SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 12 Sep 2025 (Shift 2) — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

General Intelligence & Reasoning — Solved Questions

1. Q1: Select the related word from the given alternatives. Liberty : Autonomy :: Equality : ?
   Answer: C — Fairness
   The correct answer is Fairness. Key Points - The relation is synonymy: liberty and autonomy both mean freedom from external control. - So the fourth term must be a synonym of equality — the state of being equal, treated the same. - Fairness
2. Q2: Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. BGL, GLQ, LQV, QVA, ?
   Answer: C — VAF
   The correct answer is VAF. Key Points - Write the alphabet positions: BGL = 2, 7, 12 — each letter is +5 from the last. - The same +5 holds inside every cluster, and the clusters themselves start at B(2), G(7), L(12), Q(17), V(22) — also +5
3. Q3: Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. DAG, FCI, ?, JGM, LIO
   Answer: D — HEK
   The correct answer is HEK. Key Points - Treat each letter position as its own series rather than reading the clusters as words. - Position 1: D, F, H, J, L — each +2. Position 2: A, C, E, G, I — each +2. Position 3: G, I, K, M, O — each +2.
4. Q4: Which of the following alternatives will replace the question mark? Atom, Molecule, Cell, ?
   Answer: A — Tissue
   The correct answer is Tissue. Key Points - The sequence is the hierarchy of biological organisation, each level built from the one before. - Atom → Molecule → Cell → Tissue → Organ → Organ system → Organism. - A tissue is a group of similar
5. Q5: Complete the series: , 150, 183, 219, 258
   Answer: A — 120
   The correct answer is 120. Key Points - Take the differences between the known terms: 183 − 150 = 33, 219 − 183 = 36, 258 − 219 = 39. - The differences themselves rise by 3 each time, so the step before 150 must have been 30. - The missing
6. Q6: What will come at the place of question mark? 2, 12, 30, 56, 90, ?
   Answer: A — 132
   The correct answer is 132. Key Points - Differences: 12 − 2 = 10, 30 − 12 = 18, 56 − 30 = 26, 90 − 56 = 34 — rising by 8 each time. - The next difference is 42, so the answer is 90 + 42 = 132. - The same series also reads as consecutive n(n
7. Q7: Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows. Statement: Most farmers in the region depend on monsoon rains for irrigation. Conclusions: I. The region does not have
   Answer: B — Only Conclusion II follows
   The correct answer is Only Conclusion II follows. Key Points - A conclusion follows only if it must be true given the statement — never merely if it sounds plausible. - Conclusion II follows: if most farmers depend on monsoon rain, a weak m
8. Q8: Instruction: Identify the assumptions that must hold for the statement to be valid, then choose the correct option. Statement: The discovery of exoplanets in habitable zones around distant stars has p
   Answer: A — Only I and II are implicit
   The correct answer is Only I and II are implicit. Key Points - An assumption is something the statement takes for granted in order to make sense. - I is implicit — calling exoplanets in habitable zones exciting for the search for life presu
9. Q9: How many meaningful four-letter English words can be formed using the first, second, third, and sixth letters of the word PROVIDE (when counted from left to right), using each letter only once in each
   Answer: B — Three
   The correct answer is Three. Key Points - Take the required letters of PROVIDE by position: 1st P, 2nd R, 3rd O, 6th D. - From P, R, O, D the meaningful four-letter English words are PROD, DROP and DORP — three in total. - Each letter is us
10. Q10: Which of the following addresses are identical to each other: 1. Rajeev Chauhan 3/5, Lotus Enclave, Kanpur, 208012 2. Rajeev Chauhan 3-5, Lotus Enclave, Kanpur, 208012 3. Rajeev Chauhan 3-5, Lotus Enc
    Answer: B — 2 and 3
    The correct answer is 2 and 3. Key Points - Compare the entries field by field — name, house number, locality, city, PIN. - Address 2 and address 3 match on every field, including the house number written 3-5 and the PIN 208012. - Address 1
11. Q11: Each of the letters in the word STAMINA is arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the letter that is first from the left and the one that
    Answer: A — 11
    The correct answer is 11. Key Points - Alphabetise STAMINA: A, A, I, M, N, S, T. - First from the left is A; fourth from the right is M (counting T, S, N, M). - Letters strictly between A(1) and M(13): 13 − 1 − 1 = 11. Additional Informatio
12. Q12: Find the best option that best completes the analogy. NPR : OQS :: XYZ : ?
    Answer: A — YZA
    The correct answer is YZA. Key Points - NPR → OQS shifts every letter forward by one: N→O, P→Q, R→S. - Apply the same +1 to XYZ: X→Y, Y→Z, and Z wraps round to A. - The answer is YZA — the same three consecutive letters, each moved one step
