JKSSB Junior Assistant Question Paper 2026

General Knowledge & Current Affairs — Solved Questions

1. Q1: Consider the following pairs: City — Respective Country I. Maracaibo — Ukraine II. Tabriz — Venezuela III. Nuuk — Greenland IV. Donetsk — Iran How many of the pairs are correct?
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Checking each pair: - Maracaibo is in VENEZUELA, not Ukraine. Lake Maracaibo is the largest lake in South America and the heart of Venezuela's oil industry. - Tabriz is in IRAN, not Venezuela. It
2. Q2: What are the key components of the recently launched Digital Agriculture Mission in India? I. Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for Agriculture, i.e. Agristack, Krishi Decision Support System, Compr
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - The Digital Agriculture Mission was approved by the Cabinet in September 2024 with an outlay of about Rs 2,817 crore, and all three components listed are part of it: - I. Digital Public Infrastru
3. Q3: Match the following and choose the correct option: Statues — Personalities Associated 1. Statue of Unity — i. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 2. Statue of Oneness — ii. Adi Shankaracharya 3. Statue of Equali
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Statue of Unity — Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. At 182 m it is the world's tallest statue, at Kevadia on the Narmada in Gujarat, unveiled on 31 October 2018 (Patel's birth anniversary, observed as Ra
4. Q4: Which of the following sites are included in the Tentative List of World Heritage Sites released by UNESCO? I. Khangchendzonga National Park II. Natural Heritage of Varkala III. Naga Hill Ophiolite IV
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - The UNESCO Tentative List is the inventory of sites a country INTENDS to nominate. - A site cannot be on the Tentative List once it has already been inscribed on the World Heritage List. - That i
5. Q5: Consider the following statements about the Tribal Freedom Fighters. I. Tilka Majhi mobilized the Pahadia tribe to which he belonged and raided the Company treasury. II. Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu from the
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Statement I is correct: Tilka Majhi (Jabra Paharia) belonged to the Pahadia (Paharia) tribe and led one of the earliest tribal revolts against the East India Company in the 1780s in the Rajmahal
6. Q6: With reference to the Indian Freedom struggle, consider the following events— I. Poona Pact II. Lord Irwin's declaration III. Second Round Table Conference Arrange them in the correct chronological or
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - Correct chronological order: - 1. Lord Irwin's Declaration (II) — 31 October 1929. Also called the Irwin Declaration, it stated that Dominion Status was the natural outcome of India's constitutio
7. Q7: Match the following pairs: Hills — Related Regions 1. Nilgiri Hills — i. Part of the Satpura Range 2. Anamalai Hills — ii. Parallel to the Narmada Valley 3. Mahadeo Hills — iii. Junction of Eastern an
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - Nilgiri Hills — Junction of the Eastern and Western Ghats. The Nilgiris form the meeting point of the two Ghats; Doda Betta (2,637 m) is its highest peak. - Anamalai Hills — Southern part of the
8. Q8: The Ten-degree channel separates which two regions?
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands. - The Ten Degree Channel runs along the 10° North latitude and separates the Andaman group (to the north) from the Nicobar group (to the south). - It is rough
9. Q9: Consider the following statements regarding India's demographic trends: I. Demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential arising from a declining dependency ratio, due to a rising worki
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Statement I is correct: the demographic dividend is the growth potential that arises when the working-age share of the population rises and the dependency ratio falls, giving a larger productive
10. Q10: Consider the following pairs: Wetlands — States I. Kolleru Lake — Tamil Nadu II. Tawa Reservoir — Madhya Pradesh III. Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary — Andhra Pradesh IV. Sultanpur National Park — Haryana H
    Answer: B — B
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Checking each pair: - Kolleru Lake — ANDHRA PRADESH, not Tamil Nadu. A large freshwater lake between the Krishna and Godavari deltas; a Ramsar site. - Tawa Reservoir — MADHYA PRADESH. CORRECT. On
