JKSSB Sub Inspector (Executive) 2022 — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

Reasoning — Solved Questions

1. Q1: A sheet of paper has been folded in different steps as shown in the question figure. How does the paper look when it is opened? Select one of the options given.
   Answer: C — 3
   The correct answer is 3. Key Points - Paper folding questions test spatial visualisation. - When a sheet is folded in steps and then punched or cut, unfolding it reveals a symmetric pattern based on the fold lines. - The key is to trace eac
2. Q19: Study the diagram carefully and answer the question: In this diagram the triangle represents doctors, the circle represents players, and the rectangle represents artists. Which numbered space in the d
   Answer: B — 2
   The correct answer is 2. Key Points - In a Venn diagram with a triangle (doctors), circle (players), and rectangle (artists): the region that is inside both the triangle and rectangle but OUTSIDE the circle represents people who are doctors
3. Q30: In a certain code, '731' means 'study very hard', '953' means 'hard work pays' and '145' means 'study and work'. Which of the following is the code for 'very'?
   Answer: B — 7
   The correct answer is 7. Key Points - By matching words appearing in two coded sentences: "study" appears in codes 731 and 145 -- common digit is 1 -- so study = 1. "work" appears in 953 and 145 -- common digit is 5 -- s
4. Q32: Which of the figures given in the answer figures will complete the figural series given in the problem figures?
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Figural series questions test pattern recognition. - Each figure in the series follows a specific rule -- such as rotation, addition of elements, or change in shape/position. - By identifying the
5. Q57: Hitesh started walking from his home. First, he walked straight from his home and took a left turn. He then walked for some more distance and took a right turn. Again, he walked some distance and took
   Answer: A — East
   The correct answer is East. Key Points - Tracing Hitesh's path in reverse to find his starting direction: He ends facing North after his last left turn. - Before the last left turn, he was facing East (a left turn from East gives North). -
6. Q60: Alex who was facing the West direction turns 135 degrees in the clockwise direction and then turns 45 degrees in the anti-clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
   Answer: A — North
   The correct answer is North. Key Points - Using compass bearings (0=North, 90=East, 180=South, 270=West): Alex starts facing West (270 degrees). - Turns 135 degrees clockwise: 270 + 135 = 405 = 45 degrees = North-East. - Then turns 45 degre
7. Q74: Directions: In the following figure, circle represents literate, bigger rectangle represents healthy and smaller rectangle represents rich people. Which number represents those literates who are neith
   Answer: A — 4
   The correct answer is 4. Key Points - In the Venn diagram described, the circle represents literate people, the bigger rectangle represents healthy people, and the smaller rectangle represents rich people. - The region exclusively inside th
8. Q77: Instruction: Below mentioned are statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Statements
   Answer: A — Only II follows
   The correct answer is Only II follows. Key Points - Given: Some fruits are vegetables. - Some vegetables are leafy vegetables. - No leafy vegetable is a fruit (directly stated). - Conclusion I: All fruits are leafy vegetables -- This contra
9. Q80: Which is the odd one out among the four images?
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - In odd-one-out visual questions, three of the four figures share a common property (rotation, reflection, or pattern) while one does not follow the same rule. - By examining symmetry, orientation
10. Q97: Select one of the following four options that will make the 2nd pair analogous to the 1st pair given. 345 : 12 :: 179 : ?
    Answer: D — 17
    The correct answer is 17. Key Points - The pattern in "345 : 12" is obtained by summing the digits: 3 + 4 + 5 = 12. Applying the same rule to 179: 1 + 7 + 9 = 17. Therefore, 179 : 17 follows the same analogy. - This is a digit-sum
11. Q103: What is the coded number for WNCSZV from the following? LETTER: C Z N V R S W F D CODE: 8 6 4 7 2 9 3 5 1
    Answer: D — 348967
    The correct answer is 348967. Key Points - Using the given coding table: W=3, N=4, C=8, S=9, Z=6, V=7. Encoding WNCSZV: W-3, N-4, C-8, S-9, Z-6, V-7. Combining: 3, 4, 8, 9, 6, 7 = 348967. - Verification: W(3), N(4), C(8), S(9), Z(6), V(7).
12. Q105: Choose the correct match of the image that will fill the blank space.
    Answer: B — (b)
    The correct answer is (b). Key Points - Matrix completion questions require identifying the pattern governing a grid of shapes or figures and finding the figure that correctly fills the blank cell. - The pattern typically involves systemati
13. Q108: Directions: Read the following statements and answer the question given below: A is the Father of B, but B is not his son. C is the daughter of B. D is the wife of A. E is the brother of B. H is the s
    Answer: B — F
    The correct answer is F. Key Points - From the given family relationships: A is the father of B. B is not a son (so B is a daughter). - E is the brother of B. F is the wife of E. The sister-in-law of B is the wife of B's brother. - B's brot
14. Q110: Given below is a question followed by 2 statements numbered I and II. Choose the statement(s) required to answer the question. Question: What is the length of the line segment AC? I. Length of line se
    Answer: D — Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
    The correct answer is Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. Key Points - To find the length of AC, we would need to know that B lies on line segment AC (i.e., A, B, C are collinear with B between A and C). - Statement I gives
15. Q114: Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the statement given below? Statement: The dietician advised — "Eat healthy & avoid junk food to stay fit" Assumption (I): Junk food isn'
    Answer: A — Only Assumption I is implicit
    The correct answer is Only Assumption I is implicit. Key Points - Assumption I: "Junk food isn't healthy" -- This IS implicit in the statement "avoid junk food to stay fit." The dietician's advice assumes junk food is un
16. Q115: Instruction: Below mentioned are statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Statements
    Answer: D — Both II and III follow
    The correct answer is Both II and III follow. Key Points - Given: All lions are cats. All cats are hunters. - Conclusion I: All hunters are lions -- INVALID. - Not all hunters are necessarily lions (there could be non-lion hunters). - Concl