13. Q13: In a row of 50 books, Book A is 15th from left and Book B is 20th from right. How many books lie between them?
    Answer: B — 15
    The correct answer is 15. Key Points - Convert both positions to the same reference point. Book B is 20th from the right in a row of 50, so from the left it is 50 − 20 + 1 = 31st. - Book A is 15th from the left. - Books strictly between the
14. Q14: In each of the following questions, the second word is formed by rearranging the letters of the first word according to a specific pattern. Identify that pattern and apply the same to the third word t
    Answer: D — LERABGA
    The correct answer is LERABGA. Key Points - Work out where each output letter came from. NUMERAL (N-U-M-E-R-A-L) becomes UEALRMN. - Reading the source positions of the output: U is 2nd, E is 4th, A is 6th, L is 7th, R is 5th, M is 3rd, N is
15. Q15: Find the odd one out from the given alternatives:
    Answer: D — DNA
    The correct answer is DNA. Key Points - TDS, GST and VAT are all forms of taxation in India. - DNA is deoxyribonucleic acid, the molecule carrying genetic information — no connection to tax. - DNA is therefore the odd one out: three financi
16. Q16: If A is the son of B, and B is the brother of C, how is C related to A?
    Answer: B — Uncle
    The correct answer is Uncle. Key Points - A is the son of B, so B is A's parent. - B is the brother of C, so C is a sibling of A's parent. - A parent's brother is an uncle, so C is A's uncle. Additional Information - The question gives C's
17. Q17: One number is not like the others: 1331, 2197, 3375, 4096
    Answer: C — 4096
    The correct answer is 4096. Key Points - All four numbers are perfect cubes: 1331 = 11³, 2197 = 13³, 3375 = 15³, 4096 = 16³. - Three of them are cubes of odd numbers — 11, 13, 15 — which are also consecutive odd numbers. - 4096 is the cube
18. Q18: Find the number that breaks the pattern: 2, 5, 10, 17, 28, 40, 58
    Answer: C — 40
    The correct answer is 40. Key Points - Take the differences: 5 − 2 = 3, 10 − 5 = 5, 17 − 10 = 7, then 28 − 17 = 11, 40 − 28 = 12, 58 − 40 = 18. - The first four differences are the primes 3, 5, 7, 11 — so the sequence should continue with 1
19. Q19: In a certain code language, each letter is assigned a unique digit. Based on the given codes for specific words, determine the code for the target word using the same logic. If MOUSE is coded as 45291
    Answer: A — 96571
    The correct answer is 96571. Key Points - Build the letter-to-digit table from the two given codes. MOUSE → 45291 gives M=4, O=5, U=2, S=9, E=1. - RAT → 786 gives R=7, A=8, T=6. - Now spell the target: S T O R E → 9, 6, 5, 7, 1 = 96571. Add
20. Q20: If 7\ \\ 3 = 58 and 6\ \\ 2 = 40 , what is 5\ \\ 1 ?
    Answer: A — 26
    The correct answer is 26. Key Points - Find the rule behind the invented operator. 7 3 = 58: note 7² + 3² = 49 + 9 = 58 ✓ - Confirm on the second pair: 6 2 → 6² + 2² = 36 + 4 = 40 ✓ - So means sum of squares, and 5 1 = 25 + 1 = 26. Addition
21. Q21: Pointing to a girl, a woman says, 'She is the daughter of my mother's only daughter.' How is the girl related to the woman?
    Answer: A — Daughter
    The correct answer is Daughter. Key Points - Resolve the innermost description first: my mother's only daughter — the speaker is a woman and her mother has just one daughter, so that is the speaker herself. - The girl is therefore the daugh
22. Q22: A woman says, "This man's son's sister is my daughter." How is the woman related to the man?
    Answer: A — Wife
    The correct answer is Wife. Key Points - This man's son's sister is simply the man's daughter. - The woman says that person is my daughter, so the man's daughter and the woman's daughter are the same child. - Sharing a daughter, the woman i
23. Q23: Two numbers are in ratio 7:9, and their sum is 128. Find the numbers.
    Answer: B — 56, 72
    The correct answer is 56, 72. Key Points - Let the numbers be 7x and 9x, matching the ratio 7 : 9. - Their sum is 16x = 128, so x = 8. - The numbers are 7 × 8 = 56 and 9 × 8 = 72. Additional Information - Check both conditions: 56 + 72 = 12
24. Q24: If 16 + 11 = A and 1/9 = B , and A\ \%\ B = (A × B) - 1 , then what is A\ \%\ B ?
    Answer: C — 2
    The correct answer is 2. Key Points - Evaluate the given values first: A = 16 + 11 = 27 and B = 1/9. - The defined operation is A % B = (A × B) − 1. - So A % B = (27 × 1/9) − 1 = 3 − 1 = 2. Additional Information - The % here is a defined s
25. Q25: If the sum of 28 and 22 is multiplied by 8, what is the result?
    Answer: B — 400
    The correct answer is 400. Key Points - Work strictly in the order the sentence gives: first the sum, then the multiplication. - 28 + 22 = 50, and 50 × 8 = 400. Additional Information - The phrasing the sum of 28 and 22 is multiplied by 8 b

