SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 17 Sep 2025 (Shift 1) — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

General Intelligence & Reasoning — Solved Questions

1. Q1: A is the brother of B. C is the sister of B. D is the father of C. How is D related to A?
   Answer: A — Father
2. Q2: Choose the address that is the same as the one given below. No. 44, Hillcrest Villas, Shimla, Himachal Pradesh-171001
   Answer: B — No. 44, Hillcrest Villas, Shimla, Himachal Pradesh- 171001
3. Q3: Identify the relation between Statement I and Statement II. Statement I. The bank’s net profit increased significantly in the last quarter. Statement II. The bank implemented cost-cutting measures and
   Answer: B — II is the cause and I is the effect.
4. Q4: The following equation is incorrect. Which of the following two signs should be interchanged to correct the equation? 18 + 6 × 4 – 12 ÷ 3 = 17
   Answer: D — – and ÷
5. Q5: The given statements are followed by two conclusions. Find out which conclusion is TRUE based on the given statements. Statements : J K = L, M ≥ N < K, O < J < P , N Q R Conclusions: I. P M I
   Answer: B — Only conclusion II is true
6. Q6: Select the letter-cluster from along the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. B E K, D G M, F I O, H K Q, ?
   Answer: C — JMS
7. Q7: What comes next: 3, 6, 18, 108, ?
   Answer: B — 1944
8. Q8: What will come at the place of question mark? 5, 9, 17, 33, 65, ?
   Answer: A — 129
9. Q9: Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows. Statement: The government has announced a reduction in LPG subsidies. Conclusions: I. Citizens will now have to pay mor
   Answer: A — Only Conclusion I follows
10. Q10: Instruction: Identify the assumptions that must hold for the statement to be valid, then choose the correction option. Statement: While technological advancements in energy production have made renewa
    Answer: A — Only I and III are implicit
11. Q11: Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows: Statement: T raffic violations have decreased after the installation of speed cameras. Conclusions : I. Surveillance di
    Answer: A — Only Conclusion I follows
12. Q12: Which of the following is/are identical to the address given: Vikram Singh 18B, Golden Heights, Moti Nagar, Delhi, 110011 — (1) Vikram Singh 18B, Golden Heights, Moti Nagar, Delhi, 110011 (2) Vikram S
    Answer: B — 1 and 3
13. Q13: Each question involves rearranging specific positions of the letters from the original word, and you must choose the correct transformed version from the options. PLANET is to EAPLNT as TARGET is to:
    Answer: C — ERT AGT
14. Q14: Find the odd one out: Jawaharlal Nehru, Indira Gandhi, Atal Bihari V ajpayee, Sardar V allabhbhai Patel, Narendra Modi, Rajiv Gandhi
    Answer: C — Sardar V allabhbhai Patel
15. Q15: Pointing to a boy, a man said, “He is the son of my wife’s sister’s husband.” How is the boy related to the man?
    Answer: B — Nephew
16. Q16: What comes next? MZM, PXK, SVI, ?
    Answer: A — VTG
17. Q17: Find the odd one out from the given alternatives:
    Answer: D — Igneous Rock
18. Q18: If ‘SUN’ is coded as ‘RTM’, what is the code for ‘MOON’?
    Answer: B — LNNM
19. Q19: If 25%of a certain number is 15, what is that number?
    Answer: B — 60
20. Q20: If 6 3 = 54 and 8 2 = 48, what is 5 4?
    Answer: D — 60
21. Q21: If 2 @ 3 = 13, 3 @ 4 = 25, then what is 4 @ 5?
    Answer: C — 41
22. Q22: A 30 L mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 3 : 2. How much milk must be added to make it 4 : 1?
    Answer: C — 30 L
23. Q23: If the given symbols mean: ‘+’ means ‘divided by’ ‘-’ means ‘multiplied by’ ‘×’ means ‘minus’ ‘÷’ means ‘plus’ Then, find the value of the following expressions: 8 ÷ 2 × 3 + 18 - 6 = ?
    Answer: A — 9
24. Q24: Rearrange the letters given below to form the name of a weapon: REPSA
    Answer: B — spear
25. Q25: If + = ÷, – = ×, ÷ = +, × = –; then 36 + 6 – 2 × 3 = ?
    Answer: D — 9

