SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 13 Sep 2025 (Shift 1) — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

General Intelligence & Reasoning — Solved Questions

1. Q1: In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives. Jurisprudence : Law :: Epistemology : ?
   Answer: C — Knowledge
   The correct answer is Knowledge. Key Points - The relationship is branch of study : its subject matter. - Jurisprudence is the theory and philosophy of law, so the second term names what the first studies. - Epistemology is the branch of ph
2. Q2: How many letters in "SIGNATURE" are between the first vowel and the last consonant?
   Answer: C — 5
   The correct answer is 5. Key Points - Write the word with positions: S(1) I(2) G(3) N(4) A(5) T(6) U(7) R(8) E(9). - The first vowel is I at position 2. - The last consonant is R at position 8 — E at position 9 is a vowel, so it does not co
3. Q3: Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. MNK, NOJ, OPI, PQH, ?
   Answer: C — QRG
   The correct answer is QRG. Key Points - Read the clusters column-wise: - 1st letters: M, N, O, P → each +1 → next is Q - 2nd letters: N, O, P, Q → each +1 → next is R - 3rd letters: K, J, I, H → each −1 → next is G - Combining gives Q R G.
4. Q4: Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. QAZ, SDF, UGL, ?
   Answer: D — WJR
   The correct answer is WJR. Key Points - Take each position separately and find its step: - 1st letters: Q, S, U → +2 each → next is W - 2nd letters: A, D, G → +3 each → next is J - 3rd letters: Z, F, L → +6 each → next is R - That gives W J
5. Q5: Which of the following alternatives will replace the question mark? Chaos, Conflict, Negotiation, Resolution, ?
   Answer: B — Harmony
   The correct answer is Harmony. Key Points - The sequence traces the stages of resolving a dispute, moving from disorder toward settlement: - Chaos — complete disorder - Conflict — the disorder takes a defined shape as opposing sides - Negot
6. Q6: Which word does not belong to the category?
   Answer: C — Apple
   The correct answer is Apple. Key Points - Hibiscus, Tulip and Daisy are all flowers. - Apple is a fruit, so it belongs to a different category. - The rule is decided by the majority: three items share a class, and the fourth breaks it. Addi
7. Q7: What comes next: 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?
   Answer: C — 210
   The correct answer is 210. Key Points - Each term follows n³ − n for n = 1, 2, 3, …: - 1 − 1 = 0, 8 − 2 = 6, 27 − 3 = 24, 64 − 4 = 60, 125 − 5 = 120 - The next term uses n = 6: 216 − 6 = 210. - Checking by differences agrees: 6, 18, 36, 60
8. Q8: What should come at the place of question mark? 3, 4, 13, 14, 45, 46, ?
   Answer: A — 143
   The correct answer is 143. Key Points - The series alternates between two operations: - 3 +1 → 4, then 4 ×3 + 1 → 13 - 13 +1 → 14, then 14 ×3 + 3 → 45 - 45 +1 → 46, then 46 ×3 + 5 → 143 - The added constant in the multiplying step rises thr
9. Q9: Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows. Statement: No student of Class X failed the science exam this year. Conclusions: I. The science exam was very easy. II.
   Answer: B — Only Conclusion II follows
   The correct answer is Only Conclusion II follows. Key Points - The statement is: no student of Class X failed the science exam. - Conclusion II follows. If nobody failed, then everybody passed — this is simply the statement restated, and a
10. Q10: Instruction: Identify the assumptions that must hold for the statement to be valid, then choose the correct option. Statement: Although recent advancements in quantum computing have significantly impr
    Answer: A — Only I and II are implicit
    The correct answer is Only I and II are implicit. Key Points - The statement concedes that advances have improved processing speeds, but says the stability of quantum states remains a critical barrier. - Assumption I is implicit. Speaking o
11. Q11: Each of the letters in the word GARDEN is arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the letter that is fifth from the left and the one that
    Answer: C — Six
    The correct answer is Six. Key Points - Arrange GARDEN alphabetically: A, D, E, G, N, R. - Fifth from the left is N (A-1, D-2, E-3, G-4, N-5). - Third from the right is G (R-1st, N-2nd, G-3rd from the right). - Count the letters between G (
12. Q12: How many meaningful four-letter English words can be formed using the first, second, fourth, and fifth letters of the word "ELEVATE" (when counted from left to right), using each letter only
    Answer: D — 4
    The correct answer is 4. Key Points - Number the letters of ELEVATE: E(1) L(2) E(3) V(4) A(5) T(6) E(7). - The first, second, fourth and fifth letters are E, L, V, A. - Meaningful four-letter words using each exactly once: VALE (a valley),