General Awareness — Solved Questions

1. Q26: Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Assertion (A): Humayun's Tomb was the first major Mughal garden tomb and directly inspired the design of the
   Answer: A — Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
   The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.. Key Points - Humayun's Tomb (Delhi, completed 1571) was commissioned by his widow Bega Begum and designed by the Persian architect Mirak Mirza Ghiyas. - It
2. Q27: Which ancient ruler's administration is noted for its highly centralized structure?
   Answer: C — Chandragupta Maurya
   The correct answer is Chandragupta Maurya. Key Points - Chandragupta Maurya (r. c. 322–297 BCE) built the first genuinely centralised empire in India, with Kautilya (Chanakya) as his adviser. - The Arthashastra describes an elaborate bureau
3. Q28: Which of the following correctly reflects the evolution of Indian classical music?
   Answer: D — Ragas evolved from jatis; 72-mela was by Venkatamakhi
   The correct answer is Ragas evolved from jatis; 72-mela was by Venkatamakhi. Key Points - The historical direction is jatis → ragas: the older jati melodic classes described by Bharata gradually developed into the raga system. - The 72-mela
4. Q29: Consider the following statements about the phases of long jump: 1) The athlete attains maximum momentum by running on the runway before take-off. 2) During take-off, the athlete pushes off with the w
   Answer: A — Only 1 is Correct
   The correct answer is Only 1 is Correct. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct: the approach run builds horizontal velocity, and maximum controlled speed at the board is what converts into distance. - Statement 2 is incorrect: the athlete tak
5. Q30: Mary Kom's most recent international gold medal was won at which tournament?
   Answer: B — President's Cup, Indonesia
   The correct answer is President's Cup, Indonesia. Key Points - Mary Kom's most recent international gold came at the President's Cup in Indonesia. - She won it in the 51 kg category, adding to one of the most decorated records in amateur bo
6. Q31: The Regulating Act of 1773 primarily introduced changes in the Company's administration in which two distinct areas?
   Answer: C — Company's constitution at home and territorial control in India.
   The correct answer is Company's constitution at home and territorial control in India.. Key Points - The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first British Parliamentary intervention in the East India Company's affairs. - It reformed the Company
7. Q32: Consider the following statements regarding India's water-sharing treaties with its neighbours: 1) The Mahakali Treaty signed with Nepal in 1996 includes provisions for integrated development of the M
   Answer: A — Only 1 is Correct
   The correct answer is Only 1 is Correct. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct: the Mahakali Treaty (1996) with Nepal covers the integrated development of the Mahakali river, including the Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project, along with the Sara
8. Q33: Fill in the blank: Under the SLKIC vertical of Khelo India, Kendriya Vidyalayas have been adopted in partnership with KVS.
   Answer: B — 4
   The correct answer is 4. Key Points - Under the SLKIC vertical of Khelo India, 4 Kendriya Vidyalayas have been adopted in partnership with KVS. - The arrangement uses existing school infrastructure to run sports facilities rather than build
9. Q34: Consider the following statements about "The Adventures of Kakababu, Volume 1" by Sunil Gangopadhyaya: 1) A pioneering Bengali adventure novel featuring detective Kakababu with mystery and c
   Answer: A — Only statement 1 is correct
   The correct answer is Only statement 1 is correct. Key Points - Only statement 1 is correct: The Adventures of Kakababu is a pioneering Bengali adventure series by Sunil Gangopadhyay, built around mystery and cultural themes. - Kakababu — R
10. Q35: Which indian political leader addressed a special session in 2025 on "Environment, COP-30, and Global Health"?
    Answer: C — Narendra Modi
    The correct answer is Narendra Modi. Key Points - Prime Minister Narendra Modi addressed the 2025 special session on Environment, COP-30 and Global Health. - The session linked climate action with health outcomes, a theme India has pressed
11. Q36: Which of the following types of landslides involves backward rotation of the slipping material?
    Answer: C — Slump
    The correct answer is Slump. Key Points - A slump is a landslide in which a mass slides along a curved, concave-upward surface, so the block rotates backwards as it moves. - That backward rotation is the defining feature, and it typically l
12. Q37: What is meant by population density?
    Answer: B — People per square kilometre
    The correct answer is People per square kilometre. Key Points - Population density is the number of people per unit area — conventionally persons per square kilometre. - It measures how crowded an area is, unlike total population, which mea
13. Q38: Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Choose the correct option: Assertion (A): Population explosion occurs when death rates decline rapidly but birth rates remain high. Reason (R): Societal r
