SSC CGL 2024 Tier I — 26 Sep 2024 (Shift 2) — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

General Intelligence & Reasoning — Solved Questions

1. Q1: Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series. ABCFGJKMOPQTUVY
   Answer: D — EHLRW
   The correct answer is EHLRW. Key Points - Write out A to Y and drop every 5th letter — D, I, N, S, X are removed, which is exactly the given series with gaps. - The blanks therefore hold the letters that sit just after each removed one: E,
2. Q2: In a certain code language, 'FUTURE' is written as 'IXWXUH' and 'ISLAND' is written as 'LVODQG'. How will 'JERSEY' be written in that language?
   Answer: C — MHUVHB
   The correct answer is MHUVHB. Key Points - Each letter of the word is shifted forward by +3 (F→I, U→X, T→W …), which reproduces both given codes. - Applying +3 to JERSEY: J→M, E→H, R→U, S→V, E→H, Y→B. - Hence JERSEY becomes MHUVHB. Addition
3. Q3: Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically follow(s). S
   Answer: C — Both the conclusions (I) and (II) follow
   The correct answer is Both the conclusions (I) and (II) follow. Key Points - 'All Grapes are Berries' converts to 'Some Berries are Grapes' — so (I) follows. - 'Some Berries are Juices' + 'All Juices are Sodas' gives 'Some Berries are Sodas
4. Q4: Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed). [Refer to the figure.]
   Answer: C — Option 3
   The correct answer is Option 3. Key Points - The figure X must appear as an exact, un-rotated part of the correct option. - Only option 3 contains the given figure in the same orientation; the others match only after rotation, which is not
5. Q5: Each of the letters in the word 'DARKEN' is arranged in the English alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the letter which is second from the left e
   Answer: C — Six
   The correct answer is Six. Key Points - DARKEN in alphabetical order is A D E K N R. - Second from the left = D; third from the right = K. - Letters between D and K (E, F, G, H, I, J) = 6. Additional Information - Two operations are being t
6. Q6: A sheet of paper is folded along the dotted line successively along the directions shown and is then punched at the last step. How would this paper look when unfolded? [Refer to the figure.]
   Answer: B — Option 2
   The correct answer is Option 2. Key Points - Unfolding reverses each fold, and every punched hole is mirrored across each fold line it passes back through. - Reflecting the single punch back through the successive folds reproduces the hole
7. Q7: How many triangles are there in the figure given below? [Refer to the figure.]
   Answer: B — 10
   The correct answer is 10. Key Points - Count the smallest triangles first, then the larger triangles formed by combining them. - Adding the simple and composite triangles gives a total of 10. Additional Information - Count triangles by size
8. Q8: Six numbers 5, 3, 6, 7, 9 and 2 are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure below. Find the number on the face opposite to the one having 5. [Refer to
   Answer: A — 2
   The correct answer is 2. Key Points - The face '3' is common to both positions; using it as the fixed reference, one view is a rotation of the other. - Tracking the faces around '3' shows that 5 and 2 end up on opposite faces. - Hence the f
9. Q9: 'Conceal' is related to 'Disclose' in the same way as 'Identical' is related to '..........'. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related based on the number of l
   Answer: C — Distinct
   The correct answer is Distinct. Key Points - The relationship is antonym: 'Conceal' is the opposite of 'Disclose'. - The opposite of 'Identical' is Distinct (the other options are synonyms of identical). Additional Information - State the r
10. Q10: Select the number that will come in the place of the question mark (?), if '+' and '−' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged. 11 ÷ 8 − 78 × 6 + 37 = ?
    Answer: B — 64
    The correct answer is 64. Key Points - Swap the signs: ÷→×, −→+, ×→÷, +→−. The expression becomes 11 × 8 + 78 ÷ 6 − 37. - Apply BODMAS: 88 + 13 − 37. - = 64. Additional Information - Symbol-interchange questions have a fixed order: swap the
11. Q11: Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (Operations must be on the whole numbers, without breaking the digits.) 3 — 20 — 5 4 — 17 — 3
    Answer: C — 9 — 77 — 8
    The correct answer is 9 — 77 — 8. Key Points - The pattern is: (first × third) + 5 = middle. Check: 3×5+5 = 20; 4×3+5 = 17. - Option 3: 9 × 8 + 5 = 77, which matches. Additional Information - Number-set analogies are solved by testing a can
12. Q12: Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (Operations must be on the whole numbers, without breaking the digits.) (16, 7, 112) (8, 12, 9
    Answer: D — (15, 8, 120)
    The correct answer is (15, 8, 120). Key Points - The pattern is first × second = third: 16×7 = 112; 8×12 = 96. - Option 4: 15 × 8 = 120, which matches. Additional Information - The simplest relation that reproduces every given set is the ri