English Language — Solved Questions

1. Q2: Complete the sentence by choosing the correct option; In formatting an e-mail, care should be taken that
   Answer: C — the entire message is not written in capital letters
   The correct answer is the entire message is not written in capital letters. Key Points - Email etiquette requires that messages be written in normal case -- not entirely in capital letters. - Writing in ALL CAPS is universally interpreted a
2. Q3: What kind of a phrase is the underlined part of the sentence? The diamond is shining brightly, that everyone is mesmerized by it.
   Answer: A — Adverb Phrase
   The correct answer is Adverb Phrase. Key Points - An adverb phrase is a group of words that functions as an adverb -- it modifies a verb, adjective, or another adverb. - In the sentence, "brightly, that everyone is mesmerized by it&quo
3. Q4: Choose the correct word substitute for the following sentence: One who engages in an art, science, study, or sport for pleasure rather than payment
   Answer: A — amateur
   The correct answer is amateur. Key Points - An "amateur" is a person who pursues an activity -- such as a sport, art, or science -- purely for personal enjoyment or passion, without receiving financial compensation. - The word com
4. Q14: Identify the synonym for the word - imminent
   Answer: C — impending
   The correct answer is impending. Key Points - "Imminent" means something that is about to happen very soon, especially something unpleasant or dangerous. - Its closest synonym is "impending," which similarly describes an
5. Q26: What would be a barrier to communication in a foreign country?
   Answer: A — Not knowing the language
   The correct answer is Not knowing the language. Key Points - Language is the most fundamental medium of communication, and not knowing the local language creates an insurmountable communication barrier in a foreign country. - Without a shar
6. Q27: Identify the Antonym for the word - jeopardy
   Answer: D — safety
   The correct answer is safety. Key Points - "Jeopardy" means danger, risk, or the possibility of loss or harm. - Its antonym -- a word with the opposite meaning -- is "safety," which means freedom from danger or risk. - A
7. Q40: How can barriers created by refutations and arguments be resolved?
   Answer: A — listening to the views of the other
   The correct answer is listening to the views of the other. Key Points - Communication barriers created by refutations, arguments, or disagreements are best resolved by active listening -- genuinely hearing and considering the other person's
8. Q48: Which of these can be a barrier to communication?
   Answer: C — Use of high-sounding words
   The correct answer is Use of high-sounding words. Key Points - High-sounding or complex vocabulary creates a semantic barrier to communication. - When the sender uses jargon, technical language, or unnecessarily elaborate words that the rec
9. Q53: Identify the Antonym for the word - disparity
   Answer: D — similarity
   The correct answer is similarity. Key Points - "Disparity" means a great difference or inequality between things (e.g., economic disparity, gender disparity). - Its antonym -- a word with the opposite meaning -- is "similarit
10. Q66: Identify the synonym of the word - acrimony
    Answer: A — rancor
    The correct answer is rancor. Key Points - "Acrimony" refers to bitterness or ill feeling, especially in speech or manner. - Its closest synonym is "rancor," which also means deep-seated bitterness, resentment, or spite.
11. Q70: Listening is
    Answer: A — an accurate perception of what is being communicated
    The correct answer is an accurate perception of what is being communicated. Key Points - Listening is an active, conscious process -- it goes far beyond merely hearing sounds. - True listening involves accurately perceiving, understanding,
12. Q76: Identify the part of the sentence that has an error: The college offer all the courses of arts and humanity but no courses of science.
    Answer: A — The college offer
    The correct answer is The college offer. Key Points - "The college offer all the courses..." contains a subject-verb agreement error. - "College" is a singular subject, so it requires the singular form of the verb: "
13. Q85: What is the meaning of miscommunication?
    Answer: D — The receiver not perceiving the intended meaning of the message
    The correct answer is The receiver not perceiving the intended meaning of the message. Key Points - Miscommunication occurs when the receiver does not perceive or understand the intended meaning of the sender's message. - Despite the sender
14. Q88: Identify the part of the sentence that has an error: The dog pounced in the thief when he tried to run away.
    Answer: B — in the thief
    The correct answer is in the thief. Key Points - "Pounced in the thief" contains a preposition error. - The correct preposition after "pounced" is "on" -- "pounced on the thief." The phrase "poun
15. Q93: Choose the best option to complete the sentence: Most of the communication methods used today are .
    Answer: A — technology-based
    The correct answer is technology-based. Key Points - The vast majority of communication methods in use today are technology-based. - From emails, social media, video calls (Zoom, Teams), smartphones, and instant messaging apps to television
16. Q96: What kind of a phrase is the underlined part of the sentence? The glass was full of water when it slipped from his hands.
    Answer: D — Adjective Phrase
    The correct answer is Adjective Phrase. Key Points - "Was full of water" is an adjective phrase because it modifies the noun "glass" -- it describes the state or quality of the glass (what the glass was like). - Adjectiv
17. Q102: Whom would you choose as the recipient of a message?
    Answer: B — Those who will be affected by the message or its results
    The correct answer is Those who will be affected by the message or its results. Key Points - Effective communication requires choosing the right recipient -- the person or group who needs the information, will act on it, or will be affected
18. Q106: Complete the sentence with the correct option: The sender should choose his words very carefully in order to :
    Answer: C — avoid ambiguity
    The correct answer is avoid ambiguity. Key Points - Choosing words carefully in communication is essential to avoid ambiguity -- unclear or double meanings that can confuse the receiver. - Ambiguous language leads to misinterpretation, misu
19. Q119: Choose the correct word substitute for the following sentence: The branch of Physics concerned with the properties of sound.
    Answer: C — Acoustics
    The correct answer is Acoustics. Key Points - Acoustics is the branch of Physics (and engineering) concerned with the study of sound -- its production, transmission, reception, properties, and effects. - The word comes from the Greek "

