SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 17 Sep 2025 (Shift 1) — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

General Intelligence & Reasoning — Solved Questions

1. Q1: A is the brother of B. C is the sister of B. D is the father of C. How is D related to A?
   Answer: A — Father
   The correct answer is Father. Key Points - Build the family tree step by step: A is B's brother and C is B's sister, so A, B and C are all children of the same parents — one sibling group. - D is the father of C; since A is C's sibling, D i
2. Q2: Choose the address that is the same as the one given below. No. 44, Hillcrest Villas, Shimla, Himachal Pradesh-171001
   Answer: B — No. 44, Hillcrest Villas, Shimla, Himachal Pradesh- 171001
   The correct answer is No. 44, Hillcrest Villas, Shimla, Himachal Pradesh- 171001. Key Points - The reference address is 'No. 44, Hillcrest Villas, Shimla, Himachal Pradesh-171001'. - Option B reproduces it character for character. - A swaps
3. Q3: Identify the relation between Statement I and Statement II. Statement I. The bank’s net profit increased significantly in the last quarter. Statement II. The bank implemented cost-cutting measures and
   Answer: B — II is the cause and I is the effect.
   The correct answer is II is the cause and I is the effect.. Key Points - Statement I reports an outcome — net profit rose sharply last quarter. - Statement II reports management actions — cost-cutting and better loan recovery. - Spending le
4. Q4: The following equation is incorrect. Which of the following two signs should be interchanged to correct the equation? 18 + 6 × 4 – 12 ÷ 3 = 17
   Answer: D — – and ÷
   The correct answer is – and ÷. Key Points - Test each proposed swap on 18 + 6 × 4 – 12 ÷ 3 = 17 and evaluate with BODMAS: - Swap + and ×: 18 × 6 + 4 – 12 ÷ 3 = 108 + 4 − 4 = 108 ✗ - Swap × and ÷: 18 + 6 ÷ 4 – 12 × 3 = 18 + 1.5 − 36 = −16.5
5. Q5: The given statements are followed by two conclusions. Find out which conclusion is TRUE based on the given statements. Statements : J K = L, M ≥ N < K, O < J < P , N Q R Conclusions: I. P M I
   Answer: B — Only conclusion II is true
   The correct answer is Only conclusion II is true. Key Points - Chain the inequalities: J K = L, O < J < P and M ≥ N < K, N Q R combine into P J K = L N Q R, with M ≥ N hanging off N separately. - Conclusion II (N < P): the chain
6. Q6: Select the letter-cluster from along the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. B E K, D G M, F I O, H K Q, ?
   Answer: C — JMS
   The correct answer is JMS. Key Points - Write each letter as its alphabet position and track the three streams separately: - 1st letters: B(2) → D(4) → F(6) → H(8) → next is J(10), stepping +2 - 2nd letters: E(5) → G(7) → I(9) → K(11) → nex
7. Q7: What comes next: 3, 6, 18, 108, ?
   Answer: B — 1944
   The correct answer is 1944. Key Points - Check how each term relates to its neighbours: 3 × 6 = 18 (third term), 6 × 18 = 108 (fourth term). - Each term is the product of the two terms before it. - So the next term is 18 × 108 = 1944. - A q
8. Q8: What will come at the place of question mark? 5, 9, 17, 33, 65, ?
   Answer: A — 129
   The correct answer is 129. Key Points - Look at the gaps: 5 → 9 (+4), 9 → 17 (+8), 17 → 33 (+16), 33 → 65 (+32). - The difference doubles every step, so the next gap is +64, giving 65 + 64 = 129. - Equivalently each term is (2 × previous) −
9. Q9: Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows. Statement: The government has announced a reduction in LPG subsidies. Conclusions: I. Citizens will now have to pay mor
   Answer: A — Only Conclusion I follows
   The correct answer is Only Conclusion I follows. Key Points - A subsidy is government money that keeps the consumer price low. - Reducing the LPG subsidy therefore raises what citizens pay — Conclusion I is a direct, necessary consequence.
10. Q10: Instruction: Identify the assumptions that must hold for the statement to be valid, then choose the correction option. Statement: While technological advancements in energy production have made renewa
    Answer: A — Only I and III are implicit
    The correct answer is Only I and III are implicit. Key Points - The argument says renewable energy's intermittent nature means large-scale adoption needs investment in storage to stabilise the grid. - This silently assumes (I) that renewabl
11. Q11: Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows: Statement: Traffic violations have decreased after the installation of speed cameras. Conclusions : I. Surveillance dis
    Answer: A — Only Conclusion I follows
    The correct answer is Only Conclusion I follows. Key Points - Violations fell after speed cameras were installed. - Conclusion I — surveillance discourages rule-breaking — is exactly the mechanism the statement describes: an external watchf
12. Q12: Which of the following is/are identical to the address given: Vikram Singh 18B, Golden Heights, Moti Nagar, Delhi, 110011 — (1) Vikram Singh 18B, Golden Heights, Moti Nagar, Delhi, 110011 (2) Vikram S
    Answer: B — 1 and 3