13. Q13: Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series is to be continued? [Refer to the figure.]
    Answer: B — Option 2
    The correct answer is Option 2. Key Points - Track how the letters/elements shift position from one figure to the next in the series. - Continuing that movement one more step produces the arrangement shown in option 2. Additional Informatio
14. Q14: In a certain code language: 'A + B' means 'A is the mother of B'; 'A − B' means 'A is the brother of B'; 'A × B' means 'A is the wife of B'; and 'A ÷ B' means 'A is the father of B'. Based on the abov
    Answer: B — Father's brother
    The correct answer is Father's brother. Key Points - Decode left to right: R × I → R is the wife of I (so I is male). I − T → I is the brother of T. T ÷ H → T is the father of H. - So T is H's father, and I is T's brother. - Therefore I is
15. Q15: Identify the figure given in the options which, when put in place of the question mark (?), will logically complete the series. [Refer to the figure.]
    Answer: A — Option 1
    The correct answer is Option 1. Key Points - Following the series, the enclosed element rotates by a fixed 45° step from one figure to the next. - Applying one more 45° rotation gives the figure in option 1. Additional Information - For a r
16. Q16: Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the letter-cluster that is different. (The odd one out is not based on the number of cons
    Answer: B — ORTU
    The correct answer is ORTU. Key Points - In three clusters the gaps between consecutive letters are +2, +3, +5: P(+2)R(+3)U(+5)Z, M(+2)O(+3)R(+5)W, X(+2)Z(+3)C(+5)H. - ORTU has gaps +3, +2, +1, which breaks the pattern. - Hence ORTU is the
17. Q17: The second number in each number pair is obtained by performing certain operation(s) on the first number, and the same operation(s) apply to all pairs except one. Find that odd number pair. (Operation
    Answer: A — 34 : 44
    The correct answer is 34 : 44. Key Points - In three pairs the second number is the next perfect square at or above the first: 23→25 (5²), 35→36 (6²), 13→16 (4²). - For 34 the next perfect square is 36, not 44, so 34 : 44 does not fit. Addi
18. Q18: Two different positions of the same dice with faces Z, G, M, F, H and S are shown below. Select the letter that will be on the face opposite to the one having G. [Refer to the figure.]
    Answer: B — F
    The correct answer is F. Key Points - The face 'Z' is common to both positions; taking it as fixed, the second view is a rotation of the first. - Tracking the remaining faces shows G and F land on opposite faces. - Hence the face opposite G
19. Q19: In each set the operations on the first number give the second, on the second give the third, and so on. Which option follows the same set of operations as the given sets? 48 – 50 – 46 – 52; 37 – 39 –
    Answer: A — 26 – 28 – 24 – 30
    The correct answer is 26 – 28 – 24 – 30. Key Points - The step pattern is +2, −4, +6: 48→50→46→52 and 37→39→35→41. - Applying it to 26: 26(+2)28(−4)24(+6)30, which matches option 1. Additional Information - Write the differences between con
20. Q20: Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 176, 167, 156, 147, 136, ?
    Answer: C — 127
    The correct answer is 127. Key Points - The differences alternate −9 and −11: 176(−9)167(−11)156(−9)147(−11)136. - The next step is −9, so 136 − 9 = 127. Additional Information - Alternating differences are the most common SSC number-series
21. Q21: Which of the four options will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? FX32, EV38, DT44, CR50, ?
    Answer: A — BP56
    The correct answer is BP56. Key Points - First letter decreases by 1 (F→E→D→C→B); second letter decreases by 2 (X→V→T→R→P); the number increases by 6 (32→38→44→50→56). - Hence the next term is BP56. Additional Information - Mixed letter-num
22. Q22: What will come in the place of '?' in the following equation, if '÷' and '−' are interchanged and '×' and '+' are interchanged? 7 + 4 ÷ 18 − 3 × 2 = ?
    Answer: C — 24
    The correct answer is 24. Key Points - Swap the signs: ÷→−, −→÷, ×→+, +→×. The expression becomes 7 × 4 − 18 ÷ 3 + 2. - Apply BODMAS: 28 − 6 + 2 = 24. Additional Information - As with every symbol-interchange item, swap first and evaluate s
23. Q23: Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? QGMW, VCPU, AYSS, ?, KQYO
    Answer: A — FUVQ
    The correct answer is FUVQ. Key Points - Column 1: +5 each (Q→V→A→F→K). Column 2: −4 each (G→C→Y→U→Q). - Column 3: +3 each (M→P→S→V→Y). Column 4: −2 each (W→U→S→Q→O). - The missing term is FUVQ. Additional Information - For four-letter seri
24. Q24: In a certain code language, 'D' is coded as '16', 'B' is coded as '4' and 'T' is coded as '400'. How will 'H' be coded in the same language?
    Answer: B — 64
    The correct answer is 64. Key Points - Each letter is coded as the square of its position in the alphabet: D=4→4²=16, B=2→2²=4, T=20→20²=400. - H is the 8th letter, so 8² = 64. Additional Information - Letter-to-number codes almost always r
25. Q25: In a certain code language, 'bright colour rainbow' is coded as 'mq bj st' and 'sunny bright day' is coded as 'nv bj fm'. How is 'bright' coded in that language?