13. Q13: Which of the following is/are identical to the address given: Rajesh Verma 15B, Sapphire Towers, Jaipur, 302018 1. Rajesh Verma 15B, Sapphire Towers, Jaipur, 302018 2. Rajesh Verma 15B, Sapphire Tower
    Answer: B — 1 Only
    The correct answer is 1 Only. Key Points - Compare each candidate against the reference field by field — name, flat number, building, city, PIN. - Item 1 matches on every field, including the PIN 302018. - Item 2 changes the PIN to 302019.
14. Q14: Find the option that best completes the analogy. EK :: MS :: FP : ?
    Answer: C — NX
    The correct answer is NX. Key Points - Compare the given pairs position by position: - E → M is a shift of +8 (E = 5, M = 13) - K → S is also +8 (K = 11, S = 19) - Applying the same +8 to F and P: - F (6) + 8 = N (14) - P (16) + 8 = X (24)
15. Q15: In each of the following questions, the second word is formed by rearranging the letters of the first word according to a specific pattern. Apply the same pattern to the third word to determine the co
    Answer: C — HGSOT
    The correct answer is HGSOT. Key Points - Compare NUMBER with UNBMRE in pairs: - N U → U N, M B → B M, E R → R E - The rule is to swap each adjacent pair of letters, working left to right. - GHOST has five letters, so the first two pairs sw
16. Q16: Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of my mother's only son." Who is the boy to the girl?
    Answer: C — Nephew
    The correct answer is Nephew. Key Points - Work outward from the innermost phrase. The speaker is a girl, and "my mother's only son" must therefore be her brother — the word only rules out any other son. - The boy is the son of he
17. Q17: One number doesn't match this factorial series: 2, 6, 24, 120, 720, 1000
    Answer: C — 1000
    The correct answer is 1000. Key Points - The series lists factorials: - 2! = 2, 3! = 6, 4! = 24, 5! = 120, 6! = 720 - The next factorial would be 7! = 5040, not 1000. - 1000 is therefore the term that does not belong. Additional Information
18. Q18: Which number set is different? : (11, 22, 44), (13, 26, 52), (15, 30, 60), (14, 28, 43)
    Answer: D — (14,28,43)
    The correct answer is (14, 28, 43). Key Points - In the other three sets each number is a doubling of the previous one — the pattern is n, 2n, 4n: - (11, 22, 44) → 11 × 2 = 22, 22 × 2 = 44 ✓ - (13, 26, 52) → 13 × 2 = 26, 26 × 2 = 52 ✓ - (15
19. Q19: If WRITE is coded as YTKVG , how is READ coded?
    Answer: A — TGCF
    The correct answer is TGCF. Key Points - Compare WRITE with YTKVG letter by letter: - W → Y, R → T, I → K, T → V, E → G — every letter moves +2 places. - Apply the same +2 shift to READ: - R → T, E → G, A → C, D → F - The code is TGCF. Addi
20. Q20: If 5 3 = 19 and 7 2 = 17 , what is 9 1 ?
    Answer: D — 11
    The correct answer is 11. Key Points - Find a rule satisfying both worked pairs. Here a b = b × (a + 1) + 1. - Check: 5 3 = 3 × (5 + 1) + 1 = 3 × 6 + 1 = 19 ✓ - Check: 7 2 = 2 × (7 + 1) + 1 = 2 × 8 + 1 = 17 ✓ - Apply it: 9 1 = 1 × (9 + 1) +
21. Q21: A 60 L mixture has a milk-water ratio of 7:3. How much water to add to make the ratio 1:1?
    Answer: D — 24 L
    The correct answer is 24 L. Key Points - Split the 60 L in the ratio 7 : 3 (ten parts of 6 L each): - Milk = 7 × 6 = 42 L, Water = 3 × 6 = 18 L - Adding water does not change the quantity of milk, which stays at 42 L. - For a 1 : 1 ratio th
22. Q22: Pointing to a girl, Aryan said, "She is the daughter of the only child of my grandmother." How is the girl related to Aryan?
    Answer: C — Sister
    The correct answer is Sister. Key Points - Resolve the innermost phrase first: "the only child of my grandmother" must be Aryan's parent — grandmother had exactly one child. - The girl is the daughter of that parent. - A daughter
23. Q23: Ramesh says, "The boy playing football is the younger of the two sons of my father's wife." How is the boy related to Ramesh?
    Answer: A — Brother
    The correct answer is Brother. Key Points - "My father's wife" is Ramesh's mother. - She has two sons, and Ramesh — the speaker — is necessarily one of them. - The boy playing football is the younger of those two sons, so he is Ra
24. Q24: If 11 / 19 = A and 2 / 9 = B, then what is A - B?
    Answer: A — 0.36
    The correct answer is 0.36. Key Points - Convert each fraction to a decimal: - A = 11 / 19 ≈ 0.5789 - B = 2 / 9 ≈ 0.2222 - Subtract: 0.5789 − 0.2222 ≈ 0.3567, which rounds to 0.36. - Exactly: 11/19 − 2/9 = (99 − 38) / 171 = 61/171 ≈ 0.3567.
25. Q25: If the sum of 35 and 46 is multiplied by 2, what is the result?
    Answer: C — 162
    The correct answer is 162. Key Points - Work strictly in the order the sentence states: - Sum first: 35 + 46 = 81 - Then multiply: 81 × 2 = 162 Additional Information - The phrase "the sum of A and B is multiplied by C" places the

