JKCCE Prelims 2024 — General Studies Paper I — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

Current Affairs — Solved Questions

1. Q1: Match the following countries based on their ranks as per the medal tally in the Paris Olympics, 2024: Countries Rank 1. Australia, i. Rank one; 2. China, ii. Rank two; 3. Japan, iii. Rank three; 4. F
   Answer: A — 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-v
   The correct answer is 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-v. Key Points - The final medal tally of the Paris Olympics 2024, ranked by gold medals, placed the top five as: Rank, Country, Gold; ---, ---, ---; 1, United States, 40; 2, China, 40; 3, Japan, 20
2. Q3: Arrange the general elections in following Asian countries in 2024 in the correct chronological order: i. Indonesia ii. India iii. Pakistan iv. Kuwait v. Jordan Choose the correct order:
   Answer: C — iii, i, iv, ii, v
   The correct answer is iii, i, iv, ii, v. Key Points - 2024 was the largest election year in history, with more than 60 countries going to the polls. Placing the five Asian elections in order: Order, Country, Date; ---, ---, ---; 1, Pakistan
3. Q4: Arrange the following international events held in year 2024 in the correct chronological order: i. World Biodiversity Summit (Cali) ii. World Climate Summit (New York) iii. World Climate Summit (Baku
   Answer: C — v, ii, iv, i, iii
   The correct answer is v, ii, iv, i, iii. Key Points - Arranging the 2024 events by date: Order, Event, When; ---, ---, ---; 1, Climate Investment Summit, London (v), June 2024; 2, World Climate Summit, New York (ii), September 2024; 3, Worl
4. Q7: The Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT Delhi) recently opened its overseas campus at
   Answer: B — Abu Dhabi
   The correct answer is Abu Dhabi. Key Points - IIT Delhi opened its first overseas campus at Abu Dhabi, in the United Arab Emirates, with academic sessions beginning in 2024. - The campus follows a Memorandum of Understanding signed in July
5. Q9: Match the following books and authors shortlisted for Booker Prize 2024: Books Authors 1. Held, i. Charlotte Wood; 2. Creation Lake, ii. Rachel Kushner; 3. Orbital, iii. Samantha Harvey; 4. James, iv.
   Answer: A — 1-iv, 2- ii, 3-iii, 4-v
   The correct answer is 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-v. Key Points - The correct pairing of the Booker Prize 2024 shortlisted books with their authors is: Book, Author; ---, ---; Held, Anne Michaels; Creation Lake, Rachel Kushner; Orbital, Samantha H
6. Q11: Which of the following statements about movie "Santosh" are correct? i. The Movie was premiered at the 77th Cannes Film Festival 2024. ii. The Movie is Britain's Oscar entry in the internati
   Answer: A — i and ii Only
   The correct answer is i and ii Only. Key Points - Statement i is correct. Santosh premiered at the 77th Cannes Film Festival in 2024, in the Un Certain Regard section. - Statement ii is correct. The film was selected as the United Kingdom's
7. Q94: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the Global Innovation Index 2024? i. Switzerland maintained its position as the global leader in innovation ii. India ranked 39th in the Gl
   Answer: A — i, ii and iii only
   The correct answer is i, ii and iii only. Key Points - Statement i is correct. Switzerland retained the top position in the Global Innovation Index 2024 — it has led the ranking every year since 2011. - Statement ii is correct. India ranked
8. Q97: As per the Jammu and Kashmir Budget 2024-25, around how many Megawatt(MW) rooftop solar power plants are planned to be installed on the government buildings by the Science and Technology Department?
   Answer: D — 4 MW
   The correct answer is 4 MW. Key Points - The Jammu and Kashmir Budget 2024-25 provided for the installation of roughly 4 MW of rooftop solar power plants on government buildings, to be taken up by the Science and Technology Department. - Th
9. Q99: Noble Prize for Physics 2024 awarded for the development of:
   Answer: D — Foundational work in Machine Learning using Artificial Neural Networks
   The correct answer is Foundational work in Machine Learning using Artificial Neural Networks. Key Points - The Nobel Prize in Physics 2024 was awarded to John J. Hopfield and Geoffrey E. Hinton "for foundational discoveries and inventi

International Relations — Solved Questions

1. Q2: Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): The BRICS Summit in year (2024) was hosted by Russia. Reasoning (R): The motto of the BRICS Summit 2024 was "Strengthening Multilateralism for Ju
   Answer: B — Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
   The correct answer is Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Key Points - Assertion (A) is true. The 16th BRICS Summit was hosted by Russia at Kazan from 22 to 24 October 2024, under Russia's chairship of the grouping
2. Q5: Which of the following statements about Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Civil Aviation are correct? i. The first Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference was held in Beijing in 2018. ii. The second
   Answer: B — i, ii and iii only
   The correct answer is i, ii and iii only. Key Points - Statement i is correct. The first Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Civil Aviation was held at Beijing, China, in 2018. - Statement ii is correct. The second conference was held at
3. Q12: Match the following edition of India-Kazakhstan Joint Military Exercise (KAZIND) and the venue of the exercises: Joint Military Exercise Venue i. KAZIND-2024 Auli ii. KAZIND-2023 Otar iii. KAZIND-2022
   Answer: B — Only two pairs
   The correct answer is Only two pairs. Key Points - KAZIND is the annual joint military exercise between India and Kazakhstan. Checking each pair: Edition, Venue given, Correct?; ---, ---, ---; KAZIND-2024, Auli, Correct — held at Auli, Utta
4. Q96: Bletchley Declaration, 2023 was signed by which of the following countries among others? i. United Kingdom ii. South Korea iii. Russia iv. China Select the correct answer using the code given below.
   Answer: C — i and iv only
   The correct answer is i and iv only. Key Points - The Bletchley Declaration was agreed at the AI Safety Summit held at Bletchley Park, United Kingdom, on 1-2 November 2023. - The United Kingdom (i) hosted the summit and signed the declarati