    Answer: D — bj
    The correct answer is bj. Key Points - The word common to both phrases is 'bright', and the code common to both is 'bj'. - Therefore 'bright' is coded as bj. Additional Information - Sentence-substitution codes are solved by intersection: t

General Awareness — Solved Questions

1. Q26: At the 36th National Games, Hashika Ramchandra won six gold medals in which of the following sports?
   Answer: A — Swimming
   The correct answer is Swimming. Key Points - Karnataka swimmer Hashika Ramchandra won six gold medals in swimming at the 36th National Games (Goa, 2023). - She was also adjudged the best female athlete of the Games. Additional Information -
2. Q27: Which state in India was the most transformed by the Green Revolution?
   Answer: C — Punjab
   The correct answer is Punjab. Key Points - The Green Revolution of the 1960s brought high-yielding seeds, fertilisers and irrigation that most dramatically transformed Punjab, sharply raising its wheat and rice output. - Punjab became a lea
3. Q28: Which of the following ports was developed as a satellite port to relieve the pressure at the Mumbai port?
   Answer: D — Jawaharlal Nehru Port
   The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru Port. Key Points - Jawaharlal Nehru Port (JNPT) at Nhava Sheva, Navi Mumbai, was commissioned in 1989 as a satellite port to ease container congestion at Mumbai Port. - It is now among India's largest
4. Q29: Who among the following was the shortest-serving Prime Minister of India?
   Answer: B — Gulzarilal Nanda
   The correct answer is Gulzarilal Nanda. Key Points - Gulzarilal Nanda served as acting PM twice (after Nehru in 1964 and Shastri in 1966), each time for only about 13 days. - These brief stints make him the shortest-serving Prime Minister o
5. Q30: In the context of the Mathura school of Art, during which of the following periods were a number of sculptures of Brahmanical deities, such as Kartikeya, Vishnu and Kubera, carved?
   Answer: D — Kushana
   The correct answer is Kushana. Key Points - The Mathura school of art flourished under the Kushanas (c. 1st–3rd century CE), using local red sandstone. - Numerous sculptures of Brahmanical deities like Kartikeya, Vishnu and Kubera were carv
6. Q31: In which of the following situations does the government run a deficit budget?
   Answer: D — When the government expenditure exceeds revenue.
   The correct answer is When the government expenditure exceeds revenue. Key Points - A deficit budget occurs when planned expenditure is greater than expected revenue, so the government must borrow to cover the gap. - Revenue exceeding expen
7. Q32: Tsang Po and Jamuna are other names of which river?
   Answer: D — Brahmaputra
   The correct answer is Brahmaputra. Key Points - The Brahmaputra is called Tsang Po in Tibet and Jamuna (Jamuna) in Bangladesh. - It flows through China, India and Bangladesh before joining the Ganga delta. Additional Information - The Brahm
8. Q33: Which of the following groups/parties was started in San Francisco, United States of America, during the Indian National Movement?
   Answer: B — Ghadar Party
   The correct answer is Ghadar Party. Key Points - The Ghadar Party was founded in 1913 by Indian immigrants in San Francisco, USA (Lala Hardayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna and others). - It aimed to overthrow British rule through armed revolution,
9. Q34: Which of the following organisations is NOT a winner of the 100,000 cash prize as 'Best Small Business: Good Food for All', announced by the United Nations for improving access to healthy and sustaina
   Answer: D — Patanjali
   The correct answer is Patanjali. Key Points - Edible Routes, Oorja Development Solutions and Taru Naturals were recognised under the UN 'Best Small Business: Good Food for All' award. - Patanjali was not among the winners of this prize. Add
10. Q35: 'Castling' is related to which of the following sports?
    Answer: A — Chess
    The correct answer is Chess. Key Points - Castling is a special move in chess involving the king and a rook — the only move that shifts two pieces at once. - It improves the king's safety while developing the rook. Additional Information -
11. Q36: What is the cost of the 'Nand Baba Milk Mission' scheme launched by the Uttar Pradesh state government in 2023 to help milk producers sell milk at a reasonable price in villages through dairy co-opera
    Answer: D — ₹1,000 crore
    The correct answer is ₹1,000 crore. Key Points - The Nand Baba Milk Mission (Uttar Pradesh, 2023) was launched with an outlay of ₹1,000 crore. - It strengthens village dairy co-operatives so producers get fair milk prices. Additional Inform
12. Q37: In the context of a vernier calliper, an internal jaw is used to measure:
    Answer: D — the internal diameter of a hollow cylinder and pipes
    The correct answer is the internal diameter of a hollow cylinder and pipes. Key Points - The internal (upper) jaws of a vernier calliper measure inside dimensions such as the internal diameter of hollow cylinders and pipes. - The external j
13. Q38: Match the terms in Column A with their respective properties in Column B. Column-A: i. Glucose, ii. Yeast, iii. Glycolysis, iv. Pyruvic acid. Column-B: a. Intermediate substance in breakdown of glucos
    Answer: A — i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
    The correct answer is i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a. Key Points - Glucose – best organic substrate for respiration (d). - Yeast – uses nutrients for the fermentation process (c). - Glycolysis – glucose is converted into pyruvic acid (b). - Pyruvic