    The correct answer is 1 and 3. Key Points - Compare each candidate with 'Vikram Singh 18B, Golden Heights, Moti Nagar, Delhi, 110011': - (1) identical in every field ✓ - (2) writes the house number as '18-B' — an added hyphen ✗ - (3) identi
13. Q13: Each question involves rearranging specific positions of the letters from the original word, and you must choose the correct transformed version from the options. PLANET is to EAPLNT as TARGET is to:
    Answer: C — ERT AGT
    The correct answer is ERT AGT. Key Points - Decode the transformation using PLANET → EAPLNT. - Number PLANET's letters: P(1) L(2) A(3) N(4) E(5) T(6). - The output EAPLNT reads positions 5, 3, 1, 2, 4, 6. - Apply the same position map to TA
14. Q14: Find the odd one out: Jawaharlal Nehru, Indira Gandhi, Atal Bihari Vajpayee, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Narendra Modi, Rajiv Gandhi
    Answer: C — Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
    The correct answer is Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. Key Points - Jawaharlal Nehru, Indira Gandhi, Atal Bihari Vajpayee, Narendra Modi and Rajiv Gandhi all served as Prime Minister of India. - Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel never held that office — he
15. Q15: Pointing to a boy, a man said, “He is the son of my wife’s sister’s husband.” How is the boy related to the man?
    Answer: B — Nephew
    The correct answer is Nephew. Key Points - Unwrap the possessives one at a time: 'my wife's sister' = the man's sister-in-law; 'my wife's sister's husband' = the man's brother-in-law. - The boy is that man's son — and a brother-in-law's son
16. Q16: What comes next? MZM, PXK, SVI, ?
    Answer: A — VTG
    The correct answer is VTG. Key Points - Track each letter stream numerically: - 1st letters: M(13) → P(16) → S(19) — +3 each time → next is V(22) - 2nd letters: Z(26) → X(24) → V(22) — −2 each time → next is T(20) - 3rd letters: M(13) → K(1
17. Q17: Find the odd one out from the given alternatives:
    Answer: D — Igneous Rock
    The correct answer is Igneous Rock. Key Points - Alluvial soil, black soil and red soil are all soil types found in India (river-deposited, volcanic-derived regur, and iron-rich soil respectively). - Igneous rock is a category of rock — sol
18. Q18: If ‘SUN’ is coded as ‘RTM’, what is the code for ‘MOON’?
    Answer: B — LNNM
    The correct answer is LNNM. Key Points - Derive the code rule from SUN → RTM: S→R, U→T, N→M — every letter shifts one step back in the alphabet. - Apply −1 to MOON: M→L, O→N, O→N, N→M, giving LNNM. - Option A (LNNP) sneaks in a +1 on the fi
19. Q19: If 25%of a certain number is 15, what is that number?
    Answer: B — 60
    The correct answer is 60. Key Points - Let the number be X. Then 25% of X = 15 → X/4 = 15 → X = 15 × 4 = 60. - Sanity check: 25% of 60 = 15 ✓. - The percentage-to-fraction reflex (25% = 1/4, 12.5% = 1/8, 20% = 1/5) turns questions like this
20. Q20: If 6 3 = 54 and 8 2 = 48, what is 5 4?
    Answer: D — 60
    The correct answer is 60. Key Points - Find the hidden rule from the given pairs: 6 3 → 6 × 3 = 18, and 18 × 3 = 54 ✓. - Check it on the second pair: 8 × 2 = 16, and 16 × 3 = 48 ✓. The rule is (a × b) × 3. - Apply it: 5 4 → 5 × 4 = 20 → 20
21. Q21: If 2 @ 3 = 13, 3 @ 4 = 25, then what is 4 @ 5?
    Answer: C — 41
    The correct answer is 41. Key Points - Test the squares rule on the given pairs: 2 @ 3 = 2² + 3² = 4 + 9 = 13 ✓; 3 @ 4 = 9 + 16 = 25 ✓. - The operation is the sum of squares. - So 4 @ 5 = 4² + 5² = 16 + 25 = 41. - When outputs grow faster t
22. Q22: A 30 L mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 3 : 2. How much milk must be added to make it 4 : 1?
    Answer: C — 30 L
    The correct answer is 30 L. Key Points - In 30 L at milk : water = 3 : 2, milk = (3/5) × 30 = 18 L and water = (2/5) × 30 = 12 L. - Adding milk leaves water fixed at 12 L. For the new ratio 4 : 1, milk must be 4 × 12 = 48 L. So milk to add
23. Q23: If the given symbols mean: ‘+’ means ‘divided by’ ‘-’ means ‘multiplied by’ ‘×’ means ‘minus’ ‘÷’ means ‘plus’ Then, find the value of the following expressions: 8 ÷ 2 × 3 + 18 - 6 = ?
    Answer: A — 9
    The correct answer is 9. Key Points - Substitute the redefined symbols in 8 ÷ 2 × 3 + 18 - 6: '÷' means plus, '×' means minus, '+' means divided by, '-' means multiplied by, giving 8 + 2 − 3 ÷ 18 × 6. - BODMAS: 3 ÷ 18 = 1/6, then 1/6 × 6 =
24. Q24: Rearrange the letters given below to form the name of a weapon: REPSA
    Answer: B — spear
    The correct answer is spear. Key Points - The letters R, E, P, S, A rearrange into SPEAR — a long-shafted thrusting or throwing weapon, fitting the 'weapon' requirement exactly. - The distractors are the same anagram family: 'parse' (to ana
25. Q25: If + = ÷, – = ×, ÷ = +, × = –; then 36 + 6 – 2 × 3 = ?
    Answer: D — 9
    The correct answer is 9. Key Points - Apply the symbol map (+→÷, –→×, ÷→+, ×→–) to 36 + 6 – 2 × 3: it becomes 36 ÷ 6 × 2 – 3. - BODMAS: 36 ÷ 6 = 6, then 6 × 2 = 12, then 12 − 3 = 9. - Note the map is a two-way swap of the pairs (+,÷) and (–