Science & Technology — Solved Questions

1. Q6: 'Cancer Moonshot initiative', recently highlighted in news, is launched by which of the following countries?
   Answer: D — The United States of America, Australia, India, and Japan
   The correct answer is The United States of America, Australia, India, and Japan. Key Points - The Cancer Moonshot initiative in the news was the Quad Cancer Moonshot, launched by the four Quad countries — the United States, Australia, India
2. Q15: In which year does ISRO plan to launch the first base module of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station?
   Answer: D — 2028
   The correct answer is 2028. Key Points - ISRO plans to launch the first base module of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) in 2028. - The station is to be built in stages, with BAS-1 as the first module, and the full station targeted for
3. Q89: Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Buckyballs, also known as fullerenes, are fascinating carbon molecules that resemble soccer balls Statement-II: Fly Ash from thermal power plants contai
   Answer: C — Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
   The correct answer is Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Key Points - Statement-I is correct. Buckyballs, or fullerenes, are carbon molecules whose structure closely resembles a football. The archetype is C₆₀ — buckminste
4. Q90: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with respect to possible effects of solar storms on earth? i. Disruption of GPS navigation and satellite communications ii. Destruction of power grid
   Answer: D — i, ii and iv only
   The correct answer is i, ii and iv only. Key Points - Statement i is correct. Solar storms disrupt GPS navigation and satellite communications. The disturbed ionosphere delays and scatters radio signals, degrading positioning accuracy and c
5. Q91: Consider the following features: i. Blockchain integration ii. Centralized platform iii. User ownership and control iv. Interoperability Which of the above are characteristics of Web 3.0?
   Answer: C — i, iii and iv only
   The correct answer is i, iii and iv only. Key Points - The characteristics of Web 3.0 among those listed: - Blockchain integration (i) — the technical foundation on which decentralised applications, tokens and smart contracts are built. - U
6. Q92: 'Urea Gold' is a mixture of:
   Answer: C — Nitrogen and Sulphur
   The correct answer is Nitrogen and Sulphur. Key Points - Urea Gold is sulphur-coated urea — a fertiliser combining nitrogen with sulphur. It contains no gold; the name refers to its golden appearance. - It was launched by the Prime Minister
7. Q93: Identify the correct match: Salt, Chemical formula; 1. Washing soda, Na2CO3; 2. Baking soda, NaHCO3; 3. Gypsum, CaSO4·2H2O; 4. Plaster of Paris, CaSO4·1/2H2O How many match/es is/are correct?
   Answer: D — All the four matches
   The correct answer is All the four matches. Key Points - Every pair given is correct: Salt, Chemical formula, Common name; ---, ---, ---; Washing soda, Na₂CO₃·10H₂O (anhydrous Na₂CO₃), Sodium carbonate; Baking soda, NaHCO₃, Sodium hydrogen
8. Q95: Consider the following statements regarding Sickle cell anaemia: i. It is caused due to genetic mutation. ii. It affects the shape of red blood cells and makes the inability to carry oxygen. iii. It c
   Answer: D — iv only
   The correct answer is iv only. Key Points - The question asks for the incorrect statement, and only statement iv is wrong. - Statement iv is incorrect. Sickle cell disease causes the body to make abnormal haemoglobin — haemoglobin S, not no
9. Q98: Which of the following infections DOES NOT spread through direct contact or close proximity with the infected person? Select the most appropriate option from the options given below:
   Answer: D — Chikungunya
   The correct answer is Chikungunya. Key Points - Chikungunya does not spread through direct contact or close proximity with an infected person. It is a vector-borne disease, transmitted by the bite of infected Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopic
10. Q100: Which of the following materials is widely used to make quantum dots for biological applications?
    Answer: B — Cadmium selenide
    The correct answer is Cadmium selenide. Key Points - Cadmium selenide (CdSe) is the material most widely used to make quantum dots for biological applications. - Its popularity rests on the fact that CdSe dots fluoresce across the whole vis