J&K General Knowledge — Solved Questions

1. Q5: As per the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act 2019, the Union territory of Ladakh comprises of which of the following territories of the State of Jammu and Kashmir?
   Answer: A — Kargil and Leh districts
   The correct answer is Kargil and Leh districts. Key Points - Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Ladakh was carved out of the former state of J&K and comprises two districts: Kargil and Leh. - La
2. Q12: The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 received assent from the President on:
   Answer: C — 9th August, 2019
   The correct answer is 9th August, 2019. Key Points - The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 was passed by both Houses of Parliament in August 2019. - It received the assent of the President of India on 9th August, 2019. - The Act bi
3. Q54: As of 2021, the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, consists of:
   Answer: A — 103 Sections and 5 Schedules
   The correct answer is 103 Sections and 5 Schedules. Key Points - The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 (Act No. 34 of 2019) contains 103 Sections and 5 Schedules. - The five schedules cover: Schedule I (territories of J&K UT),
4. Q55: As per the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act 2019, the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir shall be:
   Answer: D — 107
   The correct answer is 107. Key Points - As per the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir shall have a total of 107 members. - Of these, 90 seats are for constituenci
5. Q62: As per the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, how many women representatives can be nominated to the Legislative Assembly of the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
   Answer: A — 2
   The correct answer is 2. Key Points - The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 provides that the Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir may nominate 2 women members to the Legislative Assembly if he is of the
6. Q65: A list of all Central laws made applicable to the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is provided under which schedule of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019?
   Answer: D — Fifth Schedule
   The correct answer is Fifth Schedule. Key Points - The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 contains 5 Schedules. - The Fifth Schedule (Schedule V) of the Act lists all the Central laws (Acts of Parliament) that are made applicable to
7. Q95: The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 has introduced certain changes in 'The States and The Union Territories' sections of the Constitution. Accordingly, which of the following Schedules of t
   Answer: A — First Schedule
   The correct answer is First Schedule. Key Points - The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 required amending the First Schedule of the Constitution of India. - The First Schedule lists all the States and Union Territories of India al
8. Q104: As per the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, an Administrator will be appointed under Article 239 of the Constitution of India for the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir and he/she shall b
   Answer: B — Lieutenant Governor
   The correct answer is Lieutenant Governor. Key Points - Under Article 239 of the Constitution, every Union Territory is administered by the President through an Administrator. - The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 specifically de
9. Q111: According to the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act, 2019, the Union Territory created without a Legislature is:
   Answer: A — Ladakh
   The correct answer is Ladakh. Key Points - The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 created two Union Territories: (1) Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir -- which has its own Legislative Assembly (legislature), and (2) Union Territo
10. Q117: As per the provisions of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, which Article of Indian Constitution is applicable to the "Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir"?
    Answer: D — Article 239A
    The correct answer is Article 239A. Key Points - Article 239A of the Constitution of India provides for the creation of local legislatures or councils of ministers for certain Union Territories. - The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2