General Awareness — Solved Questions

1. Q26: In Ragavibodha, Pt. Somnath defined a rāga through Devamāyā svarūpa (ethos). Which of the following, denotes its tonal structure?
   Answer: C — Swarlakshana
2. Q27: Which of the following Mughal tombs deviates from the typical square ‘hasht-bihisht’ (eight-part) layout?
   Answer: B — Akbar’s T omb (Sikandra)
3. Q28: Read the following statements carefully: Statement 1 : The seals of the Harappan culture were made using locally found steatite. Statement 2 : These seals often feature animal motifs and undeciphered
   Answer: C — Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct
4. Q29: The festival of Bhagoria begins seven days before which Hindu festival?
   Answer: B — Holika Dahan
5. Q30: Which of the following terms is specifically associated with the javelin throw?
   Answer: B — Sector
6. Q31: Which of the following dynasties minted the “Dehliwal” coins in Delhi?
   Answer: B — The T omaras
7. Q32: Which of the following pairs (Educational Event - Key Outcome/Initiative) is correctly matched?
   Answer: A — Charter Act, 1813 - Allocated funds for promotion of education
8. Q33: Who won India’s first Paralympic medals in the women’s 200m T12 and men’s javelin throw F41 events at Paris 2024?
   Answer: A — Simran (bronze, 200m T12) and Navdeep Singh (gold, javelin F41)
9. Q34: Which of the following best reflects India’s operational and diplomatic approach to boundary demarcation with Myanmar amidst recent local protests over fencing?
   Answer: B — India and Myanmar conduct joint surveys and proposed a Joint Boundary Working Group.
10. Q35: Who is the author of the book ‘School to Startup: Navigating the path of Entrepreneurship’?
    Answer: A — Rohit Sinha
11. Q36: Where was the 4 th KIO National (Senior, U-21 & Para) Karate Championship held from 26-29 March 2025?
    Answer: C — Hyderabad
12. Q37: Which of the following statements about the 2024 Inter- State athletics Championships is/are correct?
    Answer: A — Sahil Silwal crossed 80m for the first time this season to win javelin gold.
13. Q38: What is the minimum age required to contest the Presidential election in India?
    Answer: A — 35
14. Q39: Read the following statements about aerobic respiration.
    Answer: B — Kreb’s cycle occurs in the mitochondrial matrix.
15. Q40: Which Article empowers the Parliament to create laws on State List subjects under national interest?
    Answer: A — Article 249
16. Q41: Vilasini Natyam, once performed in temples and courts, is a classical dance form revived in which Indian state?
    Answer: C — Andhra Pradesh
17. Q42: Consider the following statements and choose the correct option: Statement 1: The Production Possibility Frontier (PPF) shows the trade-offs and opportunity costs faced by an economy. Statement 2: The
    Answer: A — Only Statement 1 is correct
18. Q43: A key component evaluated by the 2025 Index of Economic Freedom concerning “Government Size” is:
    Answer: B — Government Spending Levels
19. Q44: Which Five-Y ear Plan focused on heavy industries?
    Answer: B — Second
20. Q45: Which Indian initiative under the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) aims to improve micro-climate resilience through community-led water harvesting in semi-arid zones?
    Answer: B — Climate Resilient Watershed Programme
21. Q46: Economic liberalisation mainly affects which sector?
    Answer: D — Primary, Secondary and T ertiary
22. Q47: Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): The 1991 reforms boosted India foreign exchange reserves significantly. Rea
    Answer: A — Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
23. Q48: Match the dominant folk dance with the song-theme: Folk dance Song-theme i. Panthi A. Devotional hymns of Guru Ghasidas (Hari-Gaitri) ii. Gotipua B. Krishna-Jagannath leela narratives iii. Kalbelia C.
    Answer: A — i-A, ii-B, iii-C, iv-D
24. Q49: Consider the following statements:
    Answer: B — It empowers autonomous district councils to make laws on specified subjects. Which of the above is/are correct? 1. Only 1 2. Only 2
25. Q50: Consider the following statements about the James Webb Space T elescope (JWST).
    Answer: D — All 1, 2 and 3