General Awareness — Solved Questions

1. Q26: In Ragavibodha, Pt. Somnath defined a rāga through Devamāyā svarūpa (ethos). Which of the following, denotes its tonal structure?
   Answer: C — Swarlakshana
   The correct answer is Swarlakshana. Key Points - In the Ragavibodha, the 17th-century treatise by Pandit Somanatha, a rāga is characterised both by its devotional ethos (Devamāyā svarūpa) and by its technical identity. - The tonal structure
2. Q27: Which of the following Mughal tombs deviates from the typical square ‘hasht-bihisht’ (eight-part) layout?
   Answer: B — Akbar’s Tomb (Sikandra)
   The correct answer is Akbar’s Tomb (Sikandra). Key Points - Most great Mughal tombs — Humayun's Tomb, Itimad-ud-Daulah, Safdarjung's Tomb — follow the square 'hasht-bihisht' (eight-part paradise) plan around a central chamber. - Akbar's Tom
3. Q28: Read the following statements carefully: Statement 1 : The seals of the Harappan culture were made using locally found steatite. Statement 2 : These seals often feature animal motifs and undeciphered
   Answer: C — Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct
   The correct answer is Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. Key Points - Harappan seals were overwhelmingly carved from steatite, a soft, locally available stone that was fired to harden after carving — Statement 1 is right. - They
4. Q29: The festival of Bhagoria begins seven days before which Hindu festival?
   Answer: B — Holika Dahan
   The correct answer is Holika Dahan. Key Points - Bhagoria is the vibrant festival of the Bhil and Bhilala tribal communities of Madhya Pradesh (and adjoining Maharashtra), beginning seven days before Holika Dahan and running up to Holi. - I
5. Q30: Which of the following terms is specifically associated with the javelin throw?
   Answer: B — Sector
   The correct answer is Sector. Key Points - In the javelin throw, the sector is the marked V-shaped landing area (an angle of about 28.96°) within which the javelin must land, tip first, for a legal throw; the thrower must also stay behind t
6. Q31: Which of the following dynasties minted the “Dehliwal” coins in Delhi?
   Answer: B — The Tomaras
   The correct answer is The Tomaras. Key Points - The Tomara dynasty, early rulers of Delhi (Dhillika), minted the silver 'Dehliwal' coins — literally 'of Delhi'. - The coins earned wide circulation for their reliable purity, so much so that
7. Q32: Which of the following pairs (Educational Event - Key Outcome/Initiative) is correctly matched?
   Answer: A — Charter Act, 1813 - Allocated funds for promotion of education
   The correct answer is Charter Act, 1813 - Allocated funds for promotion of education. Key Points - Allocated funds for promotion of education. - The Charter Act of 1813 was the first British statute to accept state responsibility for educat
8. Q33: Who won India’s first Paralympic medals in the women’s 200m T12 and men’s javelin throw F41 events at Paris 2024?
   Answer: A — Simran (bronze, 200m T12) and Navdeep Singh (gold, javelin F41)
   The correct answer is Simran (bronze, 200m T12) and Navdeep Singh (gold, javelin F41). Key Points - At the Paris 2024 Paralympics, sprinter Simran took bronze in the women's 200m T12 (visual impairment category), and Navdeep Singh won India
9. Q34: Which of the following best reflects India’s operational and diplomatic approach to boundary demarcation with Myanmar amidst recent local protests over fencing?
   Answer: B — India and Myanmar conduct joint surveys and proposed a Joint Boundary Working Group.
   The correct answer is India and Myanmar conduct joint surveys and proposed a Joint Boundary Working Group.. Key Points - India's boundary management with Myanmar runs through institutional dialogue — Foreign Office Consultations, joint boun
10. Q35: Who is the author of the book ‘School to Startup: Navigating the path of Entrepreneurship’?
    Answer: A — Rohit Sinha
    The correct answer is Rohit Sinha. Key Points - 'School to Startup: Navigating the Path of Entrepreneurship' is authored by Rohit Sinha; it encourages students to treat entrepreneurship as a learnable journey — ideation, resilience, leaders
11. Q36: Where was the 4 th KIO National (Senior, U-21 & Para) Karate Championship held from 26-29 March 2025?
    Answer: C — Hyderabad
    The correct answer is Hyderabad. Key Points - The 4th Karate India Organisation (KIO) National Championship — covering Senior, U-21 and Para categories — was held from 26 to 29 March 2025 at the Gachibowli Indoor Stadium, Hyderabad. - Gachi
12. Q37: Which of the following statements about the 2024 Inter-State Athletics Championships is/are correct? Statement 1: Sahil Silwal crossed 80m for the first time this season to win javelin gold. Statement
    Answer: A — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct: at the 2024 National Inter-State Senior Athletics Championships, Sahil Silwal won javelin gold with 81.81m — his first throw past the 80m mark that season. - Statement 2 fai
13. Q38: What is the minimum age required to contest the Presidential election in India?
    Answer: A — 35
    The correct answer is 35. Key Points - Article 58 of the Constitution fixes the minimum age for President of India at 35 years (along with citizenship and Lok Sabha–eligibility requirements). - The same 35-year floor applies to the Vice-Pre