    Answer: C — A is true, but R is false
    The correct answer is A is true, but R is false. Key Points - Assertion is true: a population explosion is exactly the gap that opens when death rates fall quickly while birth rates stay high. - Reason is false as stated: reproductive behav
14. Q39: Which of the following best reflects the fundamental objective of applying generative design in aerospace systems engineering?
    Answer: B — Optimizing mechanical configurations for minimum mass and maximum structural resilience
    The correct answer is Optimizing mechanical configurations for minimum mass and maximum structural resilience. Key Points - Generative design uses algorithms to produce many candidate geometries from stated constraints, then selects the bes
15. Q40: The function of lysosomes in cells is:
    Answer: B — Intracellular digestion
    The correct answer is Intracellular digestion. Key Points - Lysosomes are membrane-bound vesicles carrying hydrolytic enzymes that break down proteins, lipids, carbohydrates and nucleic acids. - Their role is intracellular digestion — diges
16. Q41: Which of the following statements regarding Article 270 are correct? 1) Article 270 governs the sharing of taxes between the Union and States, including proceeds from GST. 2) After the 101st Constitut
    Answer: C — 1 & 2 only
    The correct answer is 1 & 2 only. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct: Article 270 governs the distribution of taxes between the Union and the States, and now covers GST proceeds. - Statement 2 is correct: the 101st Constitutional Amend
17. Q42: If Earth's radius were reduced by 1% while its mass remained unchanged, what would be the effect on the gravitational acceleration at its surface?
    Answer: C — Increase by approximately 2%
    The correct answer is Increase by approximately 2%. Key Points - Surface gravity is g = GM/R² — inversely proportional to the square of the radius, with mass unchanged. - Reducing R by 1% multiplies R² by (0.99)² ≈ 0.9801, so g is multiplie
18. Q43: Under Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), what is the maximum period for which a person can be held in police custody in total, even if remanded periodically by a magistrate?
    Answer: D — 15 days (for initial remand, extendable)
    The correct answer is 15 days (for initial remand, extendable). Key Points - Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), a magistrate may authorise police custody of up to 15 days. - The 15 days is the ceiling on police custody its
19. Q44: What is the age range for farmers to enrol in the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY)?
    Answer: B — 18-40 years
    The correct answer is 18-40 years. Key Points - The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY) is open to small and marginal farmers aged 18 to 40 years. - It pays a minimum pension of ₹3,000 a month after the age of 60. Additional Infor
20. Q45: Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Assertion (A): UDAN Scheme improves regional air connectivity. Reason (R): It provides financial viability g
    Answer: A — Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. Key Points - Assertion is true: UDAN — Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik — was launched in 2016 to connect unserved and underserved airports. - Reason is true and expl
21. Q46: According to the Global Cities Index 2025 by Oxford Economics, which two cities retained their top positions?
    Answer: B — London and New York
    The correct answer is London and New York. Key Points - In the Global Cities Index 2025 published by Oxford Economics, London and New York retained the top two positions. - The index ranks the world's largest cities on a combination of econ
22. Q47: Which of the following statements about light industries is correct?
    Answer: D — Use light materials to make consumer goods
    The correct answer is Use light materials to make consumer goods. Key Points - Light industries work with light raw materials and turn out consumer goods — textiles, electronics, food processing, cosmetics. - They need less capital and spac
23. Q48: Schedule VII of the Constitution contains .
    Answer: B — Three legislative lists
    The correct answer is Three legislative lists. Key Points - The Seventh Schedule contains the three legislative lists that divide law-making power between the Centre and the States. - Union List (97 subjects originally) — defence, foreign a
24. Q49: A coastal city implements a plan to build sea walls and elevate buildings in response to rising sea levels. This action primarily falls under which category of climate change response?
    Answer: D — Climate Change Adaptation.
    The correct answer is Climate Change Adaptation.. Key Points - Building sea walls and raising buildings does nothing to reduce emissions — it reduces vulnerability to impacts already occurring, which is adaptation. - Mitigation means cuttin
25. Q50: What specific physical quantity ensures a satellite maintains its orbit without continuous propulsion?
    Answer: C — Orbital velocity
    The correct answer is Orbital velocity. Key Points - A satellite stays in orbit because its orbital velocity gives it exactly the tangential speed at which it falls around the Earth rather than into it. - Gravity supplies the centripetal fo

