BPSC 71st CCE Prelims 2025 — General Studies — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

Reasoning — Solved Questions

1. Q1: In the following question, out of four words given below, three are alike in some manner and fourth word is different. Find the different one.
   Answer: C — STETHOSCOPE
   The correct answer is STETHOSCOPE. Key Points - This is a classic odd-one-out reasoning question based on classification of instruments. Microscope, telescope and periscope are all optical instruments — they work on the principles of light,
2. Q2: SPRING is written in a code as UNUFRC. How will the word MOBILE be mentioned in that code language?
   Answer: A — OMEFPA
   The correct answer is OMEFPA. Key Points - This is a coding-decoding question testing letter-position logic. - In the given code, SPRING is written as UNUFRC. - Comparing the two words letter by letter reveals an alternating shift pattern a
3. Q3: Mukesh said to his friend, "Rita is the mother of my son's wife's daughter". How is Mukesh related to Rita?
   Answer: D — Father-in-law
   The correct answer is Father-in-law. Key Points - This is a blood relations question that must be solved by working through the chain backwards. - Mukesh says: "Rita is the mother of my son's wife's daughter." - Break the chain in
4. Q4: Ram goes North, turn right, then goes right again and then goes to left. In which direction Ram is now?
   Answer: A — EAST
   The correct answer is EAST. Key Points - This is a direction sense question solved by tracking each turn on a compass. - Ram starts by walking towards the North. - When facing north, a right turn makes him face East. - From the east, anothe
5. Q5: Writing in Alphabetical order, which name of the following will appear in the last?
   Answer: B — Mohinder
   The correct answer is Mohinder. Key Points - This is an alphabetical ordering (dictionary order) question. - The four names must be arranged exactly as they would appear in a dictionary, comparing letter by letter from left to right. - All
6. Q6: Nitin is 7 ranks ahead of Joginder in a class of 39. If Joginder's rank is 17th from the last, what is Nitin's rank from the beginning?
   Answer: D — 16th
   The correct answer is 16th. Key Points - This is a ranking and positions problem. - Total number of students in the class = 39. - Joginder's rank is 17th from the last. - To convert a rank from the last into a rank from the beginning, use t
7. Q7: If + means ×, × means −, ÷ means + and − means ÷, then 175 − 25 ÷ 5 + 20 × 3 + 10 equals to:
   Answer: A — 77
   The correct answer is 77. Key Points - This is a symbol substitution question. - First replace every symbol with the meaning given in the question: + means ×, × means −, ÷ means +, and − means ÷. - The expression 175 − 25 ÷ 5 + 20 × 3 + 10
8. Q8: Rahul is 3 times as old as Seema. Laxmi was twice as old as Rahul four years ago. In four year's time, Rahul will be 31. What are the present ages of Seema and Laxmi?
   Answer: D — 9, 50
   The correct answer is 9, 50. Key Points - This is a problem on ages solved with simple linear equations. - We are told that in four years' time Rahul will be 31, so Rahul's present age = 31 − 4 = 27 years. - Next, Rahul is 3 times as old as
9. Q9: Find the missing number from the given alternatives: 28, 20, 7; 84, ?, 12; 45, 25, 9
   Answer: B — 35
   The correct answer is 35. Key Points - This is a missing number / matrix reasoning question. - The three numbers in each row are related by a fixed arithmetic rule, and the same rule must hold for every row of the matrix. - Checking the pat
10. Q10: RAIN is written in a code as 8%6 and MORE is mentioned as 78@. How will REMAIN be mentioned in code language?
    Answer: D — 8@7%6
    The correct answer is 8@7%6. Key Points - This is a symbol coding-decoding question. - From the two given codes we can map each letter to its symbol. RAIN is coded as 8%6, which gives R = 8, A = , I = %, N = 6. MORE is coded as 78@, which g