Quantitative Aptitude — Solved Questions

1. Q51: If a+ b = 5 and ab = 6, Find: (a³ + b³)² – 9a²b² (a + b)².
   Answer: A — –6875
2. Q52: Given that W : X = 5 : 6, X : Y = 3 : 7, and Y : Z = 8 : 9, find the compound ratio W : X : Y : Z.
   Answer: A — 20 : 24 : 56 : 63
3. Q53: What is the value of 666+ + +⋅⋅⋅
   Answer: A — 3
4. Q54: A vendor purchases seven shirts at the marked price of six shirts. If he sells each shirt after giving a 4% discount on its marked price, what is his profit percentage?
   Answer: C — 12%
5. Q55: Pipe A is capable of filling a tank in 16 minutes while Pipe B can fill the same tank in 24 minutes. Both pipes are opened together, but after 4 minutes, the rate of Pipe A doubles and the rate of Pip
   Answer: A — 4 min
6. Q56: Simplify: (12 6 3)+
   Answer: B — 3 + 3
7. Q57: A sum of 10000 is lent out in two parts, one at 7% simple interest and the other at 12% simple interest. If the annual interest is 900, the sum lent at 12% is:
   Answer: B — 4000
8. Q58: 900 is lent at a certain rate of simple interest. After 9 months, another 600 is lent at a rate that is 1.5 times the original rate. If the total simple interest after 1 year is 72, find the original
   Answer: A — 6.4%
9. Q59: A flagpole has a shadow measuring 10 metres. Given that the height of the flagpole is 10 3 metres, What is the angle at which the sun is elevated?
   Answer: C — 60°
10. Q60: A hollow metallic sphere has outer radius 10 cm and is melted to make 50 smaller solid spheres of radius 2 cm. What is the inner radius of the original sphere?
    Answer: A — 8.43 cm
11. Q61: The volume of a hemisphere is numerically equal to four times its cruved surface area. Find its radius.
    Answer: A — 12 cm
12. Q62: What is the minimum number of cuts required to divide a cuboid into 8 equal cuboids?
    Answer: B — 3
13. Q63: If the height of a cone is tripled and the radius is halved, how does the volume change?
    Answer: B — Becomes three-fourths of the original
14. Q64: If 12sin , and 0,13 2  πθ= θ∈  , then what is the value of tan q?
    Answer: C — 12 5
15. Q65: What is the value of tan A + cot A if tan A = 2?
    Answer: A — 5 2
16. Q66: What is the slope of the line 2x + 3y = 6?
    Answer: A — 2 3−
17. Q67: A sector of a circle has a central angle of 60° and a radius of 8 cm. Another sector of the same circle has a central angle of 3 π radians. What is the ratio of the area of the first sector to the are
    Answer: C — 1:1
18. Q68: A triangle can have:
    Answer: C — Only one right or one obtuse angle
19. Q69: A line L is the perpendicular bisector of the line segment connecting points A (2, 5) and B (8, –1). What is the y-intercept of line L?
    Answer: C — 3
20. Q70: The area of a triangle ABC is 16 cm². If a similar triangle DEF has sides that are twice the length of ΔABC’s sides, what is the area of ΔDEF?
    Answer: C — 64 cm²
21. Q71: 443 + 353 – 533 + 159 is equal to
    Answer: A — –20659
22. Q72: If 5sin cos 4AA+= , find sin 2A.
    Answer: D — 9 16
23. Q73: From an outside point P, two tangents, PA and PB, are drawn to a circle. Given that the length of PA is 12 cm, what is the length of PB?
    Answer: C — 12 cm
24. Q74: A circle is inscribed within a right triangle. Considering that the lengths of the two legs measure 6 cm and 8 cm, what is the radius of the inscribed circle?
    Answer: A — 2 cm
25. Q75: If a = 0.02, b = 0.03, c = –0.05, and a + b + c = 0, find (a³ + b³ + c³) ÷ (3abc)
    Answer: C — 1