Computer Knowledge — Solved Questions

1. Q6: Which of the following options is a web browser to access the internet?
   Answer: B — Google Chrome
   The correct answer is Google Chrome. Key Points - A web browser is software that allows users to access and navigate the internet. - Google Chrome, developed by Google, is one of the most widely used web browsers. - Microsoft Word is a word
2. Q8: To control the operations of a computer which of the following software is designed?
   Answer: B — System
   The correct answer is System. Key Points - System software is designed to manage and control the hardware of a computer and provide a platform for running application software. - The operating system (OS) -- such as Windows, Linux, or macOS
3. Q45: Which of the following markup language is used to add effects to a web page?
   Answer: B — DHTML
   The correct answer is DHTML. Key Points - DHTML stands for Dynamic HTML. - It is a combination of HTML, CSS, JavaScript, and the DOM (Document Object Model) used to create interactive and dynamic effects on web pages -- such as animations,
4. Q49: What is the number of bits of an IP address in IPv6 version?
   Answer: C — 128
   The correct answer is 128. Key Points - IPv4 (Internet Protocol version 4) uses 32-bit addresses, providing approximately 4.3 billion unique addresses. - IPv6 (Internet Protocol version 6) was developed to address the exhaustion of IPv4 add
5. Q81: What does the term "Soft" indicate in Software?
   Answer: C — Computer software can be changed easily by users as per their requirement and hence the term soft appearing in it
   The correct answer is Computer software can be changed easily by users as per their requirement and hence the term soft appearing in it. Key Points - The term "soft" in software reflects the fundamental nature of computer programs
6. Q82: What will happen to data in RAM (Random Access Memory) when power goes off and computer shuts down?
   Answer: C — Data stored in Random Access Memory is lost when power goes off and it will have to be recreated.
   The correct answer is Data stored in Random Access Memory is lost when power goes off and it will have to be recreated.. Key Points - RAM (Random Access Memory) is a type of volatile memory -- it requires a constant supply of power to retai
7. Q90: Which one of the following is a standard mail protocol used to receive emails from a remote server to a local email client?
   Answer: B — POP3
   The correct answer is POP3. Key Points - POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) is a standard internet mail protocol used to retrieve email from a mail server to a local email client (such as Outlook or Thunderbird). - POP3 downloads emails
8. Q92: Which of the following is an online discussion group where people can join a group and post messages to that group?
   Answer: C — Forums
   The correct answer is Forums. Key Points - An online forum (also called Internet forum or discussion board) is a digital platform where people with shared interests can post messages, start discussions, and reply to others in a community se
9. Q99: Which device is used to perform the traffic directing functions on the Internet?
   Answer: C — Router
   The correct answer is Router. Key Points - A router is a networking device that forwards data packets between computer networks, directing internet traffic. - It determines the best path for data to travel from source to destination across
10. Q107: A printed circuit board that can be installed to enhance a computer's capabilities, as by increasing memory or improving graphics is called
    Answer: C — expansion board
    The correct answer is expansion board. Key Points - An expansion board (also called an expansion card or add-in card) is a printed circuit board that can be inserted into an expansion slot on a computer's motherboard to add or enhance funct
11. Q113: Which of the following refers to a web address which uniquely identifies an object over the internet?
    Answer: B — URL
    The correct answer is URL. Key Points - A URL (Uniform Resource Locator) is a web address that uniquely identifies a specific resource (webpage, file, image, video) on the internet. - It specifies the protocol (http/https), domain name, and

Environment & Ecology — Solved Questions

1. Q7: Which of the following is NOT a cause for the loss of biodiversity in general?
   Answer: D — Reforestation
   The correct answer is Reforestation. Key Points - Reforestation -- the process of replanting trees in areas where forests have been cleared -- is NOT a cause of biodiversity loss. - It actually helps restore habitats and increases biodivers
2. Q13: A forest of trees and undergrowth plants inhabited by animals and rooted in soil containing bacteria and fungi is an example of
   Answer: D — Biological community
   The correct answer is Biological community. Key Points - A biological community (also called biotic community) refers to all the living organisms -- plants, animals, fungi, bacteria -- that inhabit and interact within a particular area. - I
3. Q20: Which of the following document was submitted by Government of India before COP21 in Paris?
   Answer: A — Intended Nationally Determined Contribution
   The correct answer is Intended Nationally Determined Contribution. Key Points - Before the COP21 climate summit in Paris (2015), each country was required to submit its planned climate action -- called the Intended Nationally Determined Con
4. Q63: The term Biomagnification refers to
   Answer: A — increase in the concentration of non-degradable pollutant as they pass through food chain
   The correct answer is increase in the concentration of non-degradable pollutant as they pass through food chain. Key Points - Biomagnification (biological magnification) refers to the progressive increase in the concentration of non-biodegr
5. Q64: Which of the following options is NOT an example of Abiotic component of an ecosystem?
   Answer: D — Fungi
   The correct answer is Fungi. Key Points - Abiotic components of an ecosystem are the non-living physical and chemical elements of the environment, including air, water, soil, sunlight, temperature, and minerals. - Biotic components are the
6. Q69: The 'Montreal Protocol' is an international treaty designed to fulfil which of the following objectives?
   Answer: C — Ozone Layer Protection
   The correct answer is Ozone Layer Protection. Key Points - The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer was adopted in 1987 and entered into force in 1989. - It is an international environmental treaty designed to phase
7. Q83: The indigenous catfishes in Indian rivers are facing a threat of extinction because of which reason among the following options?
   Answer: B — Alien species invasion
   The correct answer is Alien species invasion. Key Points - Indigenous catfishes in Indian rivers face a severe threat from alien species invasion. - Exotic fish species (such as African catfish, suckermouth armoured catfish, and tilapia) in
8. Q101: What type of food chain exhibits the following way of transfer of energy in an ecology? Dead organism → Fungi → Bacteria
   Answer: C — Saprophytic food chain
   The correct answer is Saprophytic food chain. Key Points - The food chain "Dead organism - Fungi - Bacteria" represents the Saprophytic (Detritus) food chain. - Saprophytes are organisms (mainly fungi and bacteria) that obtain the