Current Affairs — Solved Questions

1. Q11: How many bronze medals were won by Bihar players in the 38th National Junior Athletics Championship 2025?
   Answer: B — 5
   The correct answer is 5. Key Points - Bihar's athletes won 5 bronze medals at the 38th National Junior Athletics Championship 2025. - This belongs to the Bihar-specific sports current affairs segment, which BPSC includes in almost every Pre
2. Q13: Which Indian languages are accorded the status of Classical Language?
   Answer: D — More than one of the above
   The correct answer is More than one of the above. Key Points - Telugu, Marathi and Bengali are all Classical Languages of India, so more than one option is correct. - Classical Language status is conferred by the Union Government on the rec
3. Q14: Which organisation recognized the Nagi bird sanctuary Site as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA)?
   Answer: C — Bird Life International
   The correct answer is Bird Life International. Key Points - The Nagi Bird Sanctuary in Bihar's Jamui district has been recognised as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) by BirdLife International, a global partnership of conservati
4. Q15: Where was the National Panchayati Raj Day 2025 event organised?
   Answer: B — Madhubani
   The correct answer is Madhubani. Key Points - The National Panchayati Raj Day 2025 national event was organised at Madhubani in Bihar, where the Prime Minister addressed the gathering and launched development projects for the state. - Natio
5. Q16: What is the primary objective of the Lunar Trailblazer mission?
   Answer: A — To detect and map water on the Moon's surface
   The correct answer is To detect and map water on the Moon's surface. Key Points - Lunar Trailblazer is a NASA small satellite (SmallSat) mission whose primary objective is to detect and map the form, abundance and distribution of water on t
6. Q17: Afrikaners indicate the people:
   Answer: C — The white minority group in South Africa
   The correct answer is The white minority group in South Africa. Key Points - Afrikaners are the white minority community of South Africa, descended largely from Dutch, German and French Huguenot settlers who arrived at the Cape from the 17t
7. Q19: What is the name of the city mayor who proclaimed April 14, 2025, as Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Day in New York City?
   Answer: B — Eric Adams
   The correct answer is Eric Adams. Key Points - Eric Adams, the Mayor of New York City, proclaimed 14 April 2025 as Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Day in New York City, honouring the birth anniversary of the principal architect of the Indian Constitutio
8. Q20: What is the permanent slogan for the Eurovision Song Contest?
   Answer: C — United By Music
   The correct answer is United By Music. Key Points - "United By Music" is the permanent slogan of the Eurovision Song Contest. - Introduced as the theme of the 2023 contest in Liverpool — hosted by the United Kingdom on behalf of t
9. Q21: What is true of the GSLV-F15 mission by ISRO?
   Answer: D — More than one of the above
   The correct answer is More than one of the above. Key Points - More than one statement about the GSLV-F15 mission is correct. - GSLV-F15, launched by ISRO in January 2025 from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota, successfully placed
10. Q22: What is true of the 18th G20 Summit?
    Answer: D — None of the above
    The correct answer is None of the above. Key Points - More than one statement in this question is treated as correct in the official answer key. - Keep the sequence clear: the 18th G20 Summit was held in New Delhi, India, in September 2023,
11. Q24: Awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2024, Han Kang's novel 'The Vegetarian' won which other prestigious award?
    Answer: C — International Booker Prize
    The correct answer is International Booker Prize. Key Points - Han Kang, the South Korean writer awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2024, had earlier won the International Booker Prize in 2016 for her novel 'The Vegetarian', translate
12. Q26: According to the UNDP Human Development Index (HDI) Report 2025, life expectancy in India increased from 58.6 years in 1990 to how many years in 2023?
    Answer: A — 72 years
    The correct answer is 72 years. Key Points - According to the UNDP Human Development Report 2025, life expectancy at birth in India rose from 58.6 years in 1990 to about 72 years in 2023 — a gain of more than 13 years in just over three dec
13. Q27: In which city was the AI Action Summit held in February 2025?
    Answer: B — Paris
    The correct answer is Paris. Key Points - The AI Action Summit was held in Paris, France, in February 2025, co-chaired by France and India — with Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi serving as co-chair, a significant recognition of India's
14. Q28: At the 96th Academy Awards (2024), Emma Stone won the Oscar for Actress in a Leading Role for her performance in which film?
    Answer: B — Poor Things
    The correct answer is Poor Things. Key Points - At the 96th Academy Awards (2024), Emma Stone won the Oscar for Best Actress in a Leading Role for her performance as Bella Baxter in the film 'Poor Things', directed by Yorgos Lanthimos. - It
15. Q29: Which Gujarati film won the 70th National Film Award for Best Feature Film promoting national, social and environmental values?
    Answer: C — Kutch Express
    The correct answer is Kutch Express. Key Points - The Gujarati film 'Kutch Express' won the 70th National Film Award for Best Feature Film promoting national, social and environmental values. - Directed by Viral Shah, the film addresses the
16. Q30: Which of the following individuals or organisations was a recipient of the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2024?
    Answer: D — More than one of the above
    The correct answer is More than one of the above. Key Points - More than one of the listed individuals or organisations received the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2024, so option (D) is correct. - The Ramon Magsaysay Award, often described as "
17. Q31: Which of the following statements are true about Akashteer?
    Answer: D — More than one of the above
    The correct answer is More than one of the above. Key Points - More than one statement about Akashteer is correct, making option (D) the answer. - Akashteer is an indigenous automated Air Defence Control and Reporting System developed by Bh
18. Q32: Which of the following defence platforms are part of India's growing indigenous military ecosystem supported by the Make in India initiative?
    Answer: D — More than one of the above
    The correct answer is More than one of the above. Key Points - More than one of the listed platforms belongs to India's indigenous military ecosystem under Make in India. - The Main Battle Tank (MBT) Arjun is designed by the Combat Vehicles
19. Q33: Which day is observed as Holocaust Memorial Day?
    Answer: B — January 27
    The correct answer is January 27. Key Points - International Holocaust Remembrance Day is observed every year on 27 January. - The date marks the liberation of the Auschwitz-Birkenau concentration camp by Soviet forces in 1945. - The day wa
20. Q34: What is the title of the book by Banu Mushtaq that won the 2025 International Booker Prize?
    Answer: B — Heart Lamp
    The correct answer is Heart Lamp. Key Points - 'Heart Lamp', a collection of short stories by the Kannada writer Banu Mushtaq, won the International Booker Prize 2025. - It was translated from Kannada into English by Deepa Bhasthi. - This w
21. Q40: Which of the following statement/s is/are NOT CORRECT about the U-WIN portal of Ministry of Health and Family welfare?
    Answer: D — None of the above
    The correct answer is None of the above. Key Points - The question asks which statement is NOT correct about the U-WIN portal. - Since all the listed statements are accurate descriptions of the platform, the correct response is None of the
22. Q41: Which organization jointly developed the National Urban Innovation Stack (NUIS) Digital Blueprint with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)?
    Answer: B — National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA)
    The correct answer is National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA). Key Points - The National Urban Innovation Stack (NUIS) Digital Blueprint was jointly developed by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) and the National Institut
23. Q42: Which state had the highest constructed road length under Bharatmala Pariyojana as of 31st October 2024?
    Answer: A — Rajasthan
    The correct answer is Rajasthan. Key Points - As of 31 October 2024, Rajasthan had the highest constructed road length under Bharatmala Pariyojana. - Bharatmala Pariyojana, launched in 2017 by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (Mo
24. Q48: Which of the following was NOT the outcome of Science, Technology and Innovation Policy 2020?
    Answer: C — Atal Innovation Mission
    The correct answer is Atal Innovation Mission. Key Points - The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) was not an outcome of the Science, Technology and Innovation Policy (STIP) 2020 — it was established much earlier, in 2016, by NITI Aayog to promo
25. Q110: The art of crafting which item in Meerut has received a GI tag?
    Answer: D — Scissors
    The correct answer is Scissors. Key Points - The art of crafting scissors in Meerut, Uttar Pradesh, has received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag. Meerut scissors are handcrafted by artisans using traditional forging techniques, and the c