14. Q39: Read the following statements about aerobic respiration. Statement 1: Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria. Statement 2: Kreb’s cycle occurs in the mitochondrial matrix. Statement 3: The final electr
    Answer: B — Only 2 and 3 are correct
    The correct answer is Only 2 and 3 are correct. Key Points - Statement 2 ✓ — the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle) runs in the mitochondrial matrix, where NADH and FADH₂ are generated. - Statement 3 ✓ — oxygen is the final electron acceptor o
15. Q40: Which Article empowers the Parliament to create laws on State List subjects under national interest?
    Answer: A — Article 249
    The correct answer is Article 249. Key Points - Article 249 lets Parliament legislate on a State List subject when the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution — backed by at least two-thirds of members present and voting — declaring it necessary in
16. Q41: Vilasini Natyam, once performed in temples and courts, is a classical dance form revived in which Indian state?
    Answer: C — Andhra Pradesh
    The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh. Key Points - Vilasini Natyam is a classical dance of Andhra Pradesh, historically performed by Devadasis in temples and royal courts, steeped in ritual and storytelling. - It faded with the decline of t
17. Q42: Consider the following statements and choose the correct option: Statement 1: The Production Possibility Frontier (PPF) shows the trade-offs and opportunity costs faced by an economy. Statement 2: The
    Answer: A — Only Statement 1 is correct
    The correct answer is Only Statement 1 is correct. Key Points - Statement 1 ✓ — the Production Possibility Frontier (PPF) shows the trade-offs and opportunity costs an economy faces when splitting limited resources between two goods; it ill
18. Q43: A key component evaluated by the 2025 Index of Economic Freedom concerning “Government Size” is:
    Answer: B — Government Spending Levels
    The correct answer is Government Spending Levels. Key Points - Under the 'Government Size' pillar, the 2025 Index of Economic Freedom measures government spending relative to GDP. - Heavier spending signals a larger state footprint, which t
19. Q44: Which Five-Year Plan focused on heavy industries?
    Answer: B — Second
    The correct answer is Second. Key Points - The Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61), built on the Mahalanobis model, prioritised heavy industry — steel, coal, power and machinery — to lay an industrial base and reduce import dependence. - It lau
20. Q45: Which Indian initiative under the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) aims to improve micro-climate resilience through community-led water harvesting in semi-arid zones?
    Answer: B — Climate Resilient Watershed Programme
    The correct answer is Climate Resilient Watershed Programme. Key Points - Under the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC), the Climate Resilient Watershed Programme builds micro-climate resilience in semi-arid zones through co
21. Q46: Economic liberalisation mainly affects which sector?
    Answer: D — Primary, Secondary and Tertiary
    The correct answer is Primary, Secondary and Tertiary. Key Points - Economic liberalisation — cutting state restrictions and opening up to private enterprise and foreign trade — ultimately touches all three sectors. - Manufacturing (seconda
22. Q47: Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): The 1991 reforms boosted India foreign exchange reserves significantly. Rea
    Answer: A — Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
    The correct answer is Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.. Key Points - Assertion ✓ — the 1991 reforms sharply lifted India's foreign-exchange reserves over the following years. - Reason ✓ — liberalised trade and in
23. Q48: Match the dominant folk dance with the song-theme: Folk dance Song-theme i. Panthi A. Devotional hymns of Guru Ghasidas (Hari-Gaitri) ii. Gotipua B. Krishna-Jagannath leela narratives iii. Kalbelia C.
    Answer: A — i-A, ii-B, iii-C, iv-D
    The correct answer is i-A, ii-B, iii-C, iv-D. Key Points - Match each folk dance to its song-theme: Panthi–A (devotional hymns to Guru Ghasidas, a Satnami dance of Chhattisgarh); Gotipua–B (Krishna–Jagannath narratives, danced by young boys
24. Q49: Consider the following statements: Statement 1: The Sixth Schedule is applicable to Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh. Statement 2: It empowers autonomous district councils to make laws on specified subj
    Answer: B — Only 2
    The correct answer is Only 2. Key Points - Statement 2 ✓ — the Sixth Schedule empowers Autonomous District Councils to make laws on land, forests and local governance. - Statement 1 ✗ — the Sixth Schedule applies to tribal areas of Assam, M
25. Q50: Consider the following statements about the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST). Statement 1: It observes in the near-infrared and mid-infrared spectrum. Statement 2: It is positioned at the Sun–Earth L
    Answer: D — All 1, 2 and 3
    The correct answer is All 1, 2 and 3. Key Points - Every statement about the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) holds: it observes in the near- and mid-infrared (1); it is stationed at the Sun–Earth Lagrange Point L2, ~1.5 million km from Ea

