given below. Choose the incorrect option.
   Answer: C — The flight covered a distance of eight miles.
   The correct answer is The flight covered a distance of eight miles.. Key Points - The world's first official airmail flight (Feb 18, 1911): Pilot Henri Pequet flew from Allahabad Polo Ground to Naini, carrying about 6,500 mail items (not 6,
2. Q122: Which of the following statements is NOT true about the reign of Chandragupta Maurya?
   Answer: C — His empire stretched from Sikkim in Eastern India to Iraq in the west.
   The correct answer is His empire stretched from Sikkim in Eastern India to Iraq in the west.. Key Points - Chandragupta Maurya's empire (322–297 BCE) stretched from Afghanistan/Eastern Iran in the west to Bengal in the east, and from the Hi
3. Q123: From whom did Alexander III of Macedon adopt the system of using carrier pigeons as messengers?
   Answer: D — Ancient Persians
   The correct answer is Ancient Persians. Key Points - Alexander III of Macedon (Alexander the Great) adopted the use of carrier pigeons as military messengers from the ancient Persians, who had developed one of the earliest systematic pigeon
4. Q124: What was India Post known as earlier?
   Answer: B — Company Mail
   The correct answer is Company Mail. Key Points - India Post was originally known as "Company Mail" when it operated under the East India Company. - It was reorganized under Lord Dalhousie's Post Office Act of 1854 and has since ev
5. Q125: How many years has India Post been in service for?
   Answer: A — 170 years
   The correct answer is 170 years. Key Points - India Post was officially established by Lord Dalhousie on October 1, 1854, with the Post Office Act. - As of 2024, India Post has been in service for 170 years (2024 − 1854 = 170).
6. Q126: Fill in the blank: Kartik a plan to get an unlimited supply of popcorn in the theatre.
   Answer: C — devised
   The correct answer is devised. Key Points - "Devised" means planned, invented, or schemed — the correct word for creating a plan. - "Divine" = holy; "divided" = split; "diviced" is not a real English
7. Q127: Choose the most appropriate antonym for: deliberate
   Answer: B — Unintentional
   The correct answer is Unintentional. Key Points - Antonym of "deliberate" (intentional, calculated, purposeful) is "unintentional" (accidental, not planned). - "Casual" means relaxed, "legitimate" mea
8. Q128: Fill in the blank with the most appropriate idiom: He was as anxious as .
   Answer: B — a cat on a hot tin roof
   The correct answer is a cat on a hot tin roof. Key Points - The idiom "a cat on a hot tin roof" describes someone extremely anxious or nervous. - "Cool as a cucumber" = calm; "daredevil" = reckless risk-taker;
9. Q129: Choose the grammatically correct statement.
   Answer: A — The Fodder scam was unearthed after a decade long investigation.
   The correct answer is The Fodder scam was unearthed after a decade long investigation.. Key Points - "The Fodder scam was unearthed after a decade long investigation" is grammatically correct: past passive voice with "was + p
10. Q130: Match List-I words with their synonyms in List-II.
    Answer: A — a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
    The correct answer is a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i. Key Points - Matching List-I words with their synonyms from List-II: a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i is the correct matching based on the words and synonyms provided in the question.

Hindi Language — Solved Questions

1. Q131: Which of the following is the correct Hindi sentence?
   Answer: B — Main Delhi gaya tha.
   The correct answer is Main Delhi gaya tha.. Key Points - "Main Delhi gaya tha" is a grammatically correct Hindi sentence in the past tense with first-person masculine subject. - Option A has incorrect word order, C has subject-ver
2. Q132: The suffix contained in the word Bhar is:
   Answer: B — A
   The correct answer is A. Key Points - In Hindi word formation, the word "Bhar" (भार) contains the suffix "अ" (A). - The root "bhr" (to carry/bear) takes the suffix "अ" to form the noun "Bhar"
3. Q133: Which compound is present in Chaumasa?
   Answer: C — Dvigu
   The correct answer is Dvigu. Key Points - "Chaumasa" (चौमासा = four months/rainy season) is a Dvigu Samasa — a type of Tatpurusha compound in which the first member is a numeral (Chau = four) and the compound denotes a period of t
4. Q134: The antonym of Upjau is:
   Answer: C — Banjar
   The correct answer is Banjar. Key Points - "Upjau" (उपजाऊ) means fertile/productive. - Its antonym is "Banjar" (बंजर) meaning barren/infertile/wasteland. - "Urvara" is a synonym of upjau (both mean fertile), an
5. Q135: Correct meaning of the word pair: Pat-Patt
   Answer: A — Cloth-door
   The correct answer is Cloth-door. Key Points - "Pat-Patt" is a word pair where Pat (पट) = cloth/fabric and Patt (पट्ट) = door/board/slab. - The correct meaning is: Pat = Cloth, Patt = Door.
6. Q136: Which is an example of consonant sandhi?
   Answer: D — Ut + lekh = Ullekh
   The correct answer is Ut + lekh = Ullekh. Key Points - "Ut + lekh = Ullekh" (उत् + लेख = उल्लेख) is an example of Vyanjan (consonant) Sandhi — the consonant "t" in "Ut" assimilates with the consonant "l&qu
7. Q137: One word for: Jiski tulna na ho
   Answer: B — Incomparable
   The correct answer is Incomparable. Key Points - "Jiski tulna na ho" (one who/that which cannot be compared) = "Incomparable." In Hindi: Anupam or Asadhaaran. - "Extraordinary" and "Unique" are relate
8. Q138: Meaning of the proverb: Dada bada na bhaiya sabse bada rupaiya
   Answer: B — Money is everything.
   The correct answer is Money is everything.. Key Points - The proverb "Dada bada na bhaiya, sabse bada rupaiya" literally means neither grandfather nor brother is supreme — money (rupaya) is supreme. - The moral is that in worldly
9. Q139: Meaning of the idiom: Hawa ho jana
   Answer: A — Run away
   The correct answer is Run away. Key Points - "Hawa ho jana" (हवा हो जाना) is a Hindi idiom meaning to run away, flee suddenly, or disappear quickly — as if carried away by the wind.
10. Q140: Suitable Hindi term for Reminder is:
    Answer: A — Anusmarak
    The correct answer is Anusmarak. Key Points - The standard Hindi administrative term for "Reminder" (a follow-up letter) is "Anusmarak" (अनुस्मारक). - Paripatra = circular; Prishthank = endorsement/page number; Adhisooch
11. Q141: Which is not a synonym of Grih?
    Answer: A — Nakshatra
    The correct answer is Nakshatra. Key Points - "Grih" (गृह) means house/home. - Its synonyms include Bhavan (building), Aalay (abode/residence), and Ghar (house). - "Nakshatra" (नक्षत्र) means a star or lunar mansion — it
12. Q142: Identify the correctly written word.
    Answer: A — ऋषि
    The correct answer is ऋषि. Key Points - The correct Hindi spelling for sage/saint is "ऋषि" (R̥ṣi) — using the vowel sign ऋ and short इ at the end. - "रीषी" uses incorrect long vowels, "ऋषी" has an incorrect lon

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