General Knowledge & Current Affairs — Solved Questions

1. Q9: The Wing Commander (now Group Captain) Abhinandan Varthaman was accorded with which of the following gallantry awards (2021), for shooting down a Pakistani F-16 fighter aircraft during aerial combat?
   Answer: C — Vir Chakra
   The correct answer is Vir Chakra. Key Points - Wing Commander Abhinandan Varthaman (later promoted to Group Captain) shot down a Pakistani F-16 fighter aircraft during the aerial combat that followed the Balakot airstrike in February 2019.
2. Q22: In 2021, the Supreme Court of India launched an Artificial Intelligence (AI) based portal through which it intends to leverage machine learning to deal with the vast amounts of data received at the ti
   Answer: B — SUPACE
   The correct answer is SUPACE. Key Points - SUPACE stands for Supreme Court Portal for Assistance in Courts Efficiency. - It was launched by the Supreme Court of India in 2021 as an AI-powered tool to process and analyse case-related informa
3. Q28: In October 2021, who became the first Indian woman to reach the finals and win the Silver medal at the 2021 World Wrestling Championships in the 57kg category?
   Answer: C — Anshu Malik
   The correct answer is Anshu Malik. Key Points - Anshu Malik created history at the 2021 World Wrestling Championships held in Oslo, Norway, by becoming the first Indian woman wrestler to reach the final of a World Championship in the 57 kg
4. Q35: In September 2021, the government has set up an asset management company that will work in tandem with the National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd (NARCL) to clean up bad loans. Identify the name of
   Answer: C — India Debt Resolution Company Limited
   The correct answer is India Debt Resolution Company Limited. Key Points - The India Debt Resolution Company Ltd (IDRCL) was set up by the Government of India to work alongside the National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd (NARCL) in resolvi
5. Q39: In October 2021, Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the second phase of Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban (SBM-U) and Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT). These have been desig
   Answer: C — Garbage Free and Water Secure
   The correct answer is Garbage Free and Water Secure. Key Points - Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the second phase of Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban (SBM-U 2.0) and AMRUT 2.0 on October 1, 2021. - SBM-U 2.0 aims to make all cities "
6. Q50: In August 2021, India's first 'Smog Tower', an experimental set up to purify air in a 1-km radius around the structure, at a rate of around 1,000 cubic metres of air per second was installed in which
   Answer: D — Delhi
   The correct answer is Delhi. Key Points - India's first Smog Tower was inaugurated on August 23, 2021, at Connaught Place (Baba Kharak Singh Marg) in New Delhi. - The tower, standing 24 metres tall, was designed as an experimental pilot pro
7. Q89: The new SARS-CoV-2 variant, B.1.1.529 first reported in South Africa, classified as a "Variant of Concern" by the World Health Organization is named as:
   Answer: C — Omicron
   The correct answer is Omicron. Key Points - The SARS-CoV-2 variant B.1.1.529, first detected in Botswana and South Africa in November 2021, was designated a Variant of Concern (VOC) by the WHO on November 26, 2021, and named Omicron (the 15
8. Q91: The Ministry of Labour & Employment launched India's first centralised database of unorganised workers in 2021 which will be helpful in delivering various social security schemes being implemented
   Answer: C — eSHRAM
   The correct answer is eSHRAM. Key Points - The Ministry of Labour and Employment launched eSHRAM -- India's first national database of unorganised workers -- in August 2021. - The portal (eshram.gov.in) registers unorganised workers (constr
9. Q109: The period of transition from childhood to adulthood is known as
   Answer: D — Adolescence
   The correct answer is Adolescence. Key Points - Adolescence is the transitional stage of development between childhood and adulthood, typically occurring between ages 10-19 (or 12-24 in broader definitions). - It is characterised by puberty

Quantitative Aptitude — Solved Questions

1. Q10: Mohan saves Rs. 30 by getting 5% discount on an article. What is the amount of money paid by him?
   Answer: C — Rs. 570
   The correct answer is Rs. 570. Key Points - Mohan saves Rs. 30 on a 5% discount. - This means 5% of the original price = Rs. 30. So the original price = (30 x 100) / 5 = Rs. 600. - The amount paid = Original price - Discount = 600 - 30 = Rs
2. Q23: Study the following table carefully to answer the questions. The table gives the number of people visiting six different malls and the percentage distribution of men, women and children who are visiti
   Answer: C — 1672
   The correct answer is 1672. Key Points - This question requires the data from the accompanying table. - Mall R had a specified total number of visitors and a percentage of women visitors. - Using the percentage given for women in Mall R app
3. Q29: The number which bears the same ratio to (7/43) that (9/22) does to (5/11) is
   Answer: B — 63/430
   The correct answer is 63/430. Key Points - We need a number x such that: x : (7/43) = (9/22) : (5/11). - This means x/(7/43) = (9/22)/(5/11). - Solving the right side: (9/22) divided by (5/11) = (9/22) x (11/5) = 99/110 = 9/10. So x = (7/43
4. Q38: If Rs. 306 is 5/9 % of the price of a sofa, then the price of the sofa is
   Answer: A — ₹ 55080
   The correct answer is ₹ 55080. Key Points - If Rs. 306 is 5/9% of the price of the sofa, then: Price = 306 divided by (5/9 divided by 100) = 306 x (9/5) x 100 = 306 x 180 = Rs. 55,080. - Verification: 5/9% of 55,080 = (5/9)/100 x 55,080 = (
5. Q100: If x:y = 1:3, then the ratio (7x² + 3xy) : (2xy + y²) is
   Answer: D — 16:15
   The correct answer is 16:15. Key Points - Given x:y = 1:3, let x = 1 and y = 3. Numerator: 7x^2 + 3xy = 7(1)^2 + 3(1)(3) = 7 + 9 = 16. Denominator: 2xy + y^2 = 2(1)(3) + (3)^2 = 6 + 9 = 15. Therefore the ratio (7x^2 + 3xy) : (2xy + y^2) = 1
6. Q112: The average weight of 25 kids is 24 kg. If the weight of a man is included, then the average weight increases by 2 kg. The weight of the man is
   Answer: C — 76 kg
   The correct answer is 76 kg. Key Points - Average weight of 25 kids = 24 kg, so total weight = 25 x 24 = 600 kg. - After including the man, the new average for 26 people = 24 + 2 = 26 kg. - New total = 26 x 26 = 676 kg. - Weight of the man
7. Q116: Priya leaves her house at 20 minutes to 6 in the evening and takes 30 minutes to reach Anjali's house. They finish their work in another 10 minutes and leave for their office which takes another 40 mi
   Answer: B — 7:00 PM
   The correct answer is 7:00 PM. Key Points - Priya leaves home at 20 minutes to 6 = 5:40 PM. - She takes 30 minutes to reach Anjali's house: 5:40 + 0:30 = 6:10 PM. - They finish work in 10 minutes: 6:10 + 0:10 = 6:20 PM. - Then 40 minutes to
8. Q118: Study the piecharts carefully to answer the questions. The number of female employees working in HR and IT department together is x percent of the total number of employees in the company. What is 'x'
   Answer: A — 23.68%
   The correct answer is 23.68%. Key Points - This is a data interpretation question based on a pie chart showing the distribution of employees by department and gender. - The pie chart provides the percentage of female employees in HR and IT