Quantitative Aptitude — Solved Questions

1. Q51: Let x = √3 + √5 and y = √8 + √2 . Which is greater?
   Answer: C — y x
   The correct answer is y x. Key Points - Estimate each surd rather than trying to compare the expressions symbolically: √3 1.732, √5 2.236, so x 3.968. - √8 2.828 and √2 1.414, so y 4.243. - Since 4.243 exceeds 3.968, y x — the pair further
2. Q52: The number of red, blue, and green marbles in a bag is in the ratio 3 : 4 : 6. If 20 red marbles, 15 blue marbles, and an unknown number of green marbles are added to the bag, the ratio of red, blue,
   Answer: B — 5
   The correct answer is 5. Key Points - Let the original counts be 3k, 4k and 6k. - Use the red and blue parts first, since both additions are known: (3k + 20) : (4k + 15) = 4 : 5 gives 15k + 100 = 16k + 60, so k = 40. - Red becomes 140 and b
3. Q53: Evaluate the continued fraction: x = 2 + 13 + 14 + 12
   Answer: A — 67/29
   The correct answer is 67/29. Key Points - Continued fractions are evaluated from the innermost denominator outwards. - Innermost: 4 + 12 = 92. - Next level: 3 + 1/9/2 = 3 + 29 = 299. - Finally: x = 2 + 1/29/9 = 2 + 929 = 6729. Additional In
4. Q54: A and B invest ₹40,000 and ₹60,000 respectively in a business. What is A's share in a profit of ₹50,000?
   Answer: B — ₹20,000
   The correct answer is ₹20,000. Key Points - Profit in a partnership is shared in the ratio of the capitals when the durations are equal. - ₹40,000 : ₹60,000 simplifies to 2 : 3, so A takes 2 of 5 parts. - A's share = 25 × 50,000 = ₹20,000.
5. Q55: A and B contribute to a business investment in the ratio 3:5. They earn a profit of ₹64,000. A is a working partner and receives 10% of the profit extra. What is A's total share?
   Answer: B — ₹28,000
   The correct answer is ₹28,000. Key Points - Deal with the working-partner allowance before dividing the remainder. - A's extra = 10\% of ₹64,000 = ₹6,400, leaving ₹57,600 to be shared in 3 : 5. - A's share of the remainder = 38 × 57,600 = ₹
6. Q56: In a team of 75 employees, the average monthly sales per employee is ₹1.8 lakh. If 30 junior employees average ₹1.2 lakh each, what is the average monthly sales figure (in ₹ lakh) for the senior emplo
   Answer: B — ₹2.2 lakh
   The correct answer is ₹2.2 lakh. Key Points - Convert averages to totals, which is what makes them addable. - All 75 employees: 75 × 1.8 = ₹135 lakh. The 30 juniors: 30 × 1.2 = ₹36 lakh. - The 45 seniors therefore account for 135 - 36 = ₹99
7. Q57: The price of petrol shot up by 5%. Before the hike, the price was Rs. 82 per litre. A man travels 3045 km every month and his car gives a mileage of 15 km per litre. What is the increase in the monthl
   Answer: B — ₹832
   The correct answer is ₹832. Key Points - Find the monthly fuel consumption: 3045 ÷ 15 = 203 litres. - The price rise is 5\% of ₹82 = ₹4.10 per litre. - Extra monthly spend = 203 × 4.10 = ₹832.30 ₹832. Additional Information - Only the incre
8. Q58: A company placed an order for 20 high-end laptops and some quantity of standard desktops. The price of a high-end laptop was 5 times that of a standard desktop. Due to a mistake, the number of laptops
   Answer: D — 2:5
   The correct answer is 2:5. Key Points - Let a desktop cost p, so a laptop costs 5p, and let there be d desktops. - Original bill = 20(5p) + dp = 100p + dp. After the interchange: d(5p) + 20p = 5dp + 20p. - The interchange raised the bill by
9. Q59: Find the compound interest on ₹8,000 at 12% per annum for 3 years 4 months, compounded annually.
   Answer: C — ₹3,689
   The correct answer is ₹3,689. Key Points - For a period of whole years plus a part year, compound the whole years first, then apply simple interest for the fraction. - Three years: 8000 × (1.12)^3 = 8000 × 1.404928 = ₹11,239.42. - Four mont
10. Q60: A candy shop owner buys three kinds of candies: red, blue, and green. Red candies are purchased at 3 for ₹15, blue candies at 4 for ₹18, and green candies at 5 for ₹22. He mixes them in the ratio 1:1:
    Answer: B — Profit of 9.29%
    The correct answer is Profit of 9.29%. Key Points - Find the unit cost of each colour: red 15 ÷ 3 = ₹5, blue 18 ÷ 4 = ₹4.50, green 22 ÷ 5 = ₹4.40. - Mixing 1 : 1 : 2 means taking 4 candies: cost = 5 + 4.50 + 2(4.40) = ₹18.30. - Selling at 2
11. Q61: The ratio of boys to girls in a school is 7:5. If 20 more girls join the school, the new ratio of boys to girls becomes 7:6. What is the total number of students in the school initially?
    Answer: B — 240
    The correct answer is 240. Key Points - Let boys and girls be 7x and 5x. - After 20 girls join: 7x/5x + 20 = 7/6. - Cross-multiplying: 42x = 35x + 140, so 7x = 140 and x = 20. - Boys = 140, girls = 100, so the initial total is 240. Addition
12. Q62: A, B, and C are capable of completing a job in 30, 45, and 90 days, respectively. A works every day, while B and C join A every fifth day. How long will it take to finish the task?
    Answer: A — 25 days