Economy — Solved Questions

1. Q8: Which of the following statements about "Development of Semiconductors and Display Manufacturing Ecosystems in India" are correct? i. Three semiconductors units will be established under thi
   Answer: D — i and iv only
   The correct answer is i and iv only. Key Points - Statement i is correct. Under the programme for the Development of Semiconductors and Display Manufacturing Ecosystems in India, the Union Cabinet approved three semiconductor units in Febru
2. Q64: Below mentioned are four countries having largest Foreign Exchange Reserves in the world in October 2024. Arrange these countries in decreasing order of their Foreign Exchange Reserves. i. India ii. J
   Answer: C — iii, ii, iv, i
   The correct answer is iii, ii, iv, i. Key Points - Ranking by foreign exchange reserves as of October 2024, in decreasing order: Order, Country, Approximate reserves; ---, ---, ---; 1, China (iii), about US 3.3 trillion; 2, Japan (ii), abou
3. Q68: Arrange the following sources of revenue for the Government of India mentioned in the Union Budget of 2024-25 in descending order: i. Goods & Service Tax & other taxes ii. Borrowing and Other
   Answer: B — ii, iv, i, iii
   The correct answer is ii, iv, i, iii. Key Points - The Union Budget 2024-25 showed the rupee coming in from these sources, in descending order: Order, Source, Share of the rupee; ---, ---, ---; 1, Borrowings and other liabilities (ii), abou
4. Q69: The FRBM (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management) framework mandates the Central Government to limit the Central Government Debt and the General Government Debt by 31st March 2025. What are the l
   Answer: D — 40 percent of GDP and 60 percent of GDP, respectively
   The correct answer is 40 percent of GDP and 60 percent of GDP, respectively. Key Points - The FRBM framework, as amended, sets debt ceilings to be reached by 31 March 2025: - Central Government Debt — not more than 40% of GDP - General Gove
5. Q70: Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission of India: i. The Article 380(1) of the Constitution lays down that the modalities for setting up of a Finance Commission to make reco
   Answer: D — ii, iii and v only
   The correct answer is ii, iii and v only. Key Points - Statement i is incorrect. It is Article 280(1), not Article 380, that provides for the constitution of a Finance Commission. Article 380 does not deal with this at all. - Statement ii i
6. Q72: Consider the following statements regarding National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT) and Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS): 1. In National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT), the transaction happens in b
   Answer: B — Only two statements
   The correct answer is Only two statements. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. NEFT settles in batches — transactions are queued and settled in half-hourly batches, which is why it is not instantaneous. - Statement 2 is correct. RTGS settl
7. Q75: Consider the following statements regarding the "Monetary Policy Committee". i. The RBI Governor has to vote both in the first instance and in case of a tie. ii. The monetary policy committe
   Answer: A — i only
   The correct answer is i only. Key Points - Statement i is correct. The RBI Governor votes in the first instance like every other member, and in the event of a tie has a second, casting vote. - Statement ii is incorrect. The Monetary Policy
8. Q76: "Quotas are the building blocks of the IMF's financial and governance structure. An individual member country's quota broadly reflects its relative position in the world economy". In the abo
   Answer: B — i, ii, iv and v only
   The correct answer is i, ii, iv and v only. Key Points - The IMF quota formula is a weighted average of four variables: Variable, Weight; ---, ---; GDP (i) — a blend of market exchange rates (60%) and PPP (40%), 50%; Openness (ii) — the ann