History — Solved Questions

1. Q11: As a result of the partition under the Mountbatten Plan of 3rd June, 1947, the membership of the Constituent Assembly was reduced to
   Answer: C — 299 members
   The correct answer is 299 members. Key Points - The Constituent Assembly originally had 389 members before partition. - After the Mountbatten Plan of June 3, 1947 and the partition of India, Muslim League members from Pakistan's territory c
2. Q18: Who among the following leaders was associated with the papers 'Commonweal' and 'New India' which were used to popularise the idea of achieving self-government for India?
   Answer: A — Mrs. Annie Besant
   The correct answer is Mrs. Annie Besant. Key Points - Mrs. Annie Besant, an Irish-born theosophist and advocate for Indian self-rule, published two influential newspapers: "Commonweal" (1914) and "New India" (1914). - Th
3. Q33: Kalinga war changed the life of king Ashoka. In which modern state of India is Kalinga located?
   Answer: A — Odisha
   The correct answer is Odisha. Key Points - Kalinga was an ancient kingdom on the eastern coast of the Indian subcontinent, corresponding to the modern state of Odisha (and parts of Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh). - The Kalinga War (c. 261
4. Q36: Gandhara school of art was one of the major schools of art in the history of ancient India. It flourished and developed during the rule of which of the following dynasties in India?
   Answer: A — Kushana dynasty
   The correct answer is Kushana dynasty. Key Points - The Gandhara school of art flourished in the northwestern Indian subcontinent (present-day Afghanistan and Pakistan) during the 1st to 5th centuries CE, primarily under the patronage of th
5. Q47: Identify the national leader who tried to arouse political consciousness in the general population through the newspapers like 'Kesari' and 'Maratha' during India's freedom struggle.
   Answer: B — Bal Gangadhar Tilak
   The correct answer is Bal Gangadhar Tilak. Key Points - Bal Gangadhar Tilak (Lokmanya Tilak) was a fierce nationalist leader who used journalism as a powerful tool to awaken political consciousness among ordinary Indians. - He published two
6. Q51: Who among the following social reformers preached the doctrine of 'One Caste, One Religion and One God'?
   Answer: A — Narayan Guru
   The correct answer is Narayan Guru. Key Points - Sree Narayana Guru (1856-1928) was a great social reformer and spiritual leader from Kerala who fought against caste discrimination and untouchability. - His revolutionary philosophy, "O
7. Q68: Which of the following statements is FALSE in relation to the Non-Cooperation Movement?
   Answer: C — Abolition of Salt tax and reduction in land revenue rate
   The correct answer is Abolition of Salt tax and reduction in land revenue rate. Key Points - The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922), launched by Mahatma Gandhi, involved: boycott of foreign goods and promotion of Indian-made (swadeshi) go
8. Q78: On invitation of which of the following freedom fighters did Mahatma Gandhi visit Odisha for the first time in 1921, at Cuttack?
   Answer: C — Gopabandhu Das
   The correct answer is Gopabandhu Das. Key Points - Gopabandhu Das (1877-1928), known as "Utkal Kesari" (Lion of Odisha), was a prominent freedom fighter, social reformer, and journalist from Odisha. - He was deeply involved in Gan
9. Q120: The British Parliament took away the power to govern India from East India Company after the Revolt of 1857. The title of the Empress of India was assumed by:
   Answer: D — Queen Victoria
   The correct answer is Queen Victoria. Key Points - After the suppression of the Great Revolt of 1857 (First War of Indian Independence), the British Parliament passed the Government of India Act, 1858, which transferred governance of India