Bihar Studies — Solved Questions

1. Q12: Which districts in Bihar will benefit from the Kosi Mechi Link Project?
   Answer: C — Araria, Purnea, Kishanganj, Katihar
   The correct answer is Araria, Purnea, Kishanganj, Katihar. Key Points - The Kosi–Mechi Link Project is a major river-interlinking scheme in Bihar that diverts surplus water from the Kosi river to the Mechi river, a tributary of the Mahanand
2. Q51: What is the primary objective of Bihar's Mission Daksh?
   Answer: C — To offer personalised mentoring for lagging students to reach grade-level competencies.
   The correct answer is To offer personalised mentoring for lagging students to reach grade-level competencies.. Key Points - Mission Daksh is an initiative of the Education Department, Government of Bihar, launched in December 2023 to addres
3. Q52: Which of the following is NOT one of the components under the YUVA framework of the Bihar Startup Policy 2022?
   Answer: C — International market expansion schemes
   The correct answer is International market expansion schemes. Key Points - International market expansion schemes is not a component of the YUVA framework under the Bihar Startup Policy 2022, which makes option (C) the correct answer to thi
4. Q53: Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Bihar's economic performance in 2023-24?
   Answer: D — More than one of the above
   The correct answer is More than one of the above. Key Points - More than one statement about Bihar's economic performance in 2023-24 is correct, so option (D) is the answer. - The figures come from the Bihar Economic Survey, tabled annually
5. Q54: Consider the following statements: 1) The proportion of the young population (0-19 years) in Bihar is projected to decline significantly by 2041. 2) Bihar's demographic dividend is expected to peak ar
   Answer: A — 1 and 2 are correct
   The correct answer is 1 and 2 are correct. Key Points - Statements 1 and 2 correctly describe Bihar's demographic trajectory. - The proportion of the young population (0–19 years) is projected to decline significantly by 2041, and Bihar's d
6. Q55: According to PLFS 2023-24, which of the following statements best describe the nature of employment among women in Bihar?
   Answer: B — The majority of women are self-employed, often serving as helpers in household enterprises.
   The correct answer is The majority of women are self-employed, often serving as helpers in household enterprises.. Key Points - According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2023-24, the majority of working women in Bihar are self-em
7. Q115: Which of the following is the state animal of Bihar?
   Answer: B — Bull
   The correct answer is Bull. Key Points - The state animal of Bihar is the Bull (Ox), locally revered for its central role in the state's agrarian economy and rural life. - Bihar's other official state symbols, which BPSC tests as a set, are
8. Q116: In which year, the Nalanda University was re-established in Bihar?
   Answer: D — 2014
   The correct answer is 2014. Key Points - Nalanda University was re-established in Bihar in 2014, when it began its first academic session at Rajgir with a small batch of students. - It was created by the Nalanda University Act, 2010, passed
9. Q117: Karmanasa river originates in -
   Answer: A — Kaimur District
   The correct answer is Kaimur District. Key Points - The Karmanasa river originates in the Kaimur district of Bihar, rising from the Kaimur hills on the Kaimur plateau, which forms part of the eastern extension of the Vindhyan range. - The K
10. Q118: Bihar produces % of pyrite of whole India?
    Answer: C — 95
    The correct answer is 95. Key Points - Bihar accounts for about 95% of India's pyrite production, making it overwhelmingly the country's leading producer of this mineral. The deposits are concentrated at Amjhore in the Rohtas district, in t
11. Q119: Gold is found in which district of Bihar?
    Answer: B — Jamui District
    The correct answer is Jamui District. Key Points - Gold reserves in Bihar are found in the Jamui district, particularly in the Karmatia belt. - According to the Geological Survey of India (GSI), Bihar holds a substantial share of India's go
12. Q120: Most of the Bihar comes under which of the following climate type?
    Answer: A — Subtropical Monsoon
    The correct answer is Subtropical Monsoon. Key Points - Most of Bihar experiences a humid subtropical monsoon climate, classified as Cwa under the Koppen climate classification — a dry-winter, hot-summer subtropical type. - The state's clim