General Awareness — Solved Questions

1. Q26: Consider the following statements about Gwalior Fort : 1. It is spread over a hilltop more than 2 km in length. 2. Its southern path features intricately carved rock-cut temples of Jain tirthankars. 3
   Answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
   The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. Gwalior Fort occupies a long sandstone hilltop plateau in Madhya Pradesh, extending well over 2 km. - Statement 2 is correct. The southern approach is lined with rock-cu
2. Q27: In Bhakti traditions, which two broad types of worship are mentioned?
   Answer: B — Saguna and Nirguna
   The correct answer is Saguna and Nirguna. Key Points - The Bhakti tradition divides by how the divine is conceived: - Saguna — God with form and attributes, worshipped as Rama, Krishna, Shiva or Devi - Nirguna — God without form or attribut
3. Q28: Which of the following best describes Annamacharya's contribution to Indian devotional music?
   Answer: B — Wrote over 32,000 songs promoting devotion and equality
   The correct answer is Wrote over 32,000 songs promoting devotion and equality. Key Points - Annamacharya (Annamayya, 1408-1503) was a Telugu composer-saint of Tirupati, devoted to Lord Venkateswara. - He is credited with composing around 32
4. Q29: Why can hockey players use only the flat, left-hand side of the stick?
   Answer: C — Prevents uneven bounce, ensures uniform rebound
   The correct answer is Prevents uneven bounce, ensures uniform rebound. Key Points - A hockey stick has one flat face and one rounded face, and the rules permit play only with the flat side. - The flat face gives a consistent, predictable re
5. Q30: What change did the Regulating Act bring to the post of the Governor of Bengal?
   Answer: C — His role was elevated to Governor-General with a council of four members.
   The correct answer is His role was elevated to Governor-General with a council. Key Points - The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first British parliamentary attempt to control the East India Company's Indian administration. - It designated t
6. Q31: Fill in the blanks: At the 1960 Rome Olympics, Milkha Singh set an Indian record by finishing Fourth in the men's 400 metres with a timing of a record that stood until 1984.
   Answer: D — 45.6 seconds
   The correct answer is 45.6 seconds. Key Points - At the 1960 Rome Olympics, Milkha Singh finished fourth in the men's 400 metres, missing a bronze by a fraction of a second. - His timing of about 45.6 seconds stood as the national record fo
7. Q32: Which of the following statements correctly reflect India's recent (2024) economic diplomacy and domestic investment facilitation reforms? 1) The India-Uzbekistan BIT allows unconditional access to in
   Answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
   The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. Key Points - Statement 1 is incorrect. India's Bilateral Investment Treaties follow the 2016 Model BIT, which requires an investor to exhaust local remedies for a defined period before resor
8. Q33: Where is the Dr. S. P. Mookerjee Swimming Stadium located?
   Answer: C — New Delhi
   The correct answer is New Delhi. Key Points - The Dr. Shyama Prasad Mookerjee Swimming Pool Complex is located in New Delhi, within the Talkatora sports precinct. - It is among the capital's principal aquatics venues and has hosted national
9. Q34: Which statement accurately represents the connection between 'Heart: A History' by Sandeep Jauhar and the Edgar Award for Best Novel?
   Answer: D — Non-fiction memoir, ineligible for Edgar Award
   The correct answer is Non-fiction memoir, ineligible for Edgar Award. Key Points - 'Heart: A History' by Sandeep Jauhar is a work of non-fiction, combining the medical history of cardiology with personal memoir. - The Edgar Award for Best N
10. Q35: In which type of geological formation are gorges most commonly developed?
    Answer: B — Hard rocks
    The correct answer is Hard rocks. Key Points - A gorge is a deep, narrow valley with near-vertical sides, formed where a river cuts downward far faster than the valley widens. - That profile requires hard, resistant rock: the steep walls st
11. Q36: Who inaugurated India's first lithium-ion battery plant in Tirupati, Andhra Pradesh, in September 2022?
    Answer: B — Rajeev Chandrasekhar, Minister of State for Electronics and Information Technology
    The correct answer is Rajeev Chandrasekhar, Minister of State for Electronics and IT. Key Points - India's first lithium-ion cell manufacturing plant at Tirupati, Andhra Pradesh, was inaugurated in September 2022 by Rajeev Chandrasekhar, th
12. Q37: Which Indian state recorded negative population growth between 2001-2011?
    Answer: C — Nagaland
    The correct answer is Nagaland. Key Points - In Census 2011, Nagaland was the only Indian state to record a negative decadal population growth rate (about −0.6%) for 2001-2011. - Its 2001 figure had shown an unusually high growth rate, and
13. Q38: Which of the following best describes the rate of natural increase of population?
    Answer: C — It is the difference between the birth rate and the death rate