Quantitative Aptitude — Solved Questions

1. Q51: If a+ b = 5 and ab = 6, Find: (a³ + b³)² – 9a²b² (a + b)².
   Answer: A — –6875
   The correct answer is –6875. Key Points - Use the identity a³ + b³ = (a+b)³ − 3ab(a+b). With a+b = 5, ab = 6: - a³ + b³ = 5³ − 3·6·5 = 125 − 90 = 35. - So (a³+b³)² − 9a²b²(a+b)² = 35² − 9·(6²)·(5²) = 1225 − 9·36·25 = 1225 − 8100 = −6875. -
2. Q52: Given that W : X = 5 : 6, X : Y = 3 : 7, and Y : Z = 8 : 9, find the compound ratio W : X : Y : Z.
   Answer: A — 20 : 24 : 56 : 63
   The correct answer is 20 : 24 : 56 : 63. Key Points - Chain the ratios so shared terms match. - W:X = 5:6, X:Y = 3:7, Y:Z = 8:9. Multiply through to a common four-part ratio: W:X:Y:Z = (5·3·8) : (6·3·8) : (6·7·8) : (6·7·9) = 120:144:336:378
3. Q53: What is the value of 666+ + +⋅⋅⋅
   Answer: A — 3
   The correct answer is 3. Key Points - This is an infinite nested radical: y = √(6 + √(6 + √(6 + …))). - Because the pattern repeats, the expression inside equals y itself, so y = √(6 + y). - Squaring: y² = 6 + y → y² − y − 6 = 0 → (y − 3)(y
4. Q54: A vendor purchases seven shirts at the marked price of six shirts. If he sells each shirt after giving a 4% discount on its marked price, what is his profit percentage?
   Answer: C — 12%
   The correct answer is 12%. Key Points - Let the marked price of one shirt be ₹1. Buying 7 for the price of 6 makes the cost of each shirt 6/7. Selling at a 4% discount gives SP = 1 × (1 − 0.04) = 24/25 per shirt. - Profit per shirt = 24/25
5. Q55: Pipe A is capable of filling a tank in 16 minutes while Pipe B can fill the same tank in 24 minutes. Both pipes are opened together, but after 4 minutes, the rate of Pipe A doubles and the rate of Pip
   Answer: A — 4 min
   The correct answer is 4 min. Key Points - Take the tank as LCM(16, 24) = 48 units. - Then A = 3 units/min, B = 2 units/min. - In the first 4 minutes they fill (3 + 2)·4 = 20 units, leaving 28. - Now A doubles to 6 and B halves to 1, so toge
6. Q56: Simplify: (12 6 3)+
   Answer: B — 3 + 3
   The correct answer is 3 + 3. Key Points - Recognise 12 + 6√3 as a perfect square. - Write it as 3² + (√3)² + 2·3·√3 = 9 + 3 + 6√3 = 12 + 6√3, which is (3 + √3)². - Therefore √(12 + 6√3) = 3 + √3 (positive root). - For surds of the form √(a
7. Q57: A sum of 10000 is lent out in two parts, one at 7% simple interest and the other at 12% simple interest. If the annual interest is 900, the sum lent at 12% is:
   Answer: B — 4000
   The correct answer is 4000. Key Points - Let ₹x be lent at 12% and ₹(10000 − x) at 7%, for one year. - Total simple interest = 0.12x + 0.07(10000 − x) = 900. - 0.12x + 700 − 0.07x = 900 → 0.05x = 200 → x = ₹4000. - Set the unknown to the pa
8. Q58: 900 is lent at a certain rate of simple interest. After 9 months, another 600 is lent at a rate that is 1.5 times the original rate. If the total simple interest after 1 year is 72, find the original
   Answer: A — 6.4%
   The correct answer is 6.4%. Key Points - Let the original rate be R%. ₹900 earns for the full year at R%; ₹600 is lent after 9 months, so it earns for 3 months (¼ year) at 1.5R%. - Interest: 900·R·1/100 + 600·(1.5R)·(1/4)/100 = 72 → 9R + 2.
9. Q59: A flagpole has a shadow measuring 10 metres. Given that the height of the flagpole is 10 3 metres, What is the angle at which the sun is elevated?
   Answer: C — 60°
   The correct answer is 60°. Key Points - The sun's elevation angle θ satisfies tan θ = height ÷ shadow. - Here tan θ = 10√3 ÷ 10 = √3. - Since tan 60° = √3, the elevation is 60°. - Memorise the standard tangents — tan 30° = 1/√3, tan 45° = 1
10. Q60: A hollow metallic sphere has outer radius 10 cm and is melted to make 50 smaller solid spheres of radius 2 cm. What is the inner radius of the original sphere?
    Answer: A — 8.43 cm
    The correct answer is 8.43 cm. Key Points - Melting conserves volume: (hollow shell) = 50 × (small solid sphere). - With outer radius 10 and small radius 2: - (4/3)π(10³ − r³) = 50·(4/3)π·2³ → 1000 − r³ = 50·8 = 400 → r³ = 600 → r = ∛600 ≈
11. Q61: The volume of a hemisphere is numerically equal to four times its cruved surface area. Find its radius.
    Answer: A — 12 cm
    The correct answer is 12 cm. Key Points - Volume of a hemisphere = (2/3)πr³; curved surface area = 2πr². - Setting volume numerically equal to 4 × CSA: - (2/3)πr³ = 4·2πr² → (2/3)r³ = 8r² → r = 8·(3/2) = 12 cm. - The π and one power of r ca
12. Q62: What is the minimum number of cuts required to divide a cuboid into 8 equal cuboids?
    Answer: B — 3
    The correct answer is 3. Key Points - To split a cuboid into 8 equal cuboids you need 2×2×2, i.e. two pieces along each of the three dimensions — one cut along the length, one along the breadth, one along the height. That's 3 cuts. - Genera
13. Q63: If the height of a cone is tripled and the radius is halved, how does the volume change?