English Comprehension — Solved Questions

1. Q76: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: LUMINOUS
   Answer: D — Radiant
2. Q77: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: EXIGUOUS
   Answer: A — Scanty
3. Q78: Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: Abrogate
   Answer: C — Uphold
4. Q79: Choose the correct meaning of idiom T o chew the cud of reflection
   Answer: C — Pondering deeply
5. Q80: Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: Rarely had the court encountered a petition (a)/so devoid of legal merit, nor so conspicuously intended (b)/to attract media attention rather than
   Answer: B — (b)
6. Q81: Find the word that is spelled correctly and means ‘the quality of being sarcastic in a bitter way.’
   Answer: A — Causticity
7. Q82: Choose the correct one-word substitute for: ‘ A person who supports change’.
   Answer: C — Reformer
8. Q83: Choose the correct one-word substitute for: ‘Extremely old-fashioned; belonging to a time before the biblical flood’.
   Answer: C — Antediluvian
9. Q84: Choose the correct option: The anthropologist’s findings were considered so controversial that they were initially ...............
   Answer: A — disregarded
10. Q85: Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The draft policy outlines (a)/that each employee must adhere to (b)/the code of conduct (c)/irrespective of their position.(d)
    Answer: D — (d)
11. Q86: Change the following from active to passive: They were showing the movie at 7 p.m.
    Answer: C — The movie was being shown at 7 p.m.
12. Q87: Choose the correct spelling of a word meaning ‘witty, clever and verbally skillful’.
    Answer: A — Persiflage
13. Q88: Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The bishop condemned the act as simony, citing canonical law.
    Answer: C — The alchemist failed to explain the simony in his formulas.
14. Q89: Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: A decision has been taken to have the proposal reviewed by an external panel. SOLVED PAPER (17th Sept
    Answer: C — They have decided to get the proposal reviewed by an external panel.
15. Q90: Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: She is confident to win the match.
    Answer: C — of winning the match
16. Q91: Direction (Q 91–95): Read the following passage and answer the questions on the passage: India’s legacy of healing practices—embodied in disciplines such as Y oga, Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani—presents
    Answer: B — Loss of its philosophical essence
17. Q92: Direction (Q 91–95): Read the following passage and answer the questions on the passage: India’s legacy of healing practices—embodied in disciplines such as Y oga, Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani—presents
    Answer: C — Restoring body’s internal balance through lifestyle
18. Q93: Direction (Q 91–95): Read the following passage and answer the questions on the passage: India’s legacy of healing practices—embodied in disciplines such as Y oga, Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani—presents
    Answer: C — Marginalization of traditional knowledge holders
19. Q94: Direction (Q 91–95): Read the following passage and answer the questions on the passage: India’s legacy of healing practices—embodied in disciplines such as Y oga, Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani—presents
    Answer: C — Integration is possible with humility and standards
20. Q95: Direction (Q 91–95): Read the following passage and answer the questions on the passage: India’s legacy of healing practices—embodied in disciplines such as Y oga, Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani—presents
    Answer: C — Dialogical integration of ancient and modern systems
21. Q96: A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. He said to me, “Y ou should work ha
    Answer: B — He told me that I should work harder.
22. Q97: A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. The scientist said, “We have been w
    Answer: A — The scientist said they had been working on that project for months.
23. Q98: A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four options given, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. The diplomat said that only after t
    Answer: C — “Only after the ceasefire will negotiations begin,” said the diplomat.
24. Q99: Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage. (a) The blueprint is finalized after approval from stakeholders. (b) First, a basic framework is proposed. (c) Then revisi
    Answer: A — (b), (c), (a), (d)
25. Q100: Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: (a) A central tenet of this approach is the concept of a “class,” which acts as a blueprint for creating objects. (b) Object-Oriented Pr
    Answer: A — (b), (a), (c), (d)

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are there in the SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 17 Sep 2025 (Shift 1)?

The SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 17 Sep 2025 (Shift 1) has 100 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

When was the SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 17 Sep 2025 (Shift 1) held?

The SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 17 Sep 2025 (Shift 1) was held on 17 September 2025.

Is there negative marking in SSC CGL 2025?

Yes. SSC CGL deducts 0.5 marks for every wrong answer, so accuracy matters as much as attempting more questions.

Is the SSC CGL 2025 answer key with explanations available for free?

Yes. Every question in this paper includes the correct answer and a detailed, step-by-step explanation, free of cost and without login.

Can I attempt the SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 17 Sep 2025 (Shift 1) online?

Yes. You can attempt the full paper online in a timed, exam-like interface, and get your score with solutions immediately after submitting.