History — Solved Questions

1. Q18: What is the name of the 16th-century stepwell that the Archaeological Survey of India recently conserved in collaboration with the World Monuments Fund India?
   Answer: B — Rajon ki Baoli
   The correct answer is Rajon ki Baoli. Key Points - Rajon ki Baoli, a 16th-century stepwell in the Mehrauli Archaeological Park in Delhi, was conserved by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) in collaboration with the World Monuments Fun
2. Q71: Which Indian leader for the first time used the 'safety-valve theory' to attack the Moderates in the Congress?
   Answer: B — Lala Lajpat Rai
   The correct answer is Lala Lajpat Rai. Key Points - Lala Lajpat Rai was the first Indian leader to use the "safety-valve theory" to attack the Moderates in the Congress. - He advanced this argument in his 1916 article "Young
3. Q72: At which Viceroy was a bomb thrown on the occasion of his state entry into Delhi?
   Answer: C — Lord Hardinge
   The correct answer is Lord Hardinge. Key Points - A bomb was thrown at Lord Hardinge, the Viceroy of India, during his ceremonial state entry into Delhi on 23 December 1912, in an incident known as the Delhi Conspiracy Case or the Delhi-Lah
4. Q73: Who got an opportunity to become Professor of Indian Philosophy in the University of California in 1911?
   Answer: C — Har Dayal
   The correct answer is Har Dayal. Key Points - Lala Har Dayal was offered the opportunity to become Professor of Indian Philosophy at the University of California, Berkeley, in 1911. - A brilliant scholar, he had earlier won a Government of
5. Q74: Name the Principal of M.A.O. College, Aligarh, who encouraged Muslim Communalism in the last decades of the 19th Century?
   Answer: D — Theodore Beck
   The correct answer is Theodore Beck. Key Points - Theodore Beck was the Principal of the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental (MAO) College, Aligarh, from 1883 to 1899, and he actively encouraged Muslim separatism and communal politics in the closing
6. Q75: 'The Young India' a Nationalist paper, was started by
   Answer: B — Mahatma Gandhi
   The correct answer is Mahatma Gandhi. Key Points - Mahatma Gandhi ran the nationalist weekly "Young India", which he edited from 1919 to 1931. - Published in English from Ahmedabad, it became the principal vehicle through which Ga
7. Q76: Which Commission accentuated the discontent in all the political groups and parties for not associating any Indian member in it?
   Answer: C — Simon Commission
   The correct answer is Simon Commission. Key Points - The Simon Commission provoked outrage across the political spectrum because it contained no Indian member. - Appointed by the British Government in November 1927 under the chairmanship of
8. Q77: Who assumed the command of the Indian National Army and gave famous battle cry, 'Chalo Delhi'?
   Answer: D — Subhash Chandra Bose
   The correct answer is Subhash Chandra Bose. Key Points - Subhas Chandra Bose assumed command of the Indian National Army (INA) — the Azad Hind Fauj — in July 1943 at Singapore and gave the famous battle cry "Chalo Delhi". - The IN
9. Q78: "We shall either free India or die in the attempt …" who said it?
   Answer: B — Mahatma Gandhi
   The correct answer is Mahatma Gandhi. Key Points - The declaration "We shall either free India or die in the attempt" was made by Mahatma Gandhi in his historic speech at the Gowalia Tank Maidan, Bombay, on 8 August 1942, on the e
10. Q79: Who raised the cry "Divide and Quit"?
    Answer: B — M.A. Jinnah
    The correct answer is M.A. Jinnah. Key Points - The slogan "Divide and Quit" was raised by Muhammad Ali Jinnah and the All India Muslim League in 1947. - It was a deliberate counter to the Congress demand of "Quit India"
11. Q80: Which Act provided for the partition of India into two new dominions - India and Pakistan?
    Answer: C — Indian Independence Act, 1947
    The correct answer is Indian Independence Act, 1947. Key Points - The Indian Independence Act, 1947, passed by the British Parliament and receiving royal assent on 18 July 1947, provided for the partition of India into two independent domin
12. Q81: Which Congress leader visited Bihar in 1918 in order to strengthen the activities of Home Rule League?
    Answer: B — Annie Besant
    The correct answer is Annie Besant. Key Points - Annie Besant visited Bihar in 1918 to strengthen the activities of the Home Rule League in the province. - The Home Rule Movement was launched during the First World War on the model of the I
13. Q82: Champaran Agrarian Committee was appointed in agreement between:
    Answer: A — Indian Government and Gandhiji
    The correct answer is Indian Government and Gandhiji. Key Points - The Champaran Agrarian Committee was appointed in 1917 by agreement between the Government of India and Mahatma Gandhi, who was himself made a member of the inquiry committe
14. Q83: Who was the prominent leader of Kisan Sabha movement in Bihar?
    Answer: B — Sahajanand Saraswati
    The correct answer is Sahajanand Saraswati. Key Points - Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was the foremost leader of the Kisan Sabha movement in Bihar. - He founded the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS) in 1929 at Sonepur, organising peasants a
15. Q84: Who was murdered while hoisting the national flag under the area of Bikram Police Station?
    Answer: A — Raghunath Singh of Gorakhari
    The correct answer is Raghunath Singh of Gorakhari. Key Points - Raghunath Singh of Gorakhari was killed while hoisting the national flag in the area of Bikram Police Station in Bihar, during the intense phase of the Quit India Movement of
16. Q85: Who became Chief Minister of Bihar in March 1939?
    Answer: C — Shri Krishna Singh
    The correct answer is Shri Krishna Singh. Key Points - Shri Krishna Singh — popularly known as Shri Babu — became Premier (Chief Minister) of Bihar in March 1939. - He had first assumed office in 1937 after the provincial elections held und
17. Q86: Match List I with List II List-I (Places in Ancient India), List-II (Presently in which State); a) Karnasuvarna, 1) Maharashtra; b) Pragjyotish, 2) Gujarat; c) Girnar, 3) West Bengal; d) Pratishthan,
    Answer: B — a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
    The correct answer is a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1. Key Points - This question matches ancient Indian place names with their modern states. - (a) Karnasuvarna → (3) West Bengal. Karnasuvarna was the capital of Shashanka, the powerful 7th-century rule
18. Q87: Which one of the following is not related to the Rigvedic period?
    Answer: B — Gargi
    The correct answer is Gargi. Key Points - Gargi is not associated with the Rigvedic period. - She belongs to the Later Vedic / Upanishadic age. - Gargi Vachaknavi was a renowned woman philosopher who appears in the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad,
19. Q88: Match List I with List II List-I (Event/Place), List-II (Connected with Person); a) Chola Gangam Lake, 1) Chandragupta Maurya; b) Appointment of Dharma Mahamatra, 2) Harshavardhan; c) Assembly at Pray
    Answer: A — a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
    The correct answer is a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1. Key Points - This question links famous events and places with the rulers connected to them. - (a) Chola Gangam Lake → (3) Rajendra I. After his victorious northern campaign up to the Ganga, Rajendr
20. Q89: Who among the following rulers, ruled for the maximum period?
    Answer: C — Bahlol Lodi
    The correct answer is Bahlol Lodi. Key Points - Among the rulers listed, Bahlol Lodi ruled for the longest period — about 38 years, from 1451 to 1489. - Comparing the reigns: Balban ruled 1266–1287 (about 21 years), Alauddin Khilji 1296–131
21. Q90: Consider the following dynasties of Ancient India: 1) Shunga 2) Maurya 3) Kushana 4) Kanva Which of the following is the correct chronological order of their rule?
    Answer: A — 2-1-4-3
    The correct answer is 2-1-4-3. Key Points - The correct chronological order of these ancient Indian dynasties is Maurya → Shunga → Kanva → Kushana, which corresponds to 2-1-4-3. - The Maurya dynasty (c. - 322–185 BCE) was founded by Chandra
22. Q91: Which one of the following is not written by Tulsidas?
    Answer: C — Sahitya Lahari
    The correct answer is Sahitya Lahari. Key Points - "Sahitya Lahari" was not written by Tulsidas — it is a work of Surdas, the great blind poet-saint of the Bhakti movement and a devotee of Krishna. - Goswami Tulsidas (c. - 1532–16
23. Q92: Match List I with List II List-I (Building), List-II (Built by); a) Kabuli Bagh Mosque, 1) Qutb ud-Din Aibak; b) Adhai Din Ka Jhopra, 2) Nur Jahan; c) Allahabad Fort, 3) Akbar; d) Itmad-ud-Daulah Maus
    Answer: A — a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
    The correct answer is a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2. Key Points - This question matches monuments with their builders. - (a) Kabuli Bagh Mosque → (4) Babar. Built at Panipat in 1527 to commemorate Babur's victory over Ibrahim Lodi at the First Battle
24. Q93: Which one of the following is not correctly matched? Person | Associated with
    Answer: A — James Augustus Hicky - Calcutta Chronicle
    The correct answer is James Augustus Hicky - Calcutta Chronicle. Key Points - This pair is incorrectly matched. James Augustus Hicky founded "Hicky's Bengal Gazette", also called the "Calcutta General Advertiser", in 178
25. Q94: Match List I with List II List-I (Father), List-II (Son); a) Babar, 1) Salim; b) Akbar, 2) Khusrau; c) Shah Jahan, 3) Kamran; d) Jahangir, 4) Murad Select the correct answer using the codes given belo
    Answer: B — a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
    The correct answer is a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2. Key Points - This question matches Mughal emperors with their sons. - (a) Babar → (3) Kamran. Kamran Mirza was Babur's son and Humayun's half-brother, who governed Kabul and Kandahar and repeatedly
26. Q95: Which Buddhist council was not held in Bihar?
    Answer: D — Fourth
    The correct answer is Fourth. Key Points - The Fourth Buddhist Council was not held in Bihar. - It took place in Kashmir (at Kundalvana), under the patronage of the Kushana emperor Kanishka in the 1st century CE, presided over by Vasumitra
27. Q96: Which of the following statements about Subhas Chandra Bose are correct? 1) He was elected President of the Indian National Congress at Tripuri session of 1938 A.D. 2) He escaped from home internment
    Answer: B — Only 2 and 3
    The correct answer is Only 2 and 3. Key Points - Statements 2 and 3 are correct. - Subhas Chandra Bose escaped from house internment in January 1941, travelling in disguise from Calcutta via Peshawar and Kabul to Germany — an episode known
28. Q97: Who among the following was not an Acharya in The Nalanda Vishvavidyalaya?
    Answer: B — Kautilya
    The correct answer is Kautilya. Key Points - Kautilya was not an Acharya at Nalanda Mahavihara. - He belongs to a much earlier period — he was the mentor of Chandragupta Maurya in the 4th century BCE and is credited with the Arthashastra, w
29. Q98: Consider the following events of Modern Indian History - 1) Death sentence to Raja Nand Kumar 2) Treaty of Salbai 3) Battle of Wandiwash 4) Death of Tipu Sultan Which of the following is the correct c
    Answer: B — 3-1-2-4
    The correct answer is 3-1-2-4. Key Points - The correct chronological sequence is Battle of Wandiwash → Death sentence to Raja Nand Kumar → Treaty of Salbai → Death of Tipu Sultan, that is 3-1-2-4. - The Battle of Wandiwash (1760) was the d
30. Q99: Among the following Newspapers of Bihar, which was the first one to get published?
    Answer: B — Patna Harkara
    The correct answer is Patna Harkara. Key Points - Among the newspapers listed, "Patna Harkara" was the first to be published in Bihar, appearing in the mid-nineteenth century and predating the other options. - The other three came
31. Q100: Match List I with List II List-I (Event/Organisation), List-II (Related Person); a) Champaran Satyagrah, 1) Jayaprakash Narayan; b) Azad Dasta, 2) Shyam Narayan Singh; c) Individual Satyagrah in Bihar
    Answer: D — a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
    The correct answer is a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3. Key Points - This question matches Bihar's freedom-struggle events and organisations with the leaders associated with them. - (a) Champaran Satyagrah → (4) Dr. Rajendra Prasad. He was among Gandhi's