History — Solved Questions

1. Q10: Match the following state/UT-wise list of GI tagged handloom products of India: GI Tagged Handloom Products State/UT 1. Tangaliya Shawl, i. Nagaland; 2. Chakheshang Shawl, ii. Gujarat; 3. Habaspuri Sa
   Answer: B — 1- ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv
   The correct answer is 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv. Key Points - The correct pairing of GI-tagged handloom products with their States and Union Territories is: Product, State / UT; ---, ---; Tangaliya Shawl, Gujarat; Chakhesang Shawl, Nagaland; H
2. Q16: Brihatkathamanjari was written by:
   Answer: D — Kshemendra
   The correct answer is Kshemendra. Key Points - Brihatkathamanjari was written by Kshemendra, an eleventh-century Sanskrit poet and polymath of Kashmir. - It is a condensed Sanskrit verse retelling of the lost Brihatkatha of Gunadhya, which
3. Q17: Which of the following is/are true about Ganas or Sanghas? i. Most of the ganas were located in or near Himalayan foothills ii. The ganas had greater vestiges of tribal organization iii. Power in gana
   Answer: C — Only i, ii, & iii are correct
   The correct answer is Only i, ii, & iii are correct. Key Points - Statement i is correct. Most ganas or sanghas lay in or near the Himalayan foothills — the Shakyas of Kapilavastu, the Licchavis of Vaishali, the Mallas of Kushinagar and
4. Q18: Arrange the following in chronological order from earlier to later: i. Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) ii. Ochre Colored Pottery (OCP) iii. Painted Grey Ware (PGW) iv. Black and Red Ware (BRW) Cho
   Answer: C — ii, iv, iii, i
   The correct answer is ii, iv, iii, i. Key Points - Arranging the pottery cultures from earliest to latest: Order, Ware, Approximate date; ---, ---, ---; 1, Ochre Coloured Pottery (OCP) (ii), c. 2000–1500 BCE; 2, Black and Red Ware (BRW) (iv
5. Q19: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC)? i. Scribes were involved in the seal-making process of the civilization. ii. The Great Bath of Mohenjoda
   Answer: A — i and ii only
   The correct answer is i and ii only. Key Points - Statement i is correct. Scribes were involved in seal-making. The Harappan seals carry a script that had to be inscribed by someone literate in it, and the standardisation of the signs acros
6. Q20: Consider the following statements with regard to the Rock Edicts of Ashoka: i. References to many kinds of Mahamattas ii. Pradesikas, Rajukas and Yuktas were important officials at the district level
   Answer: D — i, ii & iv only
   The correct answer is i, ii & iv only. Key Points - Statement i is correct. Ashoka's edicts refer to several kinds of Mahamattas (Mahamatras) — high officers, including the Dhamma Mahamattas created in the thirteenth year of his reign t
7. Q21: Consider the following statements with regards to the iqta system: 1. The iqta was a territorial assignment given to administrative officers and nobles in lieu of the services they performed for the s
   Answer: B — Only 1 and 2 are correct
   The correct answer is Only 1 and 2 are correct. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The iqta was a territorial assignment granted to nobles and officers in lieu of salary, for services rendered to the state. The holder collected the revenu
8. Q22: Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Atharva Veda, Mahabharata, Ramayana and Gita were translated into Persian during Akbar's regime Reason (R): Jahangir set up a translation bureau to tr
   Answer: C — A is true but R is false
   The correct answer is A is true but R is false. Key Points - Assertion (A) is true. The Atharva Veda, Mahabharata, Ramayana and Bhagavad Gita were translated into Persian during Akbar's reign. The Mahabharata became the Razmnama ("Book
9. Q23: "The princes of the Bahmani maintained their superiority by valour only; for in power, wealth and extent of the country, the Rayas of Bijarnagar (Vijayanagar) greatly exceeded them". Who amo
   Answer: B — Ferishta
   The correct answer is Ferishta. Key Points - The statement comparing the Bahmani princes unfavourably with the Rayas of Vijayanagara in power, wealth and territory was made by Ferishta. - Muhammad Qasim Ferishta was a Persian historian at t
10. Q24: Match the following positions with their responsibilities in Maratha administration under Shivaji: Position Responsibility 1. Peshwa, i. Finance and General Administration; 2. Sar-i-naubat, ii. Master
    Answer: A — 1-i, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-ii
    The correct answer is 1-i, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-ii. Key Points - Matching the offices of Shivaji's council with their functions: Position, Responsibility; ---, ---; Peshwa, Finance and general administration; Sar-i-naubat (Senapati), Commander-in
11. Q25: Match the following battles with the year they were fought: Battles Year 1. First Battle of Panipat i. 1526 2. Battle of Chausa ii. 1527 3. Battle of Khanwa iii. 1540 4. Battle of Kanauj iv. 1539 Choo
    Answer: A — 1-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii
    The correct answer is 1-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii. Key Points - Matching the battles with their years: Battle, Year, Who fought; ---, ---, ---; First Battle of Panipat, 1526, Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi; Battle of Khanwa, 1527, Babur defeated Ra
12. Q26: Match the Indian musicians of the early twentieth century with their field of expertise: Musician Field of expertise 1. Narayana Dasu, i. Violin; 2. Dhanammal, ii. Harikatha; 3. Allauddin Khan, iii. V
    Answer: D — 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i
    The correct answer is 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i. Key Points - Matching the musicians with their fields: Musician, Field; ---, ---; Narayana Dasu, Harikatha; Veena Dhanammal, Veena; Allauddin Khan, Sarod; Chowdiah, Violin - This gives 1-ii, 2-i
13. Q27: Which of the following is/are correct regarding the Charter Act of 1853? i. The Act provided that the salaries of the members of the Board of Control, its Secretary and other officials would be fixed
    Answer: C — ii & iii only
    The correct answer is ii & iii only. Key Points - Statement i is incorrect because it reverses the arrangement. Under the Charter Act of 1853, the salaries of the members of the Board of Control, its secretary and officers were fixed by
14. Q28: Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the Non-cooperation Movement? 1. The Congress in its annual session held in December 1920 at Allahabad adopted Gandhiji's plan for non-coope
    Answer: C — Only 2 & 3 are correct
    The correct answer is Only 2 & 3 are correct. Key Points - Statement 1 is incorrect. The Congress session of December 1920 that adopted Gandhi's non-cooperation programme was held at Nagpur, not Allahabad. The Nagpur session ratified wh
15. Q29: Consider the following statements with reference to The Lucknow Pact: 1. It offered a joint League-Congress scheme for constitutional reforms. 2. It demanded representative Government and dominion sta
    Answer: C — Only three
    The correct answer is Only three. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The Lucknow Pact (1916) offered a joint Congress–Muslim League scheme of constitutional reforms, presented to the British government. - Statement 2 is correct. It demand
16. Q30: Arrange the following events during the freedom struggle chronologically from earlier to later: i. The Wavell Plan ii. The Rajagopalchari Formula iii. The August Offer iv. The Cabinet Mission Choose t
    Answer: D — iii, ii, i, iv
    The correct answer is iii, ii, i, iv. Key Points - Placing the four proposals in order: Order, Event, Date; ---, ---, ---; 1, August Offer (iii), August 1940; 2, Rajagopalachari Formula (ii), 1944; 3, Wavell Plan (i), June 1945; 4, Cabinet