Economy — Solved Questions

1. Q15: Which of the following options includes machinery, work plants, equipment, new technology, factories, buildings and goods that are designed to increase the economy's productive potential?
   Answer: A — Fixed Capital
   The correct answer is Fixed Capital. Key Points - Fixed Capital refers to long-lasting assets used repeatedly in the production process without being consumed in a single cycle. - This includes machinery, equipment, factories, buildings, to
2. Q17: Which of the following is NOT amongst a three pronged strategy adopted by Govt. of India to ensure removal of disparities, elimination of exploitation and to provide protection to disadvantaged groups
   Answer: A — Rural Development
   The correct answer is Rural Development. Key Points - The Government of India adopted a three-pronged strategy to address disparities and protect disadvantaged groups: (1) Social Empowerment -- ensuring equal rights and access through laws
3. Q41: The Human Development Index (HDI) includes which one of the following components?
   Answer: B — The Birth and Life Expectancy
   The correct answer is The Birth and Life Expectancy. Key Points - The Human Development Index (HDI), developed by the UNDP, measures human development across three key dimensions: (1) Health -- measured by life expectancy at birth (which in
4. Q59: Different countries are classified at different levels of development. On which of the following criteria are countries classified as developed countries?
   Answer: A — High per capita income
   The correct answer is High per capita income. Key Points - Countries are classified as "developed" primarily based on their high per capita income (high GDP per capita), which reflects a high standard of living, advanced industria
5. Q61: Read the following statements and choose the CORRECT answer. (i) GDP is a specific measure of economic welfare that does 'NOT' include aspects like leisure time, environmental quality, freedom, social
   Answer: A — (i) is True and (ii) is False
   The correct answer is (i) is True and (ii) is False. Key Points - Statement (i) is TRUE: GDP (Gross Domestic Product) measures the total monetary value of goods and services produced. - It does NOT capture leisure time, environmental degrad
6. Q84: The objective of Social Development Goals is to link together different dimensions known as Triple Bottom Line combining 3Ps. Which of the following are three Ps in Triple Bottom Line of SDGs?
   Answer: D — Planet, Profit, People
   The correct answer is Planet, Profit, People. Key Points - The Triple Bottom Line (TBL) is a sustainability framework that holds organisations accountable across three dimensions -- called the "Three Ps": (1) People -- social equi

Indian Polity — Solved Questions

1. Q16: As per Article 55(3) of the Constitution of India, the President of India is elected through which of the following processes?
   Answer: C — Proportional representation
   The correct answer is Proportional representation. Key Points - Article 55(3) of the Constitution of India prescribes the method of election of the President. - The President is elected by an Electoral College comprising elected members of
2. Q25: The final authority for making laws in India, that can make new laws, change existing laws or abolish them is, the
   Answer: D — Parliament
   The correct answer is Parliament. Key Points - In India, Parliament is the supreme law-making body. - Under the Constitution of India, Parliament has the power to make new laws, amend existing laws, and repeal (abolish) them. - Parliament c
3. Q34: Who among the following became the Prime Minister of India, after the 16th Lok Sabha elections?
   Answer: D — Narendra Modi
   The correct answer is Narendra Modi. Key Points - Narendra Modi, leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), became the Prime Minister of India after the 16th Lok Sabha elections held in April-May 2014. - The BJP-led National Democratic All
4. Q37: Which of the following political parties/alliances belong to Kerala?
   Answer: A — United Democratic Front
   The correct answer is United Democratic Front. Key Points - The United Democratic Front (UDF) is a major political alliance in Kerala, led by the Indian National Congress (INC). - It has historically alternated power in Kerala with the Left
5. Q42: The Constitution of India guarantees protection from social injustice and all different forms of exploitation. Which of the following is an INCORRECT option pertaining to the protective legislations e
   Answer: B — Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Economic offenses against tribal people) Act, 2005
   The correct answer is Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Economic offenses against tribal people) Act, 2005. Key Points - The "Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Economic offenses against tribal peop
6. Q73: EVMs are used in Indian General and State Elections by voters to cast their vote. EVM is an acronym for
   Answer: D — Electronic Voting Machine
   The correct answer is Electronic Voting Machine. Key Points - EVM stands for Electronic Voting Machine. - EVMs are used in all Indian General Elections and State Assembly elections as the official ballot system, replacing paper ballots sinc
7. Q75: In the Indian parliamentary system, a member who is elected for a full term of the Rajya Sabha serves for a period of:
   Answer: C — 6 years
   The correct answer is 6 years. Key Points - The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) is the upper house of India's Parliament. - Its members are not directly elected by the people but are elected by the elected members of State Legislative Assem
8. Q94: The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on which of the following dates?
   Answer: A — Nov 26, 1949
   The correct answer is Nov 26, 1949. Key Points - The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949. - This date is celebrated as Constitution Day (Samvidhan Diwas) every year since 2015. - The Constituti