Environment & Ecology — Solved Questions

1. Q23: The UN climate conference held in Baku in 2024 concluded with an agreement that:
   Answer: C — Calls on developed countries to provide at least 300 billion annually to developing nations by 2035
   The correct answer is Calls on developed countries to provide at least 300 billion annually to developing nations by 2035. Key Points - The UN Climate Change Conference COP29, held in Baku, Azerbaijan in November 2024, concluded with agreem
2. Q25: Which glacier of Nepal among the following has been declared 'dead' in May 2025?
   Answer: B — Yala Glacier
   The correct answer is Yala Glacier. Key Points - The Yala Glacier in Nepal's Langtang region was formally declared 'dead' in May 2025, becoming the first glacier in Nepal — and only the third in the world — to receive such a memorial plaque
3. Q38: According to India State of Forest Report 2023 (ISFR 2023):
   Answer: C — The maximum tree cover has been found in the State of Maharashtra followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
   The correct answer is The maximum tree cover has been found in the State of Maharashtra followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.. Key Points - The India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023 is published biennially by the Forest Survey of Indi
4. Q46: Match List-I with List-II List-I, List-II; a) Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme, 1) Introduced in the Union Budget for 2023-24; b) Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incom
   Answer: C — a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
   The correct answer is a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3. Key Points - This matching question links four environment and climate initiatives to their defining features. - (a) Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme → (2) aims to reduce emissions in energy-
5. Q111: In India the Temperate Forest Research center is in which city?
   Answer: A — Shimla
   The correct answer is Shimla. Key Points - The Himalayan Forest Research Institute (HFRI) at Shimla, Himachal Pradesh, is India's centre for research on temperate forests. - It functions under the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Edu
6. Q112: Kanha National Park is established in -
   Answer: C — Madhya Pradesh
   The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh. Key Points - Kanha National Park is located in Madhya Pradesh, spread across the Mandla and Balaghat districts in the Maikal range of the Satpura hills. - Established as a national park in 1955, Kanha b
7. Q114: Which of the following parks/sanctuaries come under the project tiger in Bihar?
   Answer: A — Valmiki National Park
   The correct answer is Valmiki National Park. Key Points - Valmiki National Park and Tiger Reserve, located in Bihar's West Champaran district on the Indo-Nepal border, is the only tiger reserve in Bihar and therefore the sole protected area
8. Q144: The species which are in danger of extinction are known as?
   Answer: C — Endangered
   The correct answer is Endangered. Key Points - Species that are in danger of extinction are classified as Endangered. - The IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature), founded in 1948 and headquartered in Gland, Switzerland, main
9. Q149: Ozone day is celebrated on:
   Answer: A — 16th September
   The correct answer is 16th September. Key Points - The International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer, commonly called World Ozone Day, is observed every year on 16 September. - The date commemorates the signing of the Montreal P