    The correct answer is 25 days. Key Points - Take the LCM of 30, 45 and 90 as the total work: 90 units. Then A does 3 units/day, B does 2 and C does 1. - In each five-day cycle A works all five days (15 units) and B and C join on the fifth d
13. Q63: A 100-litre solution contains acid and water in the ratio 3:2. Some quantity of this solution is removed and replaced with pure acid. If the final ratio of acid to water becomes 7:3, how many litres o
    Answer: B — 25 litres
    The correct answer is 25 litres. Key Points - Start with 100 litres in 3 : 2, i.e. 60 L acid and 40 L water. - Removing x litres of the mixture takes away 0.6x acid and 0.4x water; the replacement is pure acid, so acid becomes 60 - 0.6x + x
14. Q64: The ratio of the efficiencies of two workers, P and Q, is 5 : 2. If P can complete a project in 12 days, how many days will Q take to complete the same project alone?
    Answer: B — 30 days
    The correct answer is 30 days. Key Points - Efficiency and time are inversely proportional: the more efficient worker takes proportionally less time. - With efficiencies in 5 : 2, the times are in 2 : 5. - P takes 12 days, so Q takes 12 × 5
15. Q65: A car starts from point P on a circular track and an SUV starts from point Q, which is 600 meters ahead of P in the direction of motion. The car's speed is 15 m/s, and the SUV's speed is 10 m/s. The c
    Answer: D — 1800 m
    The correct answer is 1800 m. Key Points - On a circular track with both moving the same way, the closing speed is the difference: 15 - 10 = 5 m/s. - The car must make up the 600 m head start, which takes 600 ÷ 5 = 120 seconds. - In that ti
16. Q66: A circular park having a radius of 14 m. If a 1.5 m wide path is built around it, what is the approximate area of the path?
    Answer: A — 139 m²
    The correct answer is 139 m². Key Points - A path around a circle forms an annulus, so its area is the outer circle minus the inner. - Outer radius = 14 + 1.5 = 15.5 m. - Area = π(15.5^2 - 14^2) = π(240.25 - 196) = π × 44.25 139 m². Additio
17. Q67: What is 5π/4 radians in degrees?
    Answer: A — 225°
    The correct answer is 225°. Key Points - Convert with 180° = π radians, so multiply by 180/π. - 5π/4 × 180/π = 5 × 180/4 = 225°. Additional Information - The π cancels, which is why radian-to-degree conversions of the form kπ are always exa
18. Q68: The line y = -x + 4 passes through which of the following points?
    Answer: A — (2, 2)
    The correct answer is (2, 2). Key Points - A point lies on a line only if its coordinates satisfy the equation, so substitute and test. - For (2, 2): -2 + 4 = 2, which matches the y-coordinate ✓ - The other points fail: (5,4) -1, (1,2) 3, (
19. Q69: What is the central angle of a sector with an arc length of 10 cm in a circle of radius 5 cm?
    Answer: C — 2 radians
    The correct answer is 2 radians. Key Points - In radian measure the arc length is simply s = rθ. - So θ = s/r = 10/5 = 2 radians. Additional Information - This clean form is exactly why radians exist — the same relation in degrees needs s =
20. Q70: If tan(90° - A) = √3 , what is sin A ?
    Answer: A — 1/2
    The correct answer is 1/2. Key Points - Use the complementary identity tan(90° − A) = cot A. - So cot A = √3, which means tan A = 1/√3 and A = 30°. - Therefore sin A = sin 30° = 1/2. Additional Information - The complementary pairs to know:
21. Q71: If x = √7 , determine the value of x + 1/x .
    Answer: A — 8√7/7
    The correct answer is 8√7/7. Key Points - Substitute directly: x + 1/x = √7 + 1/√7. - Rationalise the second term: 1/√7 = √7/7. - So the sum is √7 + √7/7 = 7√7 + √7/7 = 8√7/7. Additional Information - Rationalising the denominator — multipl
22. Q72: Two triangles are similar with sides in the ratio 3:5. What is the ratio of their areas?
    Answer: C — 9:25
    The correct answer is 9:25. Key Points - In similar figures the ratio of areas is the square of the ratio of corresponding sides. - Sides in 3 : 5 therefore give areas in 3^2 : 5^2 = 9 : 25. Additional Information - The companion results: p
23. Q73: If x = 2 + √3/2 - √3 , determine the value of x^2 + x - 9 .
    Answer: B — 5√3
    The correct answer is 5√3. Key Points - Rationalise inside the radical first: multiply top and bottom by 2 + √3. - 2 + √3/2 - √3 = (2 + √3)^2/4 - 3 = (2 + √3)^2. - Taking the square root gives x = 2 + √3, so x^2 = 7 + 4√3. - Then x^2 + x -
24. Q74: The angles of a cyclic quadrilateral are in the ratio 1:2:3:4. What is the measure of the smallest angle?
    Answer: A — 36°
    The correct answer is 36°. Key Points - The angles of any quadrilateral sum to 360°. - With the angles in 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 there are 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 = 10 parts, so one part is 360 ÷ 10 = 36°. - The smallest angle is 1 part = 36°. Additional Info
25. Q75: If sec A = 13/5 and A is acute, find sin A .
    Answer: B — 12/13
    The correct answer is 12/13. Key Points - sec A = 13/5 means cos A = 5/13, since secant is the reciprocal of cosine. - Reading this as a right triangle: adjacent 5, hypotenuse 13, so the opposite side is √169 - 25 = 12. - Therefore sin A =