    Answer: B — Becomes three-fourths of the original
    The correct answer is Becomes three-fourths of the original. Key Points - Cone volume = (1/3)πr²h. - Triple the height (3h) and halve the radius (r/2): - New volume = (1/3)π(r/2)²(3h) = (1/3)π·(r²/4)·3h = (3/4)·(1/3)πr²h = ¾ of the original
14. Q64: If 12sin , and 0,13 2  πθ= θ∈  , then what is the value of tan q?
    Answer: C — 12 5
    The correct answer is 12 5. Key Points - Given sin θ = 12/13 with θ in the first quadrant. - Treat 12 as opposite and 13 as hypotenuse; the base = √(13² − 12²) = √(169 − 144) = √25 = 5. - So tan θ = opposite/base = 12/5. - The 5-12-13 Pytha
15. Q65: What is the value of tan A + cot A if tan A = 2?
    Answer: A — 5 2
    The correct answer is 5 2. Key Points - tan A + cot A = tan A + 1/tan A. With tan A = 2, this is 2 + 1/2 = 5/2. - No identities needed here — cot is just the reciprocal of tan, so substitute directly. - (For the general identity, tan A + co
16. Q66: What is the slope of the line 2x + 3y = 6?
    Answer: A — 2 3−
    The correct answer is 2 3−. Key Points - Rewrite the line 2x + 3y = 6 in slope-intercept form y = mx + c: 3y = −2x + 6 → y = (−2/3)x + 2. The coefficient of x is the slope, so m = −2/3. - For any line ax + by = c, the slope is −a/b directly
17. Q67: A sector of a circle has a central angle of 60° and a radius of 8 cm. Another sector of the same circle has a central angle of 3 π radians. What is the ratio of the area of the first sector to the are
    Answer: C — 1:1
    The correct answer is 1:1. Key Points - Convert the second angle to degrees: π/3 radians = 60°. - Both sectors then have a 60° central angle on the same circle (r = 8), so their areas are identical. - Sector area = (θ/360)·πr²; with equal θ
18. Q68: A triangle can have:
    Answer: C — Only one right or one obtuse angle
    The correct answer is Only one right or one obtuse angle. Key Points - The angles of a triangle sum to 180°. - Two right angles would already total 180°, leaving 0° for the third — impossible. - A right and an obtuse angle exceed 180°. - Th
19. Q69: A line L is the perpendicular bisector of the line segment connecting points A (2, 5) and B (8, –1). What is the y-intercept of line L?
    Answer: A — –3
    The correct answer is –3. Key Points - The perpendicular bisector of segment A(2, 5)–B(8, −1) passes through the midpoint and is perpendicular to AB. - Midpoint = ((2+8)/2, (5−1)/2) = (5, 2). - Slope of AB = (−1−5)/(8−2) = −1, so the bisect
20. Q70: The area of a triangle ABC is 16 cm². If a similar triangle DEF has sides that are twice the length of ΔABC’s sides, what is the area of ΔDEF?
    Answer: C — 64 cm²
    The correct answer is 64 cm². Key Points - For similar triangles, the ratio of areas equals the square of the ratio of corresponding sides. - DEF's sides are twice ABC's, so the area ratio is 2² = 4. - Area of DEF = 4 × 16 = 64 cm². - Alway
21. Q71: 443 + 353 – 533 + 159 is equal to
    Answer: A — –20659
    The correct answer is –20659. Key Points - Evaluate 44³ + 35³ − 53³ + 159: - 44³ = 85184, 35³ = 42875, 53³ = 148877. - 85184 + 42875 = 128059; 128059 − 148877 = −20818; −20818 + 159 = −20659. - With no algebraic shortcut available, the cube
22. Q72: If 5sin cos 4AA+= , find sin 2A.
    Answer: D — 9 16
    The correct answer is 9 16. Key Points - Square the given equation: (sin A + cos A)² = (5/4)². - The left side expands to sin²A + cos²A + 2 sin A cos A = 1 + sin 2A. - So 1 + sin 2A = 25/16 → sin 2A = 25/16 − 1 = 9/16. - The identity (sin A
23. Q73: From an outside point P, two tangents, PA and PB, are drawn to a circle. Given that the length of PA is 12 cm, what is the length of PB?
    Answer: C — 12 cm
    The correct answer is 12 cm. Key Points - Two tangents drawn to a circle from the same external point are always equal in length. - Since PA and PB are both tangents from P, PB = PA = 12 cm. - This 'equal tangents from an external point' th
24. Q74: A circle is inscribed within a right triangle. Considering that the lengths of the two legs measure 6 cm and 8 cm, what is the radius of the inscribed circle?
    Answer: A — 2 cm
    The correct answer is 2 cm. Key Points - For a right triangle, the inradius is r = (a + b − c)/2, where a and b are the legs and c the hypotenuse. - Here c = √(6² + 8²) = √100 = 10, so r = (6 + 8 − 10)/2 = 4/2 = 2 cm. - This compact formula
25. Q75: If a = 0.02, b = 0.03, c = –0.05, and a + b + c = 0, find (a³ + b³ + c³) ÷ (3abc)
    Answer: C — 1
    The correct answer is 1. Key Points - When a + b + c = 0, the identity a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc holds. - The question confirms 0.02 + 0.03 − 0.05 = 0, so the condition is met. - Therefore (a³ + b³ + c³) ÷ (3abc) = 3abc ÷ 3abc = 1 — no need to cu