Geography — Solved Questions

1. Q35: According to the Indus Waters Treaty, the three eastern rivers are allocated to India. Which of the following is not one of them?
   Answer: A — Jhelum
   The correct answer is Jhelum. Key Points - Under the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) of 1960, brokered by the World Bank and signed by Jawaharlal Nehru and Ayub Khan, the six rivers of the Indus system were divided between India and Pakistan. - T
2. Q101: Maginot Line exists between which countries?
   Answer: B — France & Germany
   The correct answer is France & Germany. Key Points - The Maginot Line was a massive system of fortifications, concrete bunkers, obstacles and weapon installations built by France along its border with Germany in the 1930s, between the t
3. Q102: Strait of Hormuz connects -
   Answer: A — The Persian Gulf to Gulf of Oman
   The correct answer is The Persian Gulf to Gulf of Oman. Key Points - The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman, and beyond it the Arabian Sea and Indian Ocean. - It lies between Iran to the north and Oman (the Mus
4. Q103: Where is "Ground Zero"?
   Answer: B — New York
   The correct answer is New York. Key Points - "Ground Zero" refers to the site of the former World Trade Center in Lower Manhattan, New York City, destroyed in the terrorist attacks of 11 September 2001 (9/11). - The term originall
5. Q104: Which of the following Isthmuses has been known as the 'Devil's Neck'?
   Answer: B — Kra Isthmuses
   The correct answer is Kra Isthmuses. Key Points - The Isthmus of Kra, the narrow land bridge in southern Thailand connecting the Malay Peninsula to mainland Asia, is known as the "Devil's Neck". - An isthmus is a narrow strip of l
6. Q105: Ladang refers to -
   Answer: A — Shifting Agriculture
   The correct answer is Shifting Agriculture. Key Points - Ladang is the local name for shifting agriculture in Indonesia and Malaysia. - In this system a patch of forest is cleared and burnt, cultivated for two or three years until soil fert
7. Q106: Which is the largest river Island in the world?
   Answer: B — Majuli Island
   The correct answer is Majuli Island. Key Points - Majuli, situated in the Brahmaputra river in Assam, is the largest river island in the world. - It became India's first island district in 2016. - Majuli is the cultural heartland of Assames
8. Q107: The second largest river basin of India is -
   Answer: B — Narmada river basin
   The correct answer is Narmada river basin. Key Points - The official Series E key marks option (B) for this question. - Important clarification for aspirants: by drainage area, standard sources including the Central Water Commission rank th
9. Q108: Which of the following is the place of confluence of the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi?
   Answer: D — Devprayag
   The correct answer is Devprayag. Key Points - Devprayag, in Uttarakhand's Tehri Garhwal district, is the confluence of the Alaknanda and the Bhagirathi. - It is at this sacred meeting point that the river formally takes the name Ganga. - De
10. Q109: The two volcanic Islands in the Indian Territory are -
    Answer: D — Narcondam and Barren
    The correct answer is Narcondam and Barren. Key Points - Barren Island and Narcondam Island, both in the Andaman Sea, are India's two volcanic islands. - Barren Island hosts the only confirmed active volcano in India and in South Asia. - Ly
11. Q113: 'Loktak' is a .
    Answer: B — Lake
    The correct answer is Lake. Key Points - Loktak is the largest freshwater lake in North-East India, situated near Moirang in Manipur. - It is famous for the phumdis — floating masses of vegetation, soil and organic matter at various stages
12. Q145: Which of the following is a Kharif crop?
    Answer: A — Sugarcane
    The correct answer is Sugarcane. Key Points - Among the options given, sugarcane is the Kharif-associated crop, while barley, gram and wheat are all Rabi crops. - India's cropping seasons are three. Kharif crops are sown with the onset of t

Economy — Solved Questions

1. Q36: Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Capability Poverty Measure (CPM) developed by the UNDP? 1) CPM includes child malnutrition as a proxy for lack of health and nourishment. 2) Fem
   Answer: A — 1 and 2
   The correct answer is 1 and 2. Key Points - The Capability Poverty Measure (CPM) was developed by the UNDP and introduced in the Human Development Report 1996. - Unlike income-based poverty lines, it measures deprivation in basic human capa
2. Q37: Which of the following is not among the top ten principal commodities of India's export during April-September 2024-25?
   Answer: C — Basmati Rice
   The correct answer is Basmati Rice. Key Points - Basmati rice does not feature among India's top ten principal export commodities during April–September 2024-25, making option (C) correct. - India's leading merchandise exports in this perio
3. Q39: Which of the following countries had greater share than India in the global services export in 2023?
   Answer: B — Ireland
   The correct answer is Ireland. Key Points - Ireland had a larger share than India in global services exports in 2023, making option (B) correct. - India is among the world's leading services exporters, ranked around seventh globally, with s
4. Q43: Before the launch of Kisan Rin Portal (KRP), farmers used to submit manual claims under the Interest Subvention and Prompt Repayment Incentive schemes to which of the following institution/s?
   Answer: B — Reserve Bank of India and NABARD
   The correct answer is Reserve Bank of India and NABARD. Key Points - Before the launch of the Kisan Rin Portal (KRP), banks submitted manual claims under the Interest Subvention Scheme (ISS) and the Prompt Repayment Incentive (PRI) to the R
5. Q44: India's foreign exchange reserves:
   Answer: A — Increased to around USD 640 billion as of the end of December 2024
   The correct answer is Increased to around USD 640 billion as of the end of December 2024. Key Points - India's foreign exchange reserves stood at approximately USD 640 billion at the end of December 2024, after touching an all-time high of
6. Q45: As per NFHS-5 data, which of the following state(s) recorded less than 6% of the population as multidimensionally poor in 2019-20?
   Answer: D — More than one of the above
   The correct answer is More than one of the above. Key Points - More than one state recorded less than 6% of its population as multidimensionally poor in 2019-20 according to NFHS-5 data, so option (D) is correct. - The National Multidimensi
7. Q47: According to Annual PLFS 2023-24 report:
   Answer: A — There is greater increase in Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) of rural females as compared to urban females since 2021-22
   The correct answer is There is greater increase in Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) of rural females as compared to urban females since 2021-22. Key Points - The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2023-24, conducted by the National S
8. Q49: Share of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises in the country's Gross Value Added (GVA) has increased from in 2020-21 to in 2022-23.
   Answer: B — 27.3%, 30.1%
   The correct answer is 27.3%, 30.1%. Key Points - The share of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in India's Gross Value Added (GVA) rose from about 27.3% in 2020-21 to about 30.1% in 2022-23, reflecting the sector's recovery after
9. Q50: Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the Indian cement industry? 1) Around 87% of India's cement industry is concentrated in a few major states like Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh an
   Answer: A — 1
   The correct answer is 1. Key Points - Only statement 1 is correct: around 87% of India's cement industry is concentrated in a few major states such as Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh, because cement production is a raw-material
10. Q67: The Atmanirbhar Bharat Scheme announced by the Government helps in: 1) Enhancing India's manufacturing capabilities and exports across the industries 2) Incentivizing foreign investments for domestic
    Answer: C — Both 1 and 2 are correct
    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2 are correct. Key Points - Both statements correctly describe the aims of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan: it seeks to enhance India's manufacturing capability and exports across industries, and to incentivi