14. Q39: If a bar magnet is hung from a string, in which direction does its north pole point?
    Answer: A — North
    The correct answer is North. Key Points - A freely suspended bar magnet aligns with the Earth's magnetic field, so its north pole points towards the geographic north. - This directional property is the basis of the magnetic compass. Additio
15. Q40: Match the points under Column A with those under Column B. Column-A: i. Hexapoda, ii. Crustacea, iii. Myriapoda, iv. Chelicerata. Column-B: a. Daphnia, b. Mosquito, c. Limulus, d. Julus.
    Answer: A — i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c. Key Points - Hexapoda – Mosquito (b); Crustacea – Daphnia (a). - Myriapoda – Julus (d); Chelicerata – Limulus (c, the horseshoe crab). Additional Information - The four arthropod classes to keep
16. Q41: Fugdi dance is associated with which of the following states?
    Answer: B — Goa
    The correct answer is Goa. Key Points - Fugdi is a traditional folk dance of Goa (also parts of the Konkan/Maharashtra), performed by women during festivals. - It features rhythmic clapping and circular movements. Additional Information - F
17. Q42: The concept of 'Independence of judiciary' in the Indian Constitution is taken from the Constitution of:
    Answer: D — The USA
    The correct answer is The USA. Key Points - The independence of the judiciary (and judicial review) in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the US Constitution. - It keeps the judiciary free from executive and legislative control. Addit
18. Q43: Umayalpuram K Sivaraman is an eminent musician associated with which of the following musical instruments?
    Answer: C — Mridangam
    The correct answer is Mridangam. Key Points - Umayalpuram K. Sivaraman is a legendary exponent of the mridangam, the principal percussion instrument of Carnatic music. - He is a Padma Vibhushan awardee. Additional Information - The mridanga
19. Q44: Rottela Panduga or the Roti Festival is celebrated in which Indian state?
    Answer: B — Andhra Pradesh
    The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh. Key Points - Rottela Panduga (the Roti Festival) is celebrated at Nellore in Andhra Pradesh. - Devotees exchange rotis believed to bring good fortune. Additional Information - Rottela Panduga is held at
20. Q45: Belur Math was founded by which of the following social reformers in British India?
    Answer: B — Swami Vivekanand
    The correct answer is Swami Vivekanand. Key Points - Belur Math, near Kolkata, was founded by Swami Vivekananda in 1897. - It is the headquarters of the Ramakrishna Math and Ramakrishna Mission. Additional Information - Belur Math on the we
21. Q46: Which of the following parts of the mountain will receive the most rainfall from moisture-laden winds?
    Answer: D — Windward side
    The correct answer is Windward side. Key Points - The windward side faces the moisture-laden winds; the air is forced up, cools and condenses, giving heavy orographic rainfall. - The leeward side lies in the rain shadow and stays dry. Addit
22. Q47: Which singer from Assam was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2019?
    Answer: D — Bhupen Hazarika
    The correct answer is Bhupen Hazarika. Key Points - The legendary Assamese singer-composer Bhupen Hazarika was awarded the Bharat Ratna posthumously in 2019. - He is celebrated for songs on humanity and social justice. Additional Informatio
23. Q48: Medini Rai of Chanderi, Hasan Khan of Mewat and Mahmud Lodi joined Rana Sanga with their forces to fight against which of the following Mughal rulers?
    Answer: C — Babur
    The correct answer is Babur. Key Points - Rana Sanga, joined by Medini Rai, Hasan Khan of Mewat and Mahmud Lodi, fought Babur at the Battle of Khanwa (1527). - Babur won, consolidating Mughal power in North India after Panipat (1526). Addit
24. Q49: Which writ is issued by a high court or supreme court when a lower court has considered a case going beyond its jurisdiction?