Social Issues & Schemes — Solved Questions

1. Q13: Which of the following statements about the goals of Jammu and Kashmir Tourism Policy (2020) are correct? i. To become the most preferred all-season tourist destination for both domestic and foreign t
   Answer: B — i, ii and iii only
   The correct answer is i, ii and iii only. Key Points - The Jammu and Kashmir Tourism Policy, 2020 set out to make the Union Territory a year-round destination rather than a seasonal one. Statements i, ii and iii reproduce its stated goals:
2. Q37: Arrange the following states in descending order of literacy rate as per 2011 census: i. Maharashtra ii. Tamil Nadu iii. Mizoram iv. Sikkim v. Tripura The correct match is:
   Answer: B — iii, v, i, iv, ii
   The correct answer is iii, v, i, iv, ii. Key Points - Literacy rates from the 2011 Census, in descending order: Rank, State, Literacy rate; ---, ---, ---; 1, Mizoram (iii), 91.33%; 2, Tripura (v), 87.22%; 3, Maharashtra (i), 82.34%; 4, Sikk
3. Q65: Which of the following projects have been developed under the 'Bharatmala Pariyojana'? 1. Delhi-Meerut Expressway 2. Eastern Peripheral Expressway 3. Chenani-Nashri tunnel 4. Ambala-Lucknow Expressway
   Answer: B — 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
   The correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 5 only. Key Points - Four of the five projects listed were developed under Bharatmala Pariyojana: - Delhi–Meerut Expressway (1) — the first expressway in India with 14 lanes, and a dedicated cycle track for
4. Q66: Which of the following are the interventions under the 'Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram' (RKSK) in India? i. Weekly Iron Folic Acid Supplementation Programme ii. Scheme for Promotion of Menstrual
   Answer: A — i, ii, iii and iv only
   The correct answer is i, ii, iii and iv only. Key Points - Four of the five listed are interventions under the Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram (RKSK): - Weekly Iron and Folic Acid Supplementation (WIFS) (i) — to address iron-deficiency
5. Q67: In the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojna, choose the correct order of the loan categories, from the lowest to the highest, in terms of the loan limits:
   Answer: B — Shishu, Kishor, Tarun
   The correct answer is Shishu, Kishor, Tarun. Key Points - The three MUDRA loan categories, from the lowest to the highest limit: Category, Loan limit; ---, ---; Shishu, up to ₹50,000; Kishor, above ₹50,000 and up to ₹5 lakh; Tarun, above ₹5
6. Q71: Consider the following statements regarding Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) Scheme: 1. The PDMC Scheme focuses on enhancing water use efficiency at the farm level through Micro Irrigation. 2. It is a Centra
   Answer: C — Only three statements
   The correct answer is Only three statements. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) scheme focuses on improving water use efficiency at the farm level through micro irrigation — drip and sprinkler systems. - Stat
7. Q73: Consider the following statements regarding eligibility criteria for Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban (PMAY-U) 2.0 Scheme: i. Low-Income Group(LIG) households are families with an annual income up to
   Answer: D — i, ii and iii
   The correct answer is i, ii and iii. Key Points - The question asks which statements are INCORRECT, and all three are. The actual income limits under PMAY-Urban 2.0 are: Category, Annual household income; ---, ---; EWS — Economically Weaker
8. Q74: Consider the following states and answer the question given below: i. West Bengal ii. Andhra Pradesh iii. Assam iv. Bihar v. Sikkim vi. Arunachal Pradesh vii. Odisha Which of the above states are cove
   Answer: B — i, ii, iv and vii
   The correct answer is i, ii, iv and vii. Key Points - The Purvodaya plan, announced in the Union Budget 2024-25, covers five eastern states: - Bihar (iv) - Jharkhand - West Bengal (i) - Odisha (vii) - Andhra Pradesh (ii) - Of the states lis