Indian Polity — Solved Questions

1. Q56: The power to recruit the Secretarial staff of the House of the People is vested in:
   Answer: D — President after consultation with the Speaker of the House of the people
   The correct answer is President after consultation with the Speaker of the House of the people. Key Points - Under Article 98 of the Constitution, each House of Parliament has a separate secretarial staff. - The power to recruit the secreta
2. Q57: Attorney General of India:
   Answer: B — He gives advice to the President on legal matters
   The correct answer is He gives advice to the President on legal matters. Key Points - The Attorney General of India (AGI) is the highest law officer of the Union, appointed by the President under Article 76. - The primary duty of the AGI is
3. Q58: Consider the following subjects belonging to different lists of the constitution of India. Which of the following subjects belong to concurrent list? 1) Protection of wildlife 2) Income on Agriculture
   Answer: A — 1 and 4 are correct
   The correct answer is 1 and 4 are correct. Key Points - Protection of wild animals and birds (statement 1) and price control (statement 4) both appear in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule, so option (A) is correct. - Under Article
4. Q59: Which of the following Directive Principles do not follow Gandhian Principles? 1) Organization of Village Panchayats 2) Common Civil Code 3) Promotion of cottage Industry in rural areas 4) Right to wo
   Answer: C — 2 and 4
   The correct answer is 2 and 4. Key Points - The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in Part IV of the Constitution are conventionally classified into three groups: Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal-Intellectual. - Statement 2, the Uni
5. Q60: Which pair is not correctly matched?
   Answer: C — Administration of scheduled areas - 6th schedule
   The correct answer is Administration of scheduled areas - 6th schedule. Key Points - This pair is incorrectly matched, which is what the question asks for. - The administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes is dealt wi
6. Q61: Consider the following statements about Central Government: 1) Ministries and Departments are formed by the Prime Minister with consultation of the Cabinet Secretary. 2) Every Minister is allocated Mi
   Answer: B — Only 2 is correct
   The correct answer is Only 2 is correct. Key Points - Only statement 2 is accurate: every Minister is allocated a Ministry by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. - Under Article 75, the Prime Minister is appointed by the Pres
7. Q62: What is true about the proceedings of the State Legislature?
   Answer: A — Business in the legislature shall be transacted only in official language of the state or in Hindi or in English.
   The correct answer is Business in the legislature shall be transacted only in official language of the state or in Hindi or in English.. Key Points - Under Article 210, business in a State Legislature must be transacted in the official lang
8. Q63: The constitution of India provides for reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights but reasonableness must keep in mind that: 1) The interest of the general public is safeguarded 2) Prevailing socia
   Answer: D — Only 1 is correct
   The correct answer is Only 1 is correct. Key Points - Only statement 1 is correct — reasonableness of restrictions on Fundamental Rights must ensure that the interest of the general public is safeguarded. - The Constitution permits reasonab
9. Q64: Who among the following determines the qualification which shall be requisite for appointment as member of the finance commission?
   Answer: C — Parliament by act
   The correct answer is Parliament by act. Key Points - Under Article 280(2) of the Constitution, Parliament may by law determine the qualifications requisite for appointment as members of the Finance Commission and the manner in which they s
10. Q65: Consider the following statements: 1) The summoning of the House means convocation 2) Prorogation ends a session 3) Dissolution terminates a House 4) Prorogation of a session can be effected by the le
    Answer: D — Only 4
    The correct answer is Only 4. Key Points - The question asks which statement is not true, and only statement 4 is false: prorogation of a session cannot be effected by the leader of the House alone — it is done by the President under Articl
11. Q66: Who is empowered to review financial position of the Panchayats?
    Answer: D — Finance Commission constituted by the Governor
    The correct answer is Finance Commission constituted by the Governor. Key Points - Under Article 243-I, the Governor of a State must constitute a State Finance Commission (SFC) every five years to review the financial position of the Pancha
12. Q68: What is the main purpose of Panchayati Raj?
    Answer: D — To enable people to participate in development administration
    The correct answer is To enable people to participate in development administration. Key Points - The main purpose of Panchayati Raj is to achieve democratic decentralisation — enabling ordinary citizens to participate directly in developme
13. Q69: What is true about Censure Motion?
    Answer: B — It is different from the No-confidence motion
    The correct answer is It is different from the No-confidence motion. Key Points - A Censure Motion is distinct from a No-Confidence Motion in several important respects. - A Censure Motion expresses strong disapproval of a specific policy o
14. Q70: Which one of the following subjects fall within the jurisdiction of both High Court and Supreme Court?
    Answer: C — Protection of fundamental rights
    The correct answer is Protection of fundamental rights. Key Points - Protection of Fundamental Rights falls within the jurisdiction of both the Supreme Court and the High Courts, making this the shared subject. - Under Article 32, the Supre