    The correct answer is It is the difference between the birth rate and the death rate. Key Points - The rate of natural increase measures population change arising from births and deaths alone, excluding migration: - Natural increase = Crude
14. Q39: Examine the following statements about the SSLV-D2 mission and select the correct option: Statement 1: SSLV-D2 inserted EOS-07, Janus-1, and AzaadiSAT-2 into a 450 km circular orbit utilizing a three-
    Answer: B — Only Statement 2 is correct
    The correct answer is Only Statement 2 is correct. Key Points - Statement 1 is incorrect on propulsion. The SSLV uses three solid-propellant stages together with a liquid Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) for final orbit adjustment — so it is
15. Q40: What is the primary function of telomerase enzyme?
    Answer: B — Telomere lengthening
    The correct answer is Telomere lengthening. Key Points - Telomeres are repetitive DNA sequences capping the ends of chromosomes, protecting them from degradation and from fusing with one another. - Each round of DNA replication leaves the e
16. Q41: Which of the following commissions recommended the establishment of a Permanent Secretariat for the Inter-State Council to institutionalize Centre-State cooperation?
    Answer: C — Sarkaria Commission
    The correct answer is Sarkaria Commission. Key Points - The Sarkaria Commission, appointed in 1983 under Justice R. S. Sarkaria and reporting in 1988, examined Centre-State relations. - Among its recommendations was the creation of a perman
17. Q42: Why are cooking utensils often made with a copper bottom?
    Answer: C — Copper is a good conductor of heat, ensuring even heating.
    The correct answer is Copper is a good conductor of heat, ensuring even heating. Key Points - Copper has very high thermal conductivity, second only to silver among common metals. - A copper base spreads heat rapidly and evenly across the b
18. Q43: What is the primary objective of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in India?
    Answer: C — To provide a common set of personal laws for all citizens, irrespective of religion.
    The correct answer is To provide a common set of personal laws for all citizens. Key Points - A Uniform Civil Code would replace the community-specific personal laws governing marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption and maintenance with on
19. Q44: The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) provides support for?
    Answer: B — Agri-logistics and cold chains
    The correct answer is Agri-logistics and cold chains. Key Points - The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF), launched in 2020, is a financing facility for post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets. - It funds cold
20. Q45: Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Assertion (A): India Industrial Land Bank provides GIS-based information. Reason (R): It is managed by the M
    Answer: C — A is true, but R is false
    The correct answer is A is true, but R is false. Key Points - Assertion is true. The India Industrial Land Bank (IILB) is a GIS-enabled portal mapping industrial plots across states, showing plot area, connectivity and available infrastruct
21. Q46: According to the Global Peace Index 2024, which of the following statements correctly reflects global peace trends since 2008?
    Answer: C — Ongoing Conflict and Safety & Security have deteriorated, while Militarisation has improved
    The correct answer is Ongoing Conflict and Safety & Security have deteriorated. Key Points - The Global Peace Index (GPI) measures peacefulness across three domains: Ongoing Domestic and International Conflict, Societal Safety and Secur
22. Q47: Under India's updated State Action Plan on Climate Change (SAPCC) for 2025, which sector received the highest budgetary allocation for climate adaptation?
    Answer: C — Agriculture and Water Resources
    The correct answer is Agriculture and Water Resources. Key Points - State Action Plans on Climate Change (SAPCCs) translate the national climate strategy into state-level action, and their adaptation budgets are directed where climate risk
23. Q48: Which of the following correctly highlights a unique feature of India's textile industry?
    Answer: C — It is self-reliant across the full value chain
    The correct answer is It is self-reliant across the full value chain. Key Points - India's textile industry is unusual in spanning the entire value chain within the country — from fibre and yarn through spinning, weaving and processing to f
24. Q49: Which Article enables the President to establish an Inter-State Council?
    Answer: A — Article 263
    The correct answer is Article 263. Key Points - Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council if it appears that the public interest would be served by doing so. - The Council's functions are to inquire into and adv
25. Q50: Evaluate these statements regarding atmospheric layers: 1. Most weather phenomena occur in the stratosphere. 2. The ozone layer is primarily found in the troposphere. Which of the above is/are correct
    Answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
    The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is incorrect. Almost all weather phenomena — clouds, rainfall, storms and turbulence — occur in the troposphere, the lowest layer, not the stratosphere. The troposphere holds m