English Comprehension — Solved Questions

1. Q76: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: LUMINOUS
   Answer: D — Radiant
   The correct answer is Radiant. Key Points - 'Luminous' means giving off light — bright, shining, intense. - Its synonym here is Radiant. - The distractors run the opposite way: 'dull' lacks brightness, 'dim' is faintly lit, and 'opaque' mea
2. Q77: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: EXIGUOUS
   Answer: A — Scanty
   The correct answer is Scanty. Key Points - 'Exiguous' means very small in size, amount or scope — meagre. - Its synonym is Scanty. - 'Huge', 'excessive' and 'abundant' all mean plentiful — the exact opposite — so they cluster together and c
3. Q78: Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: Abrogate
   Answer: C — Uphold
   The correct answer is Uphold. Key Points - 'Abrogate' means to repeal or abolish a law, right or agreement. - Its antonym is Uphold — to confirm, sustain or support. - The trap is that 'abolish', 'revoke' and 'annul' are all synonyms of abr
4. Q79: Choose the correct meaning of idiom T o chew the cud of reflection
   Answer: C — Pondering deeply
   The correct answer is Pondering deeply. Key Points - The idiom 'to chew the cud of reflection' means to think something over slowly and thoroughly — like a cow ruminating. - So it means pondering deeply. - Idioms are non-literal, so 'eating
5. Q80: Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: Rarely had the court encountered a petition (a)/so devoid of legal merit, nor so conspicuously intended (b)/to attract media attention rather than
   Answer: B — (b)
   The correct answer is (b). Key Points - The error is in segment (b): 'so devoid of legal merit, nor so conspicuously intended'. - After a non-negative clause, 'nor' breaks parallel structure — the correct correlative is 'or': 'so devoid of
6. Q81: Find the word that is spelled correctly and means ‘the quality of being sarcastic in a bitter way.’
   Answer: A — Causticity
   The correct answer is Causticity. Key Points - The correctly spelled word for bitter, sharp sarcasm is Causticity (from 'caustic', capable of burning or corroding — and, figuratively, cutting speech). - The other options are misspellings: '
7. Q82: Choose the correct one-word substitute for: ‘ A person who supports change’.
   Answer: C — Reformer
   The correct answer is Reformer. Key Points - A person who supports change is a Reformer — someone who works to improve a system by changing it. - The opposites and near-misses: a 'Conservative' resists change; a 'Radical' wants sweeping, fu
8. Q83: Choose the correct one-word substitute for: ‘Extremely old-fashioned; belonging to a time before the biblical flood’.
   Answer: C — Antediluvian
   The correct answer is Antediluvian. Key Points - Something extremely old-fashioned — literally 'before the (biblical) flood' — is Antediluvian (ante = before, diluvium = flood). - 'Obsolete' means outdated but carries no flood connotation;
9. Q84: Choose the correct option: The anthropologist’s findings were considered so controversial that they were initially ...............
   Answer: A — disregarded
   The correct answer is disregarded. Key Points - The sentence says the findings were 'so controversial that they were initially …'. - Controversy provokes disagreement and rejection, so the blank needs a negative-reception word: disregarded
10. Q85: Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The draft policy outlines (a)/that each employee must adhere to (b)/the code of conduct (c)/irrespective of their position.(d)
    Answer: D — (d)
    The correct answer is (d). Key Points - The error is in segment (d): 'irrespective of their position'. - The subject 'each employee' is singular, and pronouns like each/every/anyone/someone take a singular pronoun — so 'their' should be 'hi
11. Q86: Change the following from active to passive: They were showing the movie at 7 p.m.
    Answer: C — The movie was being shown at 7 p.m.
    The correct answer is The movie was being shown at 7 p.m.. Key Points - The active sentence is in the past continuous ('were showing'). - Its passive form uses 'was/were + being + past participle'. - Since the new subject 'the movie' is sin
12. Q87: Choose the correct spelling of a word meaning ‘witty, clever and verbally skillful’.
    Answer: A — Persiflage
    The correct answer is Persiflage. Key Points - The correctly spelled word for witty, light, non-serious banter is Persiflage (from French). - The distractors — 'Persiphledge', 'Pursiflage', 'Persiflagee' — are phonetic mis-spellings. - For
13. Q88: Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The bishop condemned the act as simony, citing canonical law.
    Answer: C — The alchemist failed to explain the simony in his formulas.
    The correct answer is The alchemist failed to explain the simony in his formulas.. Key Points - A homonym shares spelling/sound but carries a different meaning. - In the prompt, 'simony' means the buying or selling of church office (a relig
14. Q89: Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: A decision has been taken to have the proposal reviewed by an external panel.
    Answer: C — They have decided to get the proposal reviewed by an external panel.
    The correct answer is They have decided to get the proposal reviewed by an external panel.. Key Points - The original is passive ('A decision has been taken…'). - Converting to active means naming the doer as the subject and preserving the
15. Q90: Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: She is confident to win the match.
    Answer: C — of winning the match
    The correct answer is of winning the match. Key Points - The adjective 'confident' is followed by the preposition 'of' + a gerund (an -ing verb acting as a noun): 'confident of winning'. - So 'She is confident of winning the match'. 'To win