General Science — Solved Questions

1. Q121: We apply a force of 200 Newtons on a wooden Box and push it on the floor at constant velocity. The marginal friction force will be:
   Answer: B — 200 Newtons
   The correct answer is 200 Newtons. Key Points - The key phrase in the question is "constant velocity". - When a body moves at constant velocity, its acceleration is zero, and by Newton's Second Law (F = ma) the net force acting on
2. Q122: A truck starts from rest down a hill with a constant acceleration. It achieves 400 meters in 20 seconds. If the weight of the truck is 7 tons then what will be the force acting on it?
   Answer: D — 14000 Newtons
   The correct answer is 14000 Newtons. Key Points - This numerical is solved in two steps using the equations of motion and Newton's Second Law. - Step 1 — find the acceleration. The truck starts from rest, so initial velocity u = 0. - Using
3. Q123: Energy consumed in a home is 250 units then the total energy in Joule will be:
   Answer: C — 9 × 10⁸
   The correct answer is 9 × 10⁸. Key Points - In electricity billing, one 'unit' means one kilowatt-hour (1 kWh), which is the commercial unit of electrical energy, as distinct from the joule, the SI unit. - The conversion is derived as follo
4. Q124: In which medium, the speed of sound is maximum?
   Answer: A — Steel
   The correct answer is Steel. Key Points - The speed of sound is maximum in solids, and among the given options steel is the only solid, so sound travels fastest through it. - Sound is a mechanical wave that requires a material medium to pro
5. Q125: The potential energy of a freely falling body continuously decreases.
   Answer: B — The principle of conservation of energy is not violated
   The correct answer is The principle of conservation of energy is not violated. Key Points - When a body falls freely, its potential energy decreases continuously, but this does not violate the law of conservation of energy, because the lost
6. Q126: A pair of Oxen exerts a force of 140 newton while ploughing the field. The field ploughed is 15 meter long. The work done in ploughing the length of the field is:
   Answer: C — 2100 Joule
   The correct answer is 2100 Joule. Key Points - This is a direct application of the formula for work done by a constant force acting along the direction of displacement: - Work (W) = Force (F) × Displacement (s) × cos θ - Here the pair of ox
7. Q127: The focal distance of a plane mirror is
   Answer: D — Infinity
   The correct answer is Infinity. Key Points - The focal length of a plane mirror is infinity, because a plane mirror can be regarded as a spherical mirror of infinite radius of curvature. - The relationship between focal length and radius of
8. Q128: Which term in the following does not denote the electric power in electric circuit?
   Answer: B — IR²
   The correct answer is IR². Key Points - IR² does not represent electric power. - The three valid expressions for electrical power are derived by combining Ohm's Law (V = IR) with the fundamental definition P = VI: - P = VI — power equals vo
9. Q129: In short circuit, the value of electric current in a time circuit:
   Answer: C — Increases very high
   The correct answer is Increases very high. Key Points - In a short circuit, the electric current in the circuit increases to a very high value. - A short circuit occurs when the live wire and the neutral wire come into direct contact, usual
10. Q130: What is the device to protect equipments from the electric shock?
    Answer: A — Fuse
    The correct answer is Fuse. Key Points - A fuse is the safety device used to protect electrical equipment and wiring from damage caused by excessive current, as occurs during a short circuit or overloading. - A fuse consists of a short piec
11. Q131: pH value of 0.1 N HCl solution is approximately:
    Answer: A — 1.0
    The correct answer is 1.0. Key Points - Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a strong acid and a monobasic (monoprotic) acid, meaning it dissociates completely in water and each molecule releases exactly one hydrogen ion. - For a monobasic acid, norm
12. Q132: Which Compound is known as night glowing pigment from below?
    Answer: A — Europium dopped strontium aluminate
    The correct answer is Europium dopped strontium aluminate. Key Points - Strontium aluminate doped with europium — written as SrAl₂O₄:Eu²⁺, Dy³⁺ — is the compound widely known as a night-glowing or glow-in-the-dark pigment. - It works by pho
13. Q133: Which Material is used for smart film?
    Answer: A — Indium tin oxide
    The correct answer is Indium tin oxide. Key Points - Indium Tin Oxide (ITO) is the material used in smart films, and more broadly in smart windows and switchable glass. - ITO has a rare and valuable combination of two properties: it is elec
14. Q134: Which metal compound is used for treatment of carcinoma?
    Answer: A — Platinum
    The correct answer is Platinum. Key Points - Platinum compounds are widely used in the treatment of carcinoma and other cancers. - The best-known is cisplatin (cis-diamminedichloroplatinum(II)), one of the most successful anti-cancer drugs
15. Q135: Which compound is used in contraceptive pills?
    Answer: B — Levonorgestrel
    The correct answer is Levonorgestrel. Key Points - Levonorgestrel is a synthetic progestogen (progestin) used in contraceptive pills, including combined oral contraceptives, progestin-only pills and emergency contraceptive pills. - It preve
16. Q136: Why oil is not stored in galvanized iron pot?
    Answer: D — All of above
    The correct answer is All of above. Key Points - All the reasons listed are valid, so oil is not stored in galvanised iron vessels. - Galvanisation is the process of coating iron or steel with a protective layer of zinc to prevent rusting.
17. Q137: Which compound is used for increase of octane rating?
    Answer: C — Tetraethyllead
    The correct answer is Tetraethyllead. Key Points - Tetraethyllead (TEL), with the formula Pb(C₂H₅)₄, was historically added to petrol as an anti-knocking agent to raise its octane rating. - The octane number measures a fuel's resistance to
18. Q138: Full form of PHBV biodegradable polymer:
    Answer: C — Poly (3 - Hydroxy butyrate-co-3 hydroxy valerate)
    The correct answer is Poly (3 - Hydroxy butyrate-co-3 hydroxy valerate). Key Points - PHBV stands for poly(3-hydroxybutyrate-co-3-hydroxyvalerate). - It is a biodegradable copolymer belonging to the family of polyhydroxyalkanoates (PHAs). -
19. Q139: Hormones are secreted by:
    Answer: D — Endocrine glands
    The correct answer is Endocrine glands. Key Points - Hormones are secreted by endocrine glands, which are also called ductless glands because they release their secretions directly into the bloodstream rather than through ducts. - The blood
20. Q140: Which one of the following term characterizes the interaction between herpes simplex virus and a human?
    Answer: A — Parasitism
    The correct answer is Parasitism. Key Points - The interaction between the herpes simplex virus and a human host is an example of parasitism. - Parasitism is a form of interspecific interaction in which one organism (the parasite) benefits
21. Q141: Which class of immunoglobulin is the first to be produced in response to an infection?
    Answer: C — IgM
    The correct answer is IgM. Key Points - Immunoglobulin M (IgM) is the first class of antibody produced in response to an infection, that is, during the primary immune response. - IgM is a large pentamer — five antibody units joined by a J c
22. Q142: The biological membranes are composed of:
    Answer: A — Lipids and proteins in varying combinations which are specific to each species, cell type and organelle
    The correct answer is Lipids and proteins in varying combinations which are specific to each species, cell type and organelle. Key Points - Biological membranes are composed of lipids and proteins in varying proportions, and these proportio
23. Q143: Which of the following is a non-sense codon?
    Answer: A — UAA
    The correct answer is UAA. Key Points - UAA is a non-sense codon, also known as a stop codon or termination codon. - The three non-sense codons in the genetic code are UAA, UAG and UGA, traditionally nicknamed ochre, amber and opal respecti
24. Q146: Xylem in plants is responsible for following function:
    Answer: A — Transport of water and dissolved minerals
    The correct answer is Transport of water and dissolved minerals. Key Points - Xylem is the vascular tissue responsible for the transport of water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the leaves and other aerial parts of the plant. - Thi
25. Q147: Who was first to use the characteristics of vascular tissues in the classification of plants?
    Answer: C — A P de Condolle
    The correct answer is A P de Condolle. Key Points - Augustin Pyramus de Candolle, the Swiss botanist, was the first to use the characteristics of vascular tissues as a basis for the classification of plants. - He presented this system in hi
26. Q148: The part which we eat in Mango is:
    Answer: B — Mesocarp
    The correct answer is Mesocarp. Key Points - The edible, fleshy and juicy part of a mango is the mesocarp, the middle layer of the fruit wall. - The fruit wall, or pericarp, of a fleshy fruit is differentiated into three layers: the epicarp
27. Q150: In mycorrhizal association, the advantage of plant is:
    Answer: D — Increased mineral absorption and diseases protection
    The correct answer is Increased mineral absorption and diseases protection. Key Points - In a mycorrhizal association, the plant gains increased absorption of minerals — particularly phosphorus — along with protection against soil-borne pat

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