Geography — Solved Questions

1. Q21: The Himadri was formed by what type of rocks?
   Answer: C — Metamorphic Rocks
   The correct answer is Metamorphic Rocks. Key Points - The Himadri, or the Greater Himalayas (the highest of the Himalayan ranges), was formed primarily by metamorphic rocks. - During the massive tectonic collision between the Indian Plate a
2. Q31: Which of the following states is bisected by the Tropic of Cancer?
   Answer: A — West Bengal
   The correct answer is West Bengal. Key Points - The Tropic of Cancer (23.5 degrees N latitude) passes through 8 Indian states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. - Among the optio
3. Q43: Where is the Karakoram range located?
   Answer: B — Northern Parts of Jammu & Kashmir
   The correct answer is Northern Parts of Jammu & Kashmir. Key Points - The Karakoram Range is one of the world's greatest mountain ranges, located in the northernmost part of the Indian subcontinent -- in the Ladakh region (formerly part
4. Q46: Imagine your parents are planning to build a house. They ask you about the different landforms. In which landform would you suggest them to build a house and why?
   Answer: D — Plain
   The correct answer is Plain. Key Points - Plains are the most suitable landforms for building a house and human habitation for several reasons: (1) Flat terrain makes construction easier and cheaper; (2) Plains generally have fertile soil,
5. Q52: In which range of Himalayas is the Mount Everest, the highest peak of the world, situated?
   Answer: C — The Great Himalayas
   The correct answer is The Great Himalayas. Key Points - Mount Everest (8,848.86 m), the highest peak in the world located on the Nepal-Tibet border, is part of the Great Himalayas (Himadri) range -- the northernmost and highest of the three
6. Q58: Choose the CORRECT option for the given statements: (i) Bara-lacha Pass is a high mountain pass in the Western Ghats mountain range. (ii) Bara-lacha Pass connects Lahaul district in Himachal Pradesh t
   Answer: B — Statement (i) is False and (ii) is True
   The correct answer is Statement (i) is False and (ii) is True. Key Points - Statement (i) is FALSE: Bara-lacha Pass is NOT in the Western Ghats. - It is located in the Zanskar Range of the Himalayas, in Himachal Pradesh. - Statement (ii) is
7. Q67: River Godavari originates from which of the following states in India?
   Answer: A — Maharashtra
   The correct answer is Maharashtra. Key Points - The Godavari River, one of India's longest rivers (about 1,465 km), originates from the Triambakeshwar hills near Nashik in Maharashtra, in the Sahyadri (Western Ghats) mountain range. - It fl
8. Q72: If you go to the Northern part of Karnataka and Maharashtra, you will see lots of cotton plants. What is the reason for that?
   Answer: A — Cotton grows well in the black soil of the Deccan Plateau
   The correct answer is Cotton grows well in the black soil of the Deccan Plateau. Key Points - Cotton grows predominantly in the northern parts of Karnataka and Maharashtra because this region lies on the Deccan Plateau, which has black cott
9. Q98: Which of the following types of rainfall occurs when the saturated air mass encounters a mountain and the air is forced to rise?
   Answer: D — Orographic rainfall
   The correct answer is Orographic rainfall. Key Points - Orographic rainfall (also called relief rainfall) occurs when a moisture-laden air mass is forced to rise over a mountain range or elevated terrain. - As the air rises, it cools adiaba

General Science — Solved Questions

1. Q24: Which of the following options is an example for chemical change?
   Answer: C — Burning of coal
   The correct answer is Burning of coal. Key Points - A chemical change produces one or more new substances with different chemical properties from the original. Burning of coal is a chemical change -- coal (carbon) reacts with oxygen to prod
2. Q44: Which of the following when added to pure water usually increases its surface tension?
   Answer: B — Sodium chloride
   The correct answer is Sodium chloride. Key Points - Surface tension is caused by intermolecular cohesive forces in a liquid. - Adding sodium chloride (NaCl) to pure water increases its surface tension because the ions (Na+ and Cl-) increase
3. Q56: Which one of the following substances is usually used in cold countries to melt ice accumulated on the roads during winter?
   Answer: A — Salt
   The correct answer is Salt. Key Points - Salt is used in cold countries to melt ice on roads because it lowers the freezing point of water -- a phenomenon called freezing point depression. - When salt (NaCl) dissolves in water, it dissociat
4. Q71: Ozone is a gas made up of
   Answer: C — three oxygen atoms
   The correct answer is three oxygen atoms. Key Points - Ozone (O3) is an allotrope of oxygen consisting of three oxygen atoms bonded together (a triatomic molecule). - In the stratosphere, the ozone layer forms naturally when ultraviolet rad
5. Q79: What is the full form of MSG, a chief flavor enhancer used in the food industry?
   Answer: B — Monosodium glutamate
   The correct answer is Monosodium glutamate. Key Points - MSG stands for Monosodium Glutamate -- the sodium salt of glutamic acid, an amino acid naturally found in tomatoes, cheese, mushrooms, and other foods. - MSG is widely used as a flavo
6. Q86: CNG is a fuel gas which is mainly composed of methane that is used for vehicles in general. Here CNG stands for:
   Answer: C — Compressed Natural Gas
   The correct answer is Compressed Natural Gas. Key Points - CNG stands for Compressed Natural Gas. - It is a cleaner-burning alternative to petrol and diesel, primarily composed of methane (CH4) compressed to less than 1% of its volume at st
7. Q87: Which of the following instruments is used to measure the blood pressure of the Human body?
   Answer: D — Sphygmomanometer
   The correct answer is Sphygmomanometer. Key Points - A sphygmomanometer is the instrument used to measure blood pressure in the human body. - It consists of an inflatable cuff (wrapped around the upper arm) connected to a pressure gauge (me

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