    Answer: D — Prohibition
    The correct answer is Prohibition. Key Points - The writ of Prohibition is issued by a higher court to stop a lower court or tribunal from proceeding in a matter beyond its jurisdiction (issued while the case is pending). - Certiorari, by c
25. Q50: As per the UNDP, the rank of Sri Lanka in the Human Development Index (2022) is:
    Answer: D — 73/189
    The correct answer is 73/189. Key Points - In the UNDP Human Development Report (2022 data), Sri Lanka ranked 73rd out of 189 with an HDI of about 0.782 (High Human Development). Additional Information - The HDI, devised by Mahbub ul Haq an

Quantitative Aptitude — Solved Questions

1. Q51: If 8cotθ = 7, then the value of 1+sinθ/cosθ is:
   Answer: D — 8+√113/7
   The correct answer is 8+√113/7. Key Points - cotθ=7/8θ=√1+cot^2θ=√113/8, so sinθ=8/√113 and cosθ=cotθsinθ=7/√113. - 1+sinθ/cosθ=1+8/√1137/√113=√113+8/7. Additional Information - The identity to carry into the exam is 1 + cot²θ = cosec²θ, wh
2. Q52: The table below shows the distribution of employees in four companies in 2022. Find the total number of male employees working in company D in 2022. Company, Zones, Avg employees per zone, Male : Fema
   Answer: D — 6250
   The correct answer is 6250. Key Points - Total employees in D = 25×450 = 11250. - Male share =5/5+4=5/9, so males =5/9×11250 = 6250. Additional Information - Table questions of this shape are two steps: recover the total from zones × averag
3. Q53: The side BC of ABC is produced to a point D. If AC = BC and BAC = 70^, then find the value of 2.5\, ACD - 1.5\, ABC.
   Answer: B — 245^
   The correct answer is 245^. Key Points - Since AC=BC, the triangle is isosceles and ABC= BAC=70^. - Exterior angle ACD= BAC+ ABC=70^+70^=140^. - 2.5(140^)-1.5(70^)=350^-105^=245^. Additional Information - Two standard results combine here:
4. Q54: The marked price of an electronic watch in a store is ₹15,620 and it is available at a discount of 27%. What is the price (in ₹, to the nearest tens) that a customer pays?
   Answer: A — 11,400
   The correct answer is ₹11,400. Key Points - Price paid =15620×(1-0.27)=15620×0.73=11402.6. - Rounded to the nearest tens = ₹11,400. Additional Information - A discount of d% means paying (100 − d)% of the marked price, so a single multiplic
5. Q55: The five-digit number 45yz0 is divisible by 40. What is the maximum possible value of (y+z)?
   Answer: A — 16
   The correct answer is 16. Key Points - 45yz0 ends in 0, so it is already divisible by 10; for divisibility by 40 the number ÷10 = 45yz must be divisible by 4, i.e. yz divisible by 4. - To maximise y+z, take yz=88 (divisible by 4): y+z=8+8=1
6. Q56: If x=√6+2 and y=√6-2, then what is the value of (x/y+y/x)^2-3?
   Answer: D — 97
   The correct answer is 97. Key Points - x^2+y^2=(6+2)^2+(6-2)^2=(10+46)+(10-46)=20 and xy=(6)^2-2^2=6-4=2. - x/y+y/x=x^2+y^2/xy=20/2=10. - Required value =10^2-3=97. Additional Information - The expression x/y + y/x is always (x² + y²)/xy, s
7. Q57: The bar graph shows the number of deaths in cities 1, 2, 3 and 4 across several months. The average number of deaths that occurred during April across all the cities (rounded off to the next integer)
   Answer: D — 934
   The correct answer is 934. Key Points - April deaths: 860+765+960+1148 = 3733. - Average =3733/4=933.25 934 (rounded to the next integer). Additional Information - Bar-graph averages test careful reading more than arithmetic: take the value
8. Q58: If a:b=c:d=e:f=5:7, then what is the ratio (3a+5c+11e):(3b+5d+11f)?
   Answer: D — 5 : 7
   The correct answer is 5 : 7. Key Points - When several ratios are equal (a/b=c/d=e/f=5/7), any weighted combination of numerators over the same combination of denominators keeps the ratio. - So (3a+5c+11e):(3b+5d+11f)=5:7. Additional Inform
9. Q59: Varun and Raju, working together, can complete a job in 40 hours, whereas Varun alone can complete the same job in 50 hours. The number of hours required by Raju to complete the job alone is:
   Answer: C — 200
   The correct answer is 200. Key Points - Raju's one-hour work =1/40-1/50=5-4/200=1/200. - So Raju alone takes 200 hours. Additional Information - Work problems are solved in rates per unit time, which add: 1/40 for the pair, 1/50 for Varun,
10. Q60: What principal would amount to ₹21,420 in 2 years at the rate of 9.5% p.a. simple interest?
    Answer: D — ₹18,000
    The correct answer is ₹18,000. Key Points - Amount =P(1+RT/100)=P(1+9.5×2/100)=P·119/100. - 21420=119P/100 P=21420×100/119=18000. Additional Information - For simple interest the amount is A = P(1 + RT/100), so the principal is recovered by
11. Q61: Raman fixes the sale price of his goods at 16% above the cost price. He sells his goods at 12% less than the fixed price. Find the profit percentage correct to two decimal places.