16. Q91: Direction (Q 91–95): Read the following passage and answer the questions on the passage: India’s legacy of healing practices—embodied in disciplines such as Yoga, Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani—presents
    Answer: B — Loss of its philosophical essence
    The correct answer is Loss of its philosophical essence. Key Points - The passage warns that yoga has been 'commodified, particularly in the West, where its philosophical moorings are often diluted into mere physical exercise', raising conc
17. Q92: Direction (Q 91–95): Read the following passage and answer the questions on the passage: India’s legacy of healing practices—embodied in disciplines such as Yoga, Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani—presents
    Answer: C — Restoring body’s internal balance through lifestyle
    The correct answer is Restoring body’s internal balance through lifestyle. Key Points - The passage frames traditional systems like Ayurveda around holistic well-being and internal balance rather than single-target interventions. - So the A
18. Q93: Direction (Q 91–95): Read the following passage and answer the questions on the passage: India’s legacy of healing practices—embodied in disciplines such as Yoga, Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani—presents
    Answer: C — Marginalization of traditional knowledge holders
    The correct answer is Marginalization of traditional knowledge holders. Key Points - The passage states that 'pharmaceutical commercialisation of Ayurvedic formulations often sidelines traditional knowledge holders, reducing centuries-old p
19. Q94: Direction (Q 91–95): Read the following passage and answer the questions on the passage: India’s legacy of healing practices—embodied in disciplines such as Yoga, Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani—presents
    Answer: C — Integration is possible with humility and standards
    The correct answer is Integration is possible with humility and standards. Key Points - The author concludes that a 'dialogical framework where tradition and modernity co-evolve — not in opposition, but in mutual enrichment' is needed, and
20. Q95: Direction (Q 91–95): Read the following passage and answer the questions on the passage: India’s legacy of healing practices—embodied in disciplines such as Yoga, Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani—presents
    Answer: C — Dialogical integration of ancient and modern systems
    The correct answer is Dialogical integration of ancient and modern systems. Key Points - The passage's thesis line — 'What is needed is a dialogical framework where tradition and modernity co-evolve' — is exactly the dialogical integration
21. Q96: A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. He said to me, “You should work har
    Answer: B — He told me that I should work harder.
    The correct answer is He told me that I should work harder.. Key Points - Direct: He said to me, 'You should work harder.' Two changes convert it to indirect speech: 'said to' + object becomes 'told', and the pronoun 'you' (which refers to
22. Q97: A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. The scientist said, “We have been w
    Answer: A — The scientist said they had been working on that project for months.
    The correct answer is The scientist said they had been working on that project for months.. Key Points - Converting direct to indirect: present perfect continuous ('have been working') shifts back to past perfect continuous ('had been worki
23. Q98: A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four options given, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. The diplomat said that only after t
    Answer: C — “Only after the ceasefire will negotiations begin,” said the diplomat.
    The correct answer is “Only after the ceasefire will negotiations begin,” said the diplomat.. Key Points - Going from indirect to direct speech, 'would' reverts to 'will', and the reported clause is placed inside quotation marks with the or
24. Q99: Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage. (a) The blueprint is finalized after approval from stakeholders. (b) First, a basic framework is proposed. (c) Then revisi
    Answer: A — (b), (c), (a), (d)
    The correct answer is (b), (c), (a), (d). Key Points - Order the steps by the natural project sequence: (b) first a basic framework is proposed → (c) then revisions are made after discussions → (a) the blueprint is finalised after stakehold
25. Q100: Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: (a) A central tenet of this approach is the concept of a “class,” which acts as a blueprint for creating objects. (b) Object-Oriented Pr
    Answer: A — (b), (a), (c), (d)
    The correct answer is (b), (a), (c), (d). Key Points - Build the paragraph from general to specific: (b) introduces Object-Oriented Programming and its 'objects' → (a) defines the central 'class' as a blueprint for objects → (c) shows how c

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are there in the SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 17 Sep 2025 (Shift 1)?

The SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 17 Sep 2025 (Shift 1) has 100 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

When was the SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 17 Sep 2025 (Shift 1) held?

The SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 17 Sep 2025 (Shift 1) was held on 17 September 2025.

Is there negative marking in SSC CGL 2025?

Yes. SSC CGL deducts 0.5 marks for every wrong answer, so accuracy matters as much as attempting more questions.

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Yes. Every question in this paper includes the correct answer and a detailed, step-by-step explanation, free of cost and without login.

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Yes. You can attempt the full paper online in a timed, exam-like interface, and get your score with solutions immediately after submitting.