English Comprehension — Solved Questions

1. Q76: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: ABNEGATE
   Answer: C — Renounce
   The correct answer is Renounce. Key Points - ABNEGATE means to renounce, give up or formally deny oneself something — a belief, a right or a comfort. - Renounce is therefore the exact synonym: both describe a deliberate surrendering of some
2. Q77: Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Move heaven and earth
   Answer: B — To work tirelessly to achieve something
   The correct answer is To work tirelessly to achieve something. Key Points - 'Move heaven and earth' means to make every possible effort — to do everything within one's power to achieve a goal. - The idiom pictures someone so determined that
3. Q78: Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Puissant
   Answer: A — Feeble
   The correct answer is Feeble. Key Points - Puissant is a literary adjective meaning powerful, mighty or having great influence. - Its antonym must therefore express weakness, and Feeble — lacking strength or force — is the only option that
4. Q79: Identify the misspelt word
   Answer: C — Priviledge
   The correct answer is Priviledge. Key Points - Priviledge is the misspelt word — the correct spelling is privilege, with no letter d. - The confusion comes from mishearing the second syllable; the word ends -lege, from Latin lex, legis ('la
5. Q80: Spot the correct spelling of a drug-effect psychology field.
   Answer: A — Psychopharmacology
   The correct answer is Psychopharmacology. Key Points - The correct spelling is Psychopharmacology — the study of how drugs affect mood, sensation, thinking and behaviour. - It is built from three transparent parts: psycho- (mind) + pharmaco
6. Q81: Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A person who abstains from all forms of indulgence'.
   Answer: A — Ascetic
   The correct answer is Ascetic. Key Points - An ascetic is a person who practises severe self-discipline and abstains from all forms of indulgence, usually for spiritual reasons. - The definition given — abstaining from every form of indulge
7. Q82: Select the correct option: Neither the principal investigator the co-authors anticipated the backlash.
   Answer: A — nor
   The correct answer is nor. Key Points - Neither is always paired with nor; this is a fixed correlative conjunction in English. - So the sentence reads: Neither the principal investigator nor the co-authors anticipated the backlash. - 'or' p
8. Q83: Select the correct option: The board will convene next Friday, final approval is expected.
   Answer: C — when
   The correct answer is when. Key Points - The blank introduces a non-defining relative clause describing a point in time, so a relative adverb of time is needed. - When is the correct choice: The board will convene next Friday, when final ap
9. Q84: Select the correct option: Nothing short of a paradigm shift will the entrenched bureaucratic inertia.
   Answer: B — dislodge
   The correct answer is dislodge. Key Points - The sentence needs a transitive verb that can take inertia as its object. - Dislodge means to force something out of a fixed position, which fits 'entrenched' precisely — the metaphor of somethin
10. Q85: Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: Much of what appears to be coordination (1)/ among the regulatory bodies and private stakeholders (2)/ are, in fact, coincidental overlaps (3)/ ca
    Answer: C — (3)
    The correct answer is (3). Key Points - The error lies in part (3): are, in fact, coincidental overlaps should read is, in fact, a coincidental overlap — or at minimum the verb must be singular. - The subject of the sentence is 'Much', whic
11. Q86: Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: That the framework lacks provisions for backward compatibility (1)/ is less problematic than the assumption (2)/ that all peripheral institutions
    Answer: D — (4)
    The correct answer is (4). Key Points - The error is in part (4): adheres must be adhere. - The verb is governed by the modal will in part (3) — all peripheral institutions will … adhere — and a modal is always followed by the bare infiniti
12. Q87: Change the following from active to passive: People can seldom access archived manuscripts without clearance.
    Answer: C — Archived manuscripts can seldom be accessed without clearance.
    The correct answer is Archived manuscripts can seldom be accessed without clearance.. Key Points - Converting to the passive keeps the tense and the modal unchanged: can access becomes can be accessed. - The object archived manuscripts beco
13. Q88: Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The prince's gules dominated the family coat of arms.
    Answer: B — The chef prepared a sauce of deep gules and cumin.
    The correct answer is The chef prepared a sauce of deep gules and cumin.. Key Points - Gules is the heraldic term for the colour red in a coat of arms, which is the sense used in the given sentence. - Options A, C and D all repeat that same
14. Q89: Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: The package is delivered to the office every morning.
    Answer: B — Someone delivers the package to the office every morning.
    The correct answer is Someone delivers the package to the office every morning.. Key Points - The passive sentence has no stated agent — it does not say who delivers the package. - When the agent is unknown or unimportant, the active versio
15. Q90: Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage: The proliferation of social media has fundamentally transformed the democratic landscape, acting both as a catalyst for civic
    Answer: C — Facilitating free flow of information