    Answer: B — 2.08%
    The correct answer is 2.08%. Key Points - Take CP =₹100. Fixed price =100×1.16=₹116. - Selling price =116×0.88=₹102.08, so profit =2.08 on 100. - Profit percentage =2.08\%. Additional Information - Percentage-on-percentage questions are qui
12. Q62: If 2a-b=3 and 8a^3-b^3=999, then find the value of 4a^2-b^2.
    Answer: D — 63
    The correct answer is 63. Key Points - (2a-b)^3=8a^3-b^3-6ab(2a-b) 27=999-6ab(3) ab=54. - (2a+b)^2=(2a-b)^2+8ab=9+8(54)=441 2a+b=21. - 4a^2-b^2=(2a+b)(2a-b)=21×3=63. Additional Information - The identity in play is (a − b)³ = a³ − b³ − 3ab(
13. Q63: If the radius and height of a right circular cylinder are 21 cm and 5 cm respectively, then the total surface area of the cylinder is (use π=22/7):
    Answer: A — 3432 cm²
    The correct answer is 3432 cm². Key Points - Total surface area =2π r(r+h)=2×22/7×21×(21+5). - =2×22×3×26=3432 cm². Additional Information - For a right circular cylinder: curved surface area = 2πrh, total surface area = 2πr(r + h) and volu
14. Q64: If p=sin A/1+cos A, then sin A/1-cos A is equal to:
    Answer: B — 1/p
    The correct answer is 1/p. Key Points - Multiply numerator and denominator of sin A/1-cos A by (1+cos A): sin A(1+cos A)/1-cos^2 A=sin A(1+cos A)/sin^2 A=1+cos A/sin A. - This is the reciprocal of p=sin A/1+cos A, so the value is 1/p. Addit
15. Q65: A thief takes off on his bike at a certain speed after seeing a police car at a distance of 250 m. The police car starts chasing and catches him. If the thief runs 1.5 km before being caught and the s
    Answer: D — 60
    The correct answer is 60. Key Points - In the same time, the police car covers 1.5 km+250 m=1.75 km while the thief covers 1.5 km. - Equal time: 1.75/70=1.5/v v=1.5×70/1.75=60 km/h. Additional Information - Chase problems are solved on equa
16. Q66: The company has issued 10 lakh shares between its five partners as shown. If Jeevan offers to sell 20,000 of his shares to Meera, how many shares will Meera have? Partner, Percentage of shares; ---, -
    Answer: C — 4,70,000
    The correct answer is 4,70,000. Key Points - Meera's shares =45\% of 10,00,000=4,50,000. - After buying 20,000 from Jeevan: 4,50,000+20,000=4,70,000. Additional Information - Two steps, in order: convert the percentage to a share of the tot
17. Q67: The sum of two consecutive even numbers is 174. Find the smaller number.
    Answer: A — 86
    The correct answer is 86. Key Points - Let the numbers be x and x+2: x+(x+2)=174 2x=172 x=86. - The smaller number is 86 (and the other is 88). Additional Information - Consecutive even (or odd) numbers differ by 2, so they are written x an
18. Q68: The central angle of a sector is 80^ and its arc length is 96π. What is the radius of the circle?
    Answer: B — 216 units
    The correct answer is 216 units. Key Points - Arc length =θ/360×2π r, so 96π=80/360×2π r. - 96=4/9r r=96×9/4=216 units. Additional Information - The sector formulae: arc length = (θ/360) × 2πr and sector area = (θ/360) × πr². - 80/360 simpl
19. Q69: Simplify the following expression. (60 + 64 ÷ 4 of 4) × \1000 ÷ ((10 of (3 + 2)) × 2 of 5)\ - 28 + (100 × 3 of 3)
    Answer: A — 1000
    The correct answer is 1000. Key Points - 'of' is done first: 64÷(4 of 4)=64÷16=4, so the first bracket =60+4=64. - Middle: 10 of (3+2)=50, 2 of 5=10, so 1000÷(50×10)=1000÷500=2; and 100×(3 of 3)=900. - 64×2-28+900=128-28+900=1000.
20. Q70: In ABC, DE BC and 5\,AE=3\,EC. If AB=6.4 units, then the value of DB (in units) is:
    Answer: C — 4
    The correct answer is 4. Key Points - 5\,AE=3\,EC/EC=3/5. By the Basic Proportionality Theorem, AD/DB=AE/EC=3/5. - So DB/AB=5/8 DB=5/8×6.4=4 units.
21. Q71: In a circle with centre O, an arc ABC subtends an angle of 138^ at the centre. The chord AB is produced to a point P. Then the measure of CBP is:
    Answer: C — 69^
    The correct answer is 69^. Key Points - Angle at the centre =138^, so the inscribed angle ABC=138^/2=69^ on the remaining arc. - Since AB is produced to P, CBP is the exterior angle of the cyclic figure and equals the inscribed angle =69^.
22. Q72: The bar graph shows the turnover of five companies (in crores). What is the difference between the average sales turnover of all the companies put together between the years 2018-2019 and 2019-2020? [
    Answer: B — ₹5 crore
    The correct answer is ₹5 crore. Key Points - Average for 2018-19 =250+350+275+200+400/5=1475/5=295. - Average for 2019-20 =300+250+300+300+350/5=1500/5=300. - Difference =300-295=₹5 crore.