Indian Polity — Solved Questions

1. Q14: Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): The Jammu and Kashmir Assembly Elections 2024 is the third such elections in last one decade. Reason (R): The Jammu and Kashmir Assembly Elections 202
   Answer: C — A is false but R is true
   The correct answer is A is false but R is true. Key Points - Assertion (A) is false. The Jammu and Kashmir Assembly Elections 2024 were not the third such election in a decade. The previous Assembly election was held in 2014, so the 2024 el
2. Q45: What is the correct sequence of the words mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
   Answer: A — Secular, Justice, Liberty, Unity and Integrity of Nation
   The correct answer is Secular, Justice, Liberty, Unity and Integrity of Nation. Key Points - The Preamble reads, in order: "WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCR
3. Q46: Which of the following words are mentioned in 'Article 51-A (g)' of the Indian Constitution? i. Rivers ii. Forests iii. Animals iv. Lakes Select the correct answer:
   Answer: C — i, ii, and iv only
   The correct answer is i, ii, and iv only. Key Points - Article 51-A(g) reads: it shall be the duty of every citizen "to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion
4. Q47: Which of the following Fundamental Rights are also available to non-citizens? i. Equality before law ii. Freedom of expression iii. Freedom to manage religious affairs iv. Protection against arrest an
   Answer: D — i, iii, iv
   The correct answer is i, iii, iv. Key Points - Testing each right against whether it extends to non-citizens: Right, Article, Available to non-citizens?; ---, ---, ---; Equality before law (i), Article 14, Yes — guaranteed to "any pers
5. Q48: Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional Amendment: i. A Constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in either house of Parliament. ii. This power is considered Parliament's Cons
   Answer: C — i and ii only
   The correct answer is i and ii only. Key Points - Statement i is correct. A Constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament. There is no requirement that it begin in the Lok Sabha. - Statement ii is correct. Th
6. Q49: Consider the following statements: 1. Article 329 pertains to restrictions on court intervention in electoral matters. 2. Article 329 A was removed by the 44th Constitutional Amendment. Choose the cor
   Answer: C — Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
   The correct answer is Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. Article 329 bars the interference of courts in electoral matters. It provides that the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of const
7. Q50: Identify the correct group of states having a bicameral legislature:
   Answer: C — Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh
   The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh. Key Points - Six states currently have a bicameral legislature — a Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and a Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad): - Uttar Pradesh - B
8. Q51: Consider the following statements regarding the legislative powers of the Parliament and the State Legislature: i. Parliament has the authority to make laws for the entire territory of India or any pa
   Answer: C — i, ii, and iii only
   The correct answer is i, ii, and iii only. Key Points - Statement i is correct. Under Article 245(1), Parliament may make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. - Statement ii is correct. The same article empowers a State
9. Q52: Consider the following statements about Money Bills: 1. The introduction of Money Bills cannot occur in the Rajya Sabha 2. The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to amend or reject it 3. The procedur
   Answer: A — Two
   The correct answer is Two. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. It may be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, and only on the recommendation of the President. - Statement 2 is correct. The
10. Q53: Consider the following statements regarding starred and unstarred questions: i. The response to starred questions is provided orally. ii. The response to starred questions is given in written form. ii
    Answer: A — i, iv, and v only
    The correct answer is i, iv, and v only. Key Points - Starred questions are distinguished by an asterisk, and are answered orally on the floor of the House. Because the answer is oral, supplementary questions may be asked — so statements i
11. Q54: Which of the following are part of the Union List? i. Duties in respect of succession to property other than agricultural land ii. Corporation tax iii. Taxes on agricultural income iv. Taxes on income
    Answer: C — i, ii and iv only
    The correct answer is i, ii and iv only. Key Points - Checking each against the Seventh Schedule: Item, List, Entry; ---, ---, ---; Duties in respect of succession to property other than agricultural land (i), Union List, Entry 87; Corporat
12. Q55: Consider the following statements regarding the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution: i. It has special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in four northeastern states: Assam, Megha
    Answer: B — ii only
    The correct answer is ii only. Key Points - Statement i is incorrect. The Sixth Schedule applies to the tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram — not Manipur. Manipur's hill areas are administered under a different arrangement
13. Q56: Which of the following parliamentary committee is jointly elected by both houses of Parliament?
    Answer: C — Committee on Public Undertakings
    The correct answer is Committee on Public Undertakings. Key Points - The Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU) draws its members from both Houses — 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha, all elected by their respective Houses b
14. Q57: Consider the following functionaries: i. Chief Election Commissioner ii. Speaker of the Lok Sabha iii. Judges of the Supreme Court iv. Attorney General of India Their correct sequence in the order of
    Answer: A — ii, iii, i, iv
    The correct answer is ii, iii, i, iv. Key Points - The Table of Precedence places these four functionaries in this order: Order, Functionary, Rank in the Table; ---, ---, ---; 1, Speaker of the Lok Sabha (ii), Rank 6; 2, Judges of the Supre
15. Q58: Who among the following were members of the drafting committee of the Constituent Assembly? i. B. R. Ambedkar ii. Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar iii. K.M. Munshi iv. J.B. Kripalani Select the correct answe
    Answer: B — i, ii and iii only
    The correct answer is i, ii and iii only. Key Points - The Drafting Committee had seven members, and of those listed, B.R. Ambedkar (i), Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar (ii) and K.M. Munshi (iii) were among them. - J.B. Kripalani (iv) was not a m
16. Q59: With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, which of the following Statements is/are correct? i. He/She is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. ii. He/She holds of
    Answer: C — i and iii only
    The correct answer is i and iii only. Key Points - Statement i is correct. The CAG is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department, and exercises control over it. - Statement ii is incorrect. The CAG holds office for six years or un
17. Q60: Consider the following Committees: 1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee 2. Ashok Mehta Committee 3. L M Singhvi Committee 4. Santhanam Committee How many of the above Committees is/are related to the Pancha
    Answer: C — Only three
    The correct answer is Only three. Key Points - Three of the four committees listed relate directly to Panchayati Raj: - Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) — recommended democratic decentralisation, which came to be called Panchayati Raj, in
18. Q61: Which of the following expenditures are listed as the expenditure 'charged' upon the Consolidated Fund of India? i. Salaries and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha ii. Salaries and allowances
    Answer: A — i and ii only
    The correct answer is i and ii only. Key Points - Article 112(3) lists what is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Testing each item: - Statement i is correct. The salaries and allowances of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok
19. Q62: Who made this statement: "Because of circumstances that have now come into being that the States have become, where it is federal or unitary, welfare states from being Police States and the ultim
    Answer: D — T.T.Krishnamachari
    The correct answer is T.T. Krishnamachari. Key Points - The statement — that circumstances have turned the states from Police States into Welfare States, and that ultimate responsibility for the country's economic well-being has become the
20. Q63: With reference to Censure Motion, consider the following statements: i. It can be moved against an individual minister only ii. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers must resign f
    Answer: D — iii only
    The correct answer is iii only. Key Points - Statement i is incorrect. A Censure Motion may be moved against an individual minister, a group of ministers, or the entire Council of Ministers — not against an individual minister only. - State