Quantitative Aptitude — Solved Questions

1. Q51: Suppose \(x = √2+√3,\ y = √5+1,\ z = 2√2+1\) ; then which of the following is true?
   Answer: A — \(x < y < z\)
   The correct answer is x < y < z. Key Points - Approximate each expression to two decimal places: - x = √2 + √3 ≈ 1.414 + 1.732 = 3.146 - y = √5 + 1 ≈ 2.236 + 1 = 3.236 - z = 2√2 + 1 ≈ 2.828 + 1 = 3.828 - Ordering them gives x < y &
2. Q52: The budget for a construction project is allocated to land acquisition, building materials, and labor in the ratio 5 : 3 : 2. During the project, the cost of land acquisition rose by 5%, building mate
   Answer: C — 1.5% increase
   The correct answer is 1.5% increase. Key Points - Treat the ratio 5 : 3 : 2 as actual units totalling 10. - Apply each change to its own component: - Land: 5 × 1.05 = 5.25 (up 5%) - Materials: 3 × 1.10 = 3.30 (up 10%) - Labour: 2 × 0.80 = 1
3. Q53: Evaluate: \(6 - [2/3 ÷ \1/6 + (1/2× (1 - 1/3))\]\)
   Answer: A — \(14/3\)
   The correct answer is 14/3. Key Points - Work strictly outward from the innermost bracket: - 1 − 1/3 = 2/3 - 1/2 × 2/3 = 1/3 - 1/6 + 1/3 = 1/6 + 2/6 = 1/2 - 2/3 ÷ 1/2 = 2/3 × 2/1 = 4/3 - 6 − 4/3 = 18/3 − 4/3 = 14/3 Additional Information -
4. Q54: X, Y, and Z invested ₹25,000, ₹35,000, and ₹40,000 respectively in a business. If the profit at the end of the year was ₹30,000, find Y's share.
   Answer: A — ₹10,500
   The correct answer is ₹10,500. Key Points - All three invested for the same duration, so profit divides in the ratio of capital alone. - 25,000 : 35,000 : 40,000 simplifies to 5 : 7 : 8, totalling 20 parts. - One part = 30,000 ÷ 20 = ₹1,500
5. Q55: A and B started a business by investing ₹48,000 and ₹72,000 respectively. After 6 months, A withdrew half of his capital, while B increased his capital by ₹24,000. At the end of the year, they earned
   Answer: C — ₹38,500
   The correct answer is ₹38,500. Key Points - Capital changes mid-year, so compute each partner's capital × time in two halves: - A: 48,000 × 6 + 24,000 × 6 = 288,000 + 144,000 = 432,000 - B: 72,000 × 6 + 96,000 × 6 = 432,000 + 576,000 = 1,00
6. Q56: Table – Daily Wages of 5 Workers Over 4 Days. What is the average daily earning of Worker C? Day, A, B, C, D, E; Day 1, 200, 180, 220, 160, 190; Day 2, 210, 175, 230, 170, 195; Day 3, 190, 185, 215, 1
   Answer: A — 222.5
   The correct answer is 222.5. Key Points - Read down the Worker C column across the four days: 220, 230, 215, 225. - Sum = 220 + 230 + 215 + 225 = 890. - Average = 890 ÷ 4 = 222.5. Additional Information - The first discipline in table-based
7. Q57: In a city, the current number of literate people is 25,000. If the number of literate males decreases by 5% and the number of literate females increases by 10%, the total literate population becomes 2
   Answer: C — 15,000
   The correct answer is 15,000. Key Points - Let literate males = m, so literate females = 25,000 − m. - The net change is 25,250 − 25,000 = +250, so: - −0.05m + 0.10(25,000 − m) = 250 - −0.05m + 2,500 − 0.10m = 250 - −0.15m = −2,250 → m = 15
8. Q58: A baker ordered 10 kg of premium flour and some additional kg of standard flour. The price of premium flour per kg was twice that of the standard flour. Due to an ordering error, the quantities of the
   Answer: B — 5 : 2
   The correct answer is 5 : 2. Key Points - Let standard flour cost s per kg, so premium costs 2s, and let the standard quantity be x kg. - Original cost: 10 kg premium + x kg standard = 10(2s) + xs = 20s + xs. - After the interchange: x kg p
9. Q59: A vendor sold 15 toys for ₹3000 and gained a profit of 25%. How many toys should he sell for ₹2816 to make a profit of 10%?
   Answer: B — 16
   The correct answer is 16. Key Points - Recover the cost price from the first sale: 15 toys sold for ₹3,000 at 25% profit, so - CP of 15 toys = 3,000 ÷ 1.25 = ₹2,400 → CP per toy = ₹160. - For a 10% profit the selling price per toy must be 1
10. Q60: A trader sells one brand of tea at ₹150 per kg, incurring a 25% loss. He also sells another brand of tea at ₹200 per kg, incurring a 20% loss. If he mixes the two brands in equal proportions and sells
    Answer: A — Loss of 22.22%
    The correct answer is Loss of 22.22%. Key Points - Recover each brand's cost price from its stated loss: - Brand 1: SP 150 at 25% loss → CP = 150 ÷ 0.75 = ₹200/kg - Brand 2: SP 200 at 20% loss → CP = 200 ÷ 0.80 = ₹250/kg - Mixing equal prop
11. Q61: A and B together can complete a work in 12 days. B and C together can complete the same work in 15 days. C and A together can do it in 20 days. In how many days can A alone complete the job?
    Answer: A — 30 days
    The correct answer is 30 days. Key Points - Convert each pair into one day's work: - A + B = 1/12, B + C = 1/15, C + A = 1/20 - Add all three: 2(A + B + C) = 1/12 + 1/15 + 1/20 = (5 + 4 + 3)/60 = 12/60 = 1/5. - So A + B + C = 1/10 of the wo
12. Q62: From a 64-liter container of pure spirit, 8 liters are removed and replaced by water. This operation is performed a total of three times. What is the final quantity of spirit remaining in the containe
    Answer: D — 42.88 liters