    The correct answer is Facilitating free flow of information. Key Points - The passage states directly that 'democracy thrives on the free flow of information, and social media ostensibly democratizes this process by dismantling traditional
16. Q91: Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage: The proliferation of social media has fundamentally transformed the democratic landscape, acting both as a catalyst for civic
    Answer: C — Its ability to spread both truth and misinformation
    The correct answer is Its ability to spread both truth and misinformation. Key Points - The passage calls this openness 'double-edged' and explains why in the very next line. - 'The same platforms that disseminate truth can also propagate m
17. Q92: Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage: The proliferation of social media has fundamentally transformed the democratic landscape, acting both as a catalyst for civic
    Answer: C — Viral reach and grassroots mobilization
    The correct answer is Viral reach and grassroots mobilization. Key Points - The passage says: 'grassroots movements harness virality to amplify marginalized voices.' - The amplifying elements are therefore viral reach and grassroots mobilis
18. Q93: Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage: The proliferation of social media has fundamentally transformed the democratic landscape, acting both as a catalyst for civic
    Answer: C — Algorithmic transparency and media literacy
    The correct answer is Algorithmic transparency and media literacy. Key Points - The passage prescribes its remedy explicitly: 'Regulatory oversight, media literacy, and algorithmic transparency are essential to harness its democratic potent
19. Q94: Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage: The proliferation of social media has fundamentally transformed the democratic landscape, acting both as a catalyst for civic
    Answer: C — Societal intent and ethical usage
    The correct answer is Societal intent and ethical usage. Key Points - The concluding paragraph gives the author's verdict: social media is 'neither inherently virtuous nor inherently corrosive—it is a mirror of societal intent.' - Whether i
20. Q95: Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: No sooner had I reached the station when the train departed.
    Answer: A — than the train departed
    The correct answer is than the train departed. Key Points - No sooner is always followed by than, never by when or then. - The correct sentence is: No sooner had I reached the station than the train departed. - Option D adds a second invers
21. Q96: Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: The manager asked to the clerk to submit the report.
    Answer: C — asked the clerk to submit the report
    The correct answer is asked the clerk to submit the report. Key Points - The verb ask takes its personal object directly, with no preposition — you ask someone, not ask to someone. - The corrected phrase is therefore asked the clerk to subm
22. Q97: A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. She said, "I saw him last nigh
    Answer: A — She said she had seen him the previous night.
    The correct answer is She said she had seen him the previous night.. Key Points - In indirect speech the reporting verb said is in the past, so the reported verb moves one tense back: simple past saw becomes past perfect had seen. - Time ex
23. Q98: A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. The librarian said that silence mus
    Answer: C — "Maintain silence in the library," said the librarian.
    The correct answer is "Maintain silence in the library," said the librarian.. Key Points - The reported sentence expresses a command, signalled by silence must be maintained, so the direct form must be an imperative. - An imperati
24. Q99: Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. Consequently, effective communication hinges on more than just the words we choose. 2. Non-verbal cues, such as tone of voice, facial
    Answer: A — 3, 2, 1, 4
    The correct answer is 3, 2, 1, 4. Key Points - Sentence 3 is the opener: it defines communication as 'a complex process involving the exchange of information, ideas, and feelings', introducing the topic with no back-reference. - Sentence 2
25. Q100: Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. A key strategy is to diversify energy sources, transitioning from fossil fuels to renewable alternatives like solar, wind, and geothe
    Answer: A — 2, 1, 3, 4
    The correct answer is 2, 1, 3, 4. Key Points - Sentence 2 opens the paragraph: it states the problem and the goal — reducing reliance on carbon-intensive energy 'to mitigate the worst effects of climate change'. - Sentence 1 follows with 'A

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are there in the SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 12 Sep 2025 (Shift 2)?

The SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 12 Sep 2025 (Shift 2) has 100 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

When was the SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 12 Sep 2025 (Shift 2) held?

The SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 12 Sep 2025 (Shift 2) was held on 12 September 2025.

Is there negative marking in SSC CGL 2025?

Yes. SSC CGL deducts 0.5 marks for every wrong answer, so accuracy matters as much as attempting more questions.

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Yes. Every question in this paper includes the correct answer and a detailed, step-by-step explanation, free of cost and without login.

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Yes. You can attempt the full paper online in a timed, exam-like interface, and get your score with solutions immediately after submitting.