23. Q73: Suresh's expenditure and savings are in the ratio of 3 : 1. His income increases by 25%. If his savings increase by 20%, then by how much percentage does his expenditure increase?
    Answer: A — 2623\%
    The correct answer is 2623\%. Key Points - Let expenditure =3x, savings =x, income =4x. New income =4x×1.25=5x; new savings =x×1.2=1.2x. - New expenditure =5x-1.2x=3.8x; increase =0.8x. - Percentage increase =0.8x/3x×100=80/3=2623\%.
24. Q74: Half a litre of a solution contains 15% alcohol. To change the alcohol concentration to 50%, find the quantity of alcohol to be mixed.
    Answer: B — 350 ml
    The correct answer is 350 ml. Key Points - 500 ml contains 15\% alcohol =75 ml. Let x ml of alcohol be added. - 75+x/500+x=50/100 150+2x=500+x x=350 ml.
25. Q75: In a ABC, right angled at B, if tan C=√3, then find sin^2 C+cos^2 C/1+cot^2 C.
    Answer: B — 3/4
    The correct answer is 3/4. Key Points - tan C=3 C=60^. - Numerator sin^2C+cos^2C=1; denominator 1+cot^2C=csc^2C=1/sin^2C. - So the value =sin^2C=sin^2 60^=3/4.

English Comprehension — Solved Questions

1. Q76: Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
   Answer: D — Atrocios
   The correct answer is Atrocios. Key Points - The correct spelling is atrocious (meaning horrifyingly wicked/brutal). - Accessibility, Apparatus and Aptitude are all spelt correctly.
2. Q77: Identify the error in the given sentence. My colleague always works latest than me.
   Answer: B — latest
   The correct answer is latest. Key Points - The sentence compares two people using 'than', so it needs the comparative degree, later, not the superlative latest. - Correct: "My colleague always works later than me."
3. Q78: Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words. Loud enough to be heard.
   Answer: D — Audible
   The correct answer is Audible. Key Points - Audible means capable of being heard (loud enough to be heard). - Audacity/Audacious relate to boldness, and an audit is a financial inspection.
4. Q79: Identify the word which is similar in meaning to the following word. Munificent
   Answer: D — Magnanimous
   The correct answer is Magnanimous. Key Points - Munificent means extremely generous; magnanimous (generous, big-hearted) is the closest synonym. - Miserly is its antonym; malicious means spiteful.
5. Q80: Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence. P) once said Q) a wise man R) that action speaks S) louder than words
   Answer: D — QPRS
   The correct answer is QPRS. Key Points - Subject first (Q — a wise man), then the verb (P — once said), then the reported clause (R — that action speaks) and its completion (S — louder than words). - "A wise man once said that action s
6. Q81: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Just bite the ............. and tell him the truth.
   Answer: D — bullet
   The correct answer is bullet. Key Points - The idiom 'bite the bullet' means to force oneself to do something unpleasant or face a difficult situation bravely. - Here it fits: gather courage and tell the truth.
7. Q82: Select the option that expresses the opposite meaning of the underlined word. In front of the big screen, this behaviour is generally considered <utaboo</u.
   Answer: D — Acceptable
   The correct answer is Acceptable. Key Points - Taboo means forbidden or socially unacceptable, so its opposite is acceptable. - The other options are unrelated in meaning.
8. Q83: Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence. <uVerity</u is a good virtue for human life.
   Answer: A — Truth
   The correct answer is Truth. Key Points - Verity means the quality of being true, i.e. truth. - Information, knowledge and cooperation do not carry the same meaning.
9. Q84: Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence. Founding father / is / of / New Historicism / Greenbalt / considered / the
   Answer: B — Greenbalt is considered the founding father of New Historicism.
   The correct answer is Greenbalt is considered the founding father of New Historicism. Key Points - The sentence needs Subject (Greenbalt) + verb (is considered) + object (the founding father of New Historicism). - Only option 2 gives this c
10. Q85: Select the most appropriate verb / verb phrase to fill in the blank. The team .............................. the championship before their star player got injured.
    Answer: D — had won
    The correct answer is had won. Key Points - Two past actions: the winning happened before another past event (the injury), so the earlier action takes the past perfect — 'had won'. - Correct: "The team had won the championship before t
11. Q86: Select the correct ANTONYM of the underlined word to fill in the blank and complete the sentence. He is always <uactive</u in a party but ............. in the class.
    Answer: B — inert
    The correct answer is inert. Key Points - The blank needs the opposite of active; inert means inactive/lacking the power to move. - Angry, careless and naughty are not opposites of active.
12. Q87: Select the most appropriate option that can rectify the incorrectly spelt word in the following sentence. In our quest for power, we often fail to <uacknowlege</u the existence of other people.