Environment & Ecology — Solved Questions

1. Q31: Consider the following pairs: Ramsar Wetland State i. Bhoj Wetland 1. Gujarat, ii. Nalsarovar; 2. Uttar Pradesh, iii. Kanjali; 3. Madhya Pradesh, iv. Sandi Bird Sanctuary 4. Punjab Which of the follow
   Answer: B — i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
   The correct answer is i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2. Key Points - Matching each Ramsar site with its state: Wetland, State; ---, ---; Bhoj Wetland (i), Madhya Pradesh (3); Nalsarovar (ii), Gujarat (1); Kanjli (iii), Punjab (4); Sandi Bird Sanctuar
2. Q77: Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Invasive species can outcompete native species. Statement-II: Invasive species are always harmful to ecosystems. Which one of the following is correct i
   Answer: C — Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
   The correct answer is Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. Key Points - Statement-I is correct. Invasive alien species frequently outcompete native species for space, light, nutrients and water. Released from the predators
3. Q78: "Dendro climatology" deals with:
   Answer: B — Tree ring data
   The correct answer is Tree ring data. Key Points - Dendroclimatology is the study of past climate from tree rings. The name comes from the Greek dendron, meaning tree. - Each year a tree in a seasonal climate adds a growth ring. Ring width,
4. Q79: Arrange the following biodiversity conservation efforts in India in chronological order from earlier to later: i. Project Hangul ii. Project Elephant iii. Project Snow leopard iv. Project Tiger The co
   Answer: B — i, iv, ii, iii
   The correct answer is i, iv, ii, iii. Key Points - Arranging the conservation projects from earliest to latest: Order, Project, Year; ---, ---, ---; 1, Project Hangul (i), 1970; 2, Project Tiger (iv), 1973; 3, Project Elephant (ii), 1992; 4
5. Q80: Match the following Act with the year of their enactment: Act Year of enactment 1. Wildlife Protection Act i. 1974 2. Environment Protection Act ii. 1986 3. Biological Diversity Act iii. 2002 4. Water
   Answer: A — 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i
   The correct answer is 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i. Key Points - Matching each Act with its year of enactment: Act, Year; ---, ---; Wildlife (Protection) Act (1), 1972 (iv); Environment (Protection) Act (2), 1986 (ii); Biological Diversity Act (3
6. Q81: Which of the following missions cover the National Action Plan on Climatic Change (NAPCC)? i. National Solar Mission ii. National Mission for a Green India iii. National Green Hydrogen Mission iv. Nat
   Answer: A — i, ii and iv
   The correct answer is i, ii and iv. Key Points - Of the missions listed, three belong to the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC): - National Solar Mission (i) - National Mission for a Green India (ii) - National Mission on Sustai
7. Q82: Which of the following are UNESCO's natural world heritage sites in India? i. Kaziranga national park ii. Manas wildlife sanctuary iii. Rann of Kutch Wildlife Sanctuary iv. Western Ghats Select the co
   Answer: B — i, ii and iv
   The correct answer is i, ii and iv. Key Points - Three of the four listed are UNESCO Natural World Heritage Sites in India: - Kaziranga National Park (i) — inscribed 1985, Assam - Manas Wildlife Sanctuary (ii) — inscribed 1985, Assam - West
8. Q83: Consider the following statements: Statement 1: The extinction of a keystone species can lead to ecosystem collapse. Statement 2: Climate change is solely a future concern and has no current effects.
   Answer: A — 1 and 3 only
   The correct answer is 1 and 3 only. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The extinction of a keystone species can lead to ecosystem collapse. A keystone species exerts an influence on community structure far out of proportion to its abundan
9. Q84: Consider the following statements: Statement 1: Climate change is influenced by both natural and anthropogenic factors. Statement 2: The Amazon rainforest is often referred to as the "lungs of th
   Answer: D — 1, 2, and 4.
   The correct answer is 1, 2, and 4. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. Climate change is driven by both natural and anthropogenic factors — natural forcings include solar variability, volcanic eruptions and orbital (Milankovitch) cycles, w
10. Q85: Consider the following statements: Statement I: Organisms that can tolerate and survive in a wide range of temperatures are called stenothermal. Statement II: Generally, humans are considered stenothe
    Answer: D — Neither statement I nor Statement II are correct
    The correct answer is Neither statement I nor Statement II are correct. Key Points - Statement I is incorrect because it reverses the definition. Organisms that tolerate a wide range of temperatures are eurythermal. Stenothermal organisms t
11. Q86: Consider the following statements regarding the eutrophication of the lake: i. It is an anthropogenic process and does not occur naturally. ii. Nitrate and phosphate are the main contaminants for eutr
    Answer: B — ii only
    The correct answer is ii only. Key Points - Statement i is incorrect. Eutrophication is not exclusively anthropogenic. Natural eutrophication is the slow ageing of a lake over centuries or millennia, as nutrients and sediment accumulate and
12. Q87: Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Carbon dioxide, Methane and Nitrous oxide are considered greenhouse gases. Reason (R): Greenhouse gas absorbs short-wave radiation from the sun and is
    Answer: C — A is correct, but R is NOT correct
    The correct answer is A is correct, but R is NOT correct. Key Points - The Assertion is correct. Carbon dioxide, methane and nitrous oxide are indeed greenhouse gases. - The Reason is incorrect, and it states the mechanism backwards. Greenh
13. Q88: Consider the following statements regarding the productivity of an ecosystem: i. Gross primary productivity is the rate of formation of organic matter by consumers. ii. Net primary productivity is the
    Answer: B — ii only
    The correct answer is ii only. Key Points - Statement i is incorrect. Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) is the rate of production of organic matter by producers (autotrophs) during photosynthesis — not by consumers. Consumers do not fix ener