    The correct answer is 42.88 liters. Key Points - For repeated removal and replacement, the quantity of the original liquid remaining is: - Final = Initial × (1 − x/T)ⁿ, where x is removed each time from total T, over n operations. - Substit
13. Q63: A juice vendor mixes water with pure orange juice. If he sells the mixture at the cost price of pure orange juice and makes a profit of 20%, what is the ratio of water to pure orange juice in the mixt
    Answer: B — 1 : 5
    The correct answer is 1 : 5. Key Points - The vendor sells the mixture at the cost price of pure juice, so all the profit comes from the free water he has added. - If the water is w and the juice j, his cost covers only j while his revenue
14. Q64: A car covers 40% of a certain distance at a pace of 20 km/h and the remaining distance at a pace of 30 km/h. What is the average speed of the car for the entire journey?
    Answer: B — 25 km/h
    The correct answer is 25 km/h. Key Points - Take the total distance as 100 km to keep the arithmetic clean: - First leg: 40 km at 20 km/h → time = 2 hours - Second leg: 60 km at 30 km/h → time = 2 hours - Total time = 4 hours for 100 km. -
15. Q65: A and B are jogging around a park's circular track which has a perimeter of 1.2 km. They start from the same point at 6:00 a.m. and run in opposite directions. A's speed is 5 km/h, and B's speed is 7
    Answer: B — 6:30 AM
    The correct answer is 6:30 AM. Key Points - Running in opposite directions, their speeds add: relative speed = 5 + 7 = 12 km/h. - They meet each time they together cover one full lap of 1.2 km: - Time per meeting = 1.2 ÷ 12 = 0.1 hour = 6 m
16. Q66: The area of a sector of a circle with radius 7 cm and central angle 90° is:
    Answer: A — 38.5 cm²
    The correct answer is 38.5 cm². Key Points - Area of a sector = (θ/360) × πr². - With θ = 90° the sector is exactly a quarter circle: - (90/360) × (22/7) × 7² = (1/4) × (22/7) × 49 - (22/7) × 49 = 154, and a quarter of 154 = 38.5 cm². Addit
17. Q67: What is the radian measure of 150°?
    Answer: A — \(5π/6\)
    The correct answer is 5π/6. Key Points - Convert degrees to radians by multiplying by π/180: - 150 × π/180 = 150π/180 - Divide numerator and denominator by 30: 5π/6. Additional Information - The conversions worth memorising outright: 30° =
18. Q68: What is the area of a sector with a central angle of 120° and radius 8 cm?
    Answer: A — \(64π/3\) cm²
    The correct answer is 64π/3 cm². Key Points - Area of a sector = (θ/360) × πr². - Here θ = 120°, which is exactly one-third of a full circle, and r = 8: - (120/360) × π × 8² = (1/3) × π × 64 - That gives 64π/3 cm². Additional Information -
19. Q69: Which of these lines is parallel to \(3x + 2y = 5\) ?
    Answer: A — \(3x + 2y = 7\)
    The correct answer is 3x + 2y = 7. Key Points - Two lines are parallel when they have the same slope. - For a line ax + by = c, the slope is −a/b, so the slope depends only on the coefficients of x and y — the constant term shifts the line
20. Q70: If \(sin(90^ - x) = cos(2x)\) , then what is x?
    Answer: A — 0°
    The correct answer is 0°. Key Points - Use the complementary-angle identity: sin(90° − x) = cos x. - The equation becomes cos x = cos 2x. - Cosine values are equal when the angles are equal, so x = 2x, giving x = 0°. - Verify: sin(90° − 0)
21. Q71: If \(x = √5 + 2\) , then find the value of \(x^2 - 4√5\) .
    Answer: C — 9
    The correct answer is 9. Key Points - Expand x² using (a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² with a = √5 and b = 2: - x² = (√5)² + 2(√5)(2) + 2² = 5 + 4√5 + 4 = 9 + 4√5 - Subtract as asked: x² − 4√5 = (9 + 4√5) − 4√5 = 9. Additional Information - The sur
22. Q72: In △ABC and △XYZ, AB = XY, BC = YZ, and CA = ZX. By which congruence rule are the two triangles congruent?
    Answer: A — SSS
    The correct answer is SSS. Key Points - All three sides of one triangle are given equal to the corresponding three sides of the other: AB = XY, BC = YZ, CA = ZX. - Three pairs of equal sides with no angle information is the SSS (Side-Side-S
23. Q73: If \(A + B = 90^\) and \(sin A = 3/5\) , then find the value of \(tan B\) .
    Answer: A — \(4/3\)
    The correct answer is 4/3. Key Points - Since A + B = 90°, the angles are complementary, so B = 90° − A and tan B = tan(90° − A) = cot A. - From sin A = 3/5, the triangle is the 3-4-5 right triangle, giving cos A = 4/5. - Therefore cot A =
24. Q74: In a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD, the angle A is 100°. What is the measure of the angle C?
    Answer: B — 80°
    The correct answer is 80°. Key Points - In a cyclic quadrilateral — one whose four vertices lie on a circle — the opposite angles are supplementary, summing to 180°. - A and C are opposite, so: - ∠C = 180° − 100° = 80° - The same holds for
25. Q75: If \(sin^2 A - cos^2 A = 1/4\) , then find the value of \(cos^2 A\) .
    Answer: B — \(3/8\)
    The correct answer is 3/8. Key Points - Use the fundamental identity sin²A + cos²A = 1, so sin²A = 1 − cos²A. - Substitute into the given equation: - (1 − cos²A) − cos²A = 1/4 - 1 − 2cos²A = 1/4 - 2cos²A = 3/4 → cos²A = 3/8 Additional Infor