    Answer: A — acknowledge
    The correct answer is acknowledge. Key Points - The correct spelling is acknowledge (to accept or recognise the existence of something). - The other options are misspellings.
13. Q88: Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words. Money collected from people for a cause.
    Answer: B — Fund
    The correct answer is Fund. Key Points - A fund is money gathered or set aside for a specific cause or purpose. - Deposit, collection and savings do not specifically mean money raised for a cause.
14. Q89: Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom. Bincy's mother kept her <ucards close to her chest</u.
    Answer: A — Kept her plans and thoughts hidden
    The correct answer is Kept her plans and thoughts hidden. Key Points - The idiom 'keep one's cards close to one's chest' means to keep one's plans, thoughts or intentions secret.
15. Q90: Select the option that expresses the following sentence in active voice. The issue has been successfully resolved by the customer care team.
    Answer: A — The customer care team has successfully resolved the issue.
    The correct answer is The customer care team has successfully resolved the issue. Key Points - In the active voice the agent (customer care team) becomes the subject, keeping the same present-perfect tense: 'has been resolved' → 'has resolv
16. Q91: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. I like bread made up of corn ................. .
    Answer: C — flour
    The correct answer is flour. Key Points - Flour is the powder milled from grain and used to make bread ("corn flour"). - 'Floor' is a surface, 'flower' is a bloom, and 'failure' is unrelated — these are common confusables (homopho
17. Q92: Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. He remembered her as she once was – an eager, glowing girl. B. He had not seen her for nearly thirteen years.
    Answer: A — CBAD
    The correct answer is CBAD. Key Points - C introduces the subject (Mr. Satterthwaite went to meet her); B gives the gap of thirteen years; A recalls his old memory of her; D contrasts it with the present ("a Frozen Lady"). - The c
18. Q93: Select the option that expresses the following sentence in passive voice. Gill scored 3 centuries in Tata IPL 2023.
    Answer: B — 3 centuries were scored by Gill in Tata IPL 2023.
    The correct answer is 3 centuries were scored by Gill in Tata IPL 2023. Key Points - The active verb is simple past ('scored') with a plural object ('3 centuries'), so the passive is 'were + scored'. - Correct: "3 centuries were scored
19. Q94: Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Insert
    Answer: A — Remove
    The correct answer is Remove. Key Points - Insert means to put something in; its opposite is remove (to take out). - Inject is a synonym-like action, not an antonym.
20. Q95: Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the given word. Carcass
    Answer: B — Corpse
    The correct answer is Corpse. Key Points - Carcass is the dead body of an animal; corpse is the closest synonym. - Scrap = discarded material, gale = a strong wind — neither matches.
21. Q96: In the passage below, select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number (1). Social media companies (1) claim that they promote democracy and are dedicated to the empowerment of ordinary indi
    Answer: C — frequently
    The correct answer is frequently. Key Points - The passage affirms that these companies do make such claims, so an adverb showing they do it often is needed. - Frequently fits; 'never', 'don't' and 'seldom' would contradict the passage.
22. Q97: In the passage below, select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number (2). Social media companies (1) claim that they promote democracy and are dedicated to the empowerment of ordinary indi
    Answer: B — may not be
    The correct answer is may not be. Key Points - The next sentences give evidence that the claim has merit, so the assertion is not completely baseless. - 'The assertion may not be entirely unfounded' correctly conveys this qualified agreemen
23. Q98: In the passage below, select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number (3). Social media companies (1) claim that they promote democracy and are dedicated to the empowerment of ordinary indi
    Answer: D — common
    The correct answer is common. Key Points - The blank describes the ordinary people mobilised by these movements. - Common citizens (everyday people) fits the sense; 'alien', 'foreign' and 'neutral' do not.
24. Q99: In the passage below, select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number (4). Social media companies (1) claim that they promote democracy and are dedicated to the empowerment of ordinary indi
    Answer: D — have been
    The correct answer is have been. Key Points - The blank needs a verb linking 'digital networks' to 'indispensable', consistent with the present-perfect tone of the passage. - 'Digital networks have been indispensable' fits grammatically and
25. Q100: In the passage below, select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number (5). Social media companies (1) claim that they promote democracy and are dedicated to the empowerment of ordinary indi
    Answer: D — injustice
    The correct answer is injustice. Key Points - These movements raise 'critical voices against' something negative, so the blank needs a word for wrongdoing. - Injustice fits ('against social and political injustice'); democracy, election and

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are there in the SSC CGL 2024 Tier I — 26 Sep 2024 (Shift 2)?

The SSC CGL 2024 Tier I — 26 Sep 2024 (Shift 2) has 100 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

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The SSC CGL 2024 Tier I — 26 Sep 2024 (Shift 2) was held on 26 September 2024.

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Yes. SSC CGL deducts 0.5 marks for every wrong answer, so accuracy matters as much as attempting more questions.

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