Geography — Solved Questions

1. Q32: Consider the following Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs): i. Jarawa ii. Sentinelese iii. Onge iv. Shom Pen v. Chenchu vi. Great Andamanies How many of the above mentioned PVTGs belong to A
   Answer: C — Only five
   The correct answer is Only five. Key Points - Of the six groups listed, five belong to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands: - Jarawa — western coasts of South and Middle Andaman. - Sentinelese — North Sentinel Island; the most isolated of all,
2. Q33: Consider the following pairs: Cyclone Affected country/region 1. Yagi Indonesia 2. Beryl Caribbean 3. Mal Fiji 4. Kevin USA Which of the above given pairs is/are correctly matched?
   Answer: D — 2 and 3 only
   The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. Key Points - Checking each pair: Cyclone, Pair given, Correct?; ---, ---, ---; Yagi, Indonesia, Incorrect — it struck the Philippines, Hainan (China) and Vietnam in September 2024; Beryl, Caribbean, Corre
3. Q34: Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reasons(R): (A) Near the equator, the warm rising air that releases latent heat during the formation of cumulus towers is believed to provide the energy that d
   Answer: C — Assertion (A) is correct and Reasons (R)(1) and (R)(2) are correct explanations of (A).
   The correct answer is Assertion (A) is correct and Reasons (R)(1) and (R)(2) are correct explanations of (A). Key Points - The Assertion is correct. Near the equator, intense solar heating drives convection. As moist air rises and condenses
4. Q35: Consider the following distribution of the climate diagram and identify the correct match: i. Tropical savannah ii. Mediterranean climate iii. Cold desert iv. Hot desert climate How many climates give
   Answer: B — Only two climates
   The correct answer is Only two climates. Key Points - The question presents a map of climatic distributions and asks how many of the four labels sit on the right region. As marked, only two of the four are correctly placed. - The four clima
5. Q36: Consider the following statements: i. Almost all popular commercial varieties of silk are produced in India ii. Karnataka is the leading silk producing state of India iii. Tamilnadu is the leading sil
   Answer: D — i, ii and iv
   The correct answer is i, ii and iv. Key Points - Statement i is correct. India is the only country that produces all four commercially traded varieties of natural silk — mulberry, eri, tasar (including the tropical and temperate kinds) and
6. Q38: Which of the following states of India share international border with Myanmar? i. Tripura ii. Mizoram iii. Manipur iv. Nagaland Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   Answer: C — ii, iii and iv only
   The correct answer is ii, iii and iv only. Key Points - Four Indian states share a border with Myanmar: Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram. - Of those listed, Mizoram (ii), Manipur (iii) and Nagaland (iv) qualify. Arunachal Pr
7. Q39: Consider the following pairs: 1. Deception Island - Australia 2. Kilauea Volcano - United States of America 3. Shiveluch volcano - Norway 4. Ibu volcano - Indonesia Which of the following is correct w
   Answer: A — Only 2 and 4 are correctly matched
   The correct answer is Only 2 and 4 are correctly matched. Key Points - Checking each pair: Volcano, Pair given, Actual location; ---, ---, ---; Deception Island, Australia, Antarctica — in the South Shetland Islands. Incorrect; Kilauea, USA
8. Q40: Arrange the following countries in increasing order of rubber production: i. Philippines ii. Indonesia iii. Vietnam iv. Cameroon Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   Answer: A — iv, i, iii, ii
   The correct answer is iv, i, iii, ii. Key Points - Arranging by natural rubber production, increasing order: Order, Country, Position worldwide; ---, ---, ---; 1 (lowest), Cameroon (iv), a minor African producer; 2, Philippines (i), roughly
9. Q41: Consider the following pairs: Theory Proponent 1. Glacial Control theory, i. Daly; 2. Equilibrium theory, ii. Murray; 3. Subsidence theory, iii. Newton; 4. Standstill Theory, iv. Darwin The correct ma
   Answer: D — 1-i, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-ii
   The correct answer is 1-i, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-ii. Key Points - Matching each theory of coral reef formation with its proponent: Theory, Proponent; ---, ---; Glacial Control theory (1), Daly (i); Equilibrium theory (2), Newton (iii); Subsidence
10. Q42: Karewa formations are found in:
    Answer: C — Kashmir valley
    The correct answer is Kashmir valley. Key Points - Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay, silt, sand and lacustrine sediment found in the Kashmir valley, and on the flanks of the Pir Panjal range. - They were laid down in a Pleisto
11. Q43: Consider the following statements: i. Tectonic plates include the crust and the uppermost mantle of the solid earth ii. Tectonic plates are rigid, solid layers about 100 km thick iii. Tectonic plates
    Answer: A — i, and ii
    The correct answer is i, and ii. Key Points - Statement i is correct. A tectonic plate is a slab of the lithosphere, which comprises the crust together with the uppermost, rigid part of the mantle. - Statement ii is correct. Plates are rigi
12. Q44: The eastern most longitude of India is .
    Answer: B — 97° 25' E
    The correct answer is 97° 25' E. Key Points - India's easternmost longitude is 97° 25' E, at Kibithu in Arunachal Pradesh, in the Anjaw district near the Myanmar border. - The mainland's full extent: Extremity, Coordinate, Location; ---, --

Frequently Asked Questions

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The JKCCE Prelims 2024 — General Studies Paper I has 100 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

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