English Comprehension — Solved Questions

1. Q76: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: CAUSTIC
   Answer: D — Sarcastic
   The correct answer is Sarcastic. Key Points - Caustic describes remarks that are bitingly sarcastic, cutting or scathing. - Literally it means a substance capable of burning or corroding — caustic soda, for instance — and the figurative sen
2. Q77: Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: Make no bones about it
   Answer: C — To be direct and honest
   The correct answer is To be direct and honest. Key Points - Make no bones about it means to state something plainly and without hesitation, showing no reluctance or embarrassment. - The distractors reverse or muddle that sense — hesitating,
3. Q78: Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: Evanescent
   Answer: C — Enduring
   The correct answer is Enduring. Key Points - Evanescent means fleeting — vanishing quickly, lasting only a very short time. - Its opposite is enduring, meaning lasting or persisting. - Ephemeral, transient and fleeting are all synonyms of e
4. Q79: Identify the misspelt word.
   Answer: D — Inadvertant
   The correct answer is Inadvertant. Key Points - The correct spelling is inadvertent, ending in -ent, not "-ant". - It means unintentional or accidental, from Latin advertere, "to turn toward" — so inadvertent is literall
5. Q80: Spot the correct spelling of a metamorphic-texture word.
   Answer: B — Porphyroblastic
   The correct answer is Porphyroblastic. Key Points - The term describes a metamorphic rock texture in which large crystals — porphyroblasts — have grown within a finer-grained matrix. - The spelling follows its Greek parts: porphyro- (from p
6. Q81: Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A political system based on the rule of the wealthy' .
   Answer: C — Plutocracy
   The correct answer is Plutocracy. Key Points - Plutocracy is rule by the wealthy, from Greek ploutos, "wealth". - The distractors name different bases of rule: - Oligarchy — rule by a small group, whatever their qualification - Ar
7. Q82: Select the correct option: Only after a decade of fieldwork fully grasp the dialect's nuances.
   Answer: B — did she
   The correct answer is did she. Key Points - When a sentence opens with a restrictive expression such as Only after…, the subject and auxiliary invert, exactly as in a question. - So the structure is Only after a decade of fieldwork + did sh
8. Q83: Select the correct option: The professor's remarks were so dense with jargon that they bordered on .
   Answer: A — opacity
   The correct answer is opacity. Key Points - The phrase "bordered on " requires a noun, since on is a preposition and must take a noun as its object. - Opacity is the noun — the quality of being impenetrable or difficult to underst
9. Q84: Select the correct option: Her rebuttal, though eloquent, failed to the central issue raised by the opposition.
   Answer: A — address
   The correct answer is address. Key Points - To address an issue means to deal with or engage it directly, which is what a rebuttal is expected to do. - The sentence says the rebuttal failed to do this despite being eloquent, so the missing
10. Q85: Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The reforms being recommended by the panel (1) / are not only intended to streamline administrative functions (2) / but also addressing the asymme
    Answer: C — (3)
    The correct answer is part (3). Key Points - The sentence uses the correlative pair not only … but also, and the structures following each half must match. - Part (2) reads "are not only intended to streamline administrative functions&
11. Q86: Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: What the committee failed to deliberate on adequately (1) / were not the policy's objectives themselves, (2) / but the political ramifications it
    Answer: B — (2)
    The correct answer is part (2). Key Points - The subject is the noun clause "What the committee failed to deliberate on adequately", and a what-clause of this kind is treated as singular. - Part (2) uses the plural verb were; it s
12. Q87: Change the following from active to passive: The laboratory will have double-checked the reagents by dawn.
    Answer: B — The reagents will have been double-checked by the laboratory by dawn.
    The correct answer is The reagents will have been double-checked by the laboratory by dawn. Key Points - The active sentence is in the future perfect — will have double-checked — so the passive must be the future perfect passive. - Its stru
13. Q88: Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The fanon rested on the Pope's shoulder during Mass.
    Answer: C — The critic analyzed Fanon's theory of postcolonial identity.
    The correct answer is The critic analyzed Fanon's theory of postcolonial identity. Key Points - In the prompt, fanon is an ecclesiastical term — a vestment worn by the Pope during solemn Mass. - Options A, B and D all keep that same religio
14. Q89: Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: Rare minerals are known to have been secretly extracted from the site by unauthorized workers before
    Answer: C — Unauthorized workers are known to have secretly extracted rare minerals before inspection.
    The correct answer is Unauthorized workers are known to have secretly extracted rare minerals before inspection. Key Points - Two layers must be handled: the reporting frame "are known to" and the inner passive "to have been
15. Q90: What does the phrase 'gnawing dissonance' in the passage most likely refer to?
    Answer: B — Conflict between her inner worth and online ideals
    The correct answer is Conflict between her inner worth and online ideals. Key Points - The passage places the phrase directly between her authentic self and the impossible silhouettes idolized online, so the dissonance is the clash between
16. Q91: How does the passage describe Meera's psychological decline?
    Answer: C — Subtle and inwardly destructive
    The correct answer is Subtle and inwardly destructive. Key Points - The passage states explicitly that the descent was neither loud nor linear, which rules out anything abrupt, erratic or vocal. - It describes her as outwardly composed — ac
17. Q92: What concept helped Meera begin recovering emotionally?
    Answer: B — Self-image distortion
    The correct answer is Self-image distortion. Key Points - The passage states that therapeutic engagement introduced her to the concept of self-image distortion, together with the emotional scaffolding needed to rebuild her sense of identity
18. Q93: Which of the following best captures the central theme of the passage?
    Answer: C — Hidden psychological battles due to digital aesthetics
    The correct answer is Hidden psychological battles due to digital façades. Key Points - The passage closes by generalising from one case to a larger epidemic, describing teenagers fighting unspoken wars behind flawless digital façades — whi
19. Q94: What is the tone of the author at the end of the paragraph?
    Answer: B — Reflective and critical
    The correct answer is Reflective and critical. Key Points - The closing lines widen from Meera's case to a societal diagnosis, and argue that awareness alone is insufficient — calling for critical media literacy, empathetic environments and
20. Q95: Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: I suggested that he goes to the doctor immediately .
    Answer: C — go to the doctor immediately
    The correct answer is go to the doctor immediately. Key Points - Suggest takes the subjunctive in a that-clause: suggest that + subject + base verb. - The base form is go, regardless of the subject, so "that he goes" is wrong. - S
21. Q96: Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: I am used to get up early in the morning.
    Answer: C — to getting up early
    The correct answer is to getting up early. Key Points - Be used to — meaning accustomed to — takes a noun or gerund, because to here is a preposition, not part of an infinitive. - So the correct form is "I am used to getting up early&q
22. Q97: A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. She said, "He doesn't listen t
    Answer: C — She said that he didn't listen to her.
    The correct answer is She said that he didn't listen to her. Key Points - The reporting verb said is past, so the reported clause backshifts: present simple doesn't listen becomes past simple didn't listen. - The pronoun changes with the sp
23. Q98: A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. The manager informed the employees
    Answer: B — "The deadline has been extended by two days," said the manager.
    The correct answer is "The deadline has been extended by two days," said the manager. Key Points - Converting indirect to direct speech reverses the backshift: the past perfect had been extended returns to the present perfect has
24. Q99: Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: These narratives often explore the ethical and social consequences of technological advancement, from artificial intelligence to genetic
    Answer: A — 2, 4, 1, 3
    The correct answer is 2, 4, 1, 3. Key Points - Sentence 2 opens: it defines science fiction as a genre, introducing the subject with no back-reference. - Sentence 4 follows, conceding that while entertaining, the genre serves a purpose beyo
25. Q100: Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: This process ensures that the food we eat is safe and does not contain harmful bacteria or other contaminants. Food processing is a seri
    Answer: A — 2, 3, 1, 4
    The correct answer is 2, 3, 1, 4. Key Points - Sentence 2 opens by defining food processing as a series of methods transforming raw ingredients into consumable products. - Sentence 3 follows immediately: "These methods can range from…&

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are there in the SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 13 Sep 2025 (Shift 1)?

The SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 13 Sep 2025 (Shift 1) has 100 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

When was the SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 13 Sep 2025 (Shift 1) held?

The SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 13 Sep 2025 (Shift 1) was held on 13 September 2025.

Is there negative marking in SSC CGL 2025?

Yes. SSC CGL deducts 0.5 marks for every wrong answer, so accuracy matters as much as attempting more questions.

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