11. Q11: Which Koppen climate type is described by the following characteristics? I. Average monthly temperature rarely falls below 18°C. II. Annual rainfall exceeds 2000 mm, distributed evenly throughout the
    Answer: B — B
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - In the Koppen classification, 'A' denotes tropical climates where the average temperature of the coldest month is at least 18°C. The third letter distinguishes the rainfall regime: - Af (f = feuc
12. Q12: Which of the following statements about India's National Waterways are correct? I. National Waterway 2 (NW-2) is the Brahmaputra River stretch from Dhubri to Sadiya in Assam, covering about 891 km. II
    Answer: B — B
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Statement I is correct: NW-2 is the Brahmaputra, Dhubri to Sadiya in Assam, about 891 km. - Statement II is correct: NW-3 is the West Coast Canal in Kerala, Kollam to Kottapuram, roughly 205 km —
13. Q13: According to Kalhana's Rajatarangini, identify the correct sequential order of the following dynasties in the Jammu and Kashmir region. I. Gonanda dynasty II. Utpala dynasty III. Karkota Dynasty IV. L
    Answer: D — D
    The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - Kalhana's Rajatarangini (12th century, Sanskrit) is the celebrated chronicle of the kings of Kashmir and a rare example of early Indian historical writing. - The dynastic order it records is: - 1
14. Q14: Consider the following statements about Bahu Fort in Jammu. I. The ancient Bahu Fort in Jammu is believed to have been originally built by Raja Bahu Lochan about 3,000 years ago. II. It was refurbishe
    Answer: D — D
    The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - All three statements about Bahu Fort are correct: - I. The fort is traditionally attributed to Raja Bahu Lochan, said to have built it around 3,000 years ago on the left bank of the Tawi — it is
15. Q15: Which Kashmiri art form is described by the following lines? I. It is a traditional folk theatre style combination of play and dance. II. It differs from other forms as it features a single performer
    Answer: C — C
    The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Bhand Pather is the traditional folk theatre of Kashmir, combining play, dance, satire and music — the name comes from 'bhand' (jester) and 'pather' (performance). - It is performed by the Bhand
16. Q16: Which of the following statements about Mughal Gardens in Kashmir are correct? I. Nishant Bagh, laid out in the 17th century, is located directly along the eastern bank of the Dal Lake. II. The two mo
    Answer: A — A
    The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - All three statements are correct: - I. Nishat Bagh, the 'Garden of Bliss', was laid out in 1633 by Asif Khan (brother of Nur Jahan) on the eastern bank of the Dal Lake, against the Zabarwan hills
17. Q17: Which of the following statements about the geographic characteristics of the Jammu region are correct? I. Jammu city is situated on uneven ridges of the Shivalik Hills. II. It is surrounded by the La
    Answer: A — A
    The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Statement I is correct: Jammu city sits on the uneven ridges of the Shivalik (Outer Himalaya) hills, on the right bank of the Tawi river — its terraced, ridge-and-valley setting is characteristic
18. Q18: Dachigam National Park is located in which mountain range?
    Answer: D — D
    The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - Dachigam National Park lies in the Zabarwan range, about 22 km from Srinagar, spanning roughly 141 sq km. - It is the last refuge of the HANGUL (Kashmir stag), India's only species of red deer an
19. Q19: A Census planned in J&K in early 2026 is aimed at conservation of which species?
    Answer: A — A
    The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - The Markhor (Capra falconeri) is a wild goat found in the Pir Panjal range of Jammu & Kashmir, recognisable by its spiral, corkscrew horns. - It is the national animal of Pakistan and is list
20. Q20: Which of the following rivers are tributaries of the river Chenab? I. Ujh river II. Tawi river III. Poonch river IV. Neeru river
    Answer: B — B
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - The Chenab (ancient Asikni/Chandrabhaga) is formed by the meeting of the Chandra and Bhaga rivers at Tandi in Himachal Pradesh, then flows through Jammu into Pakistan. - Tawi (II) — CORRECT. It r

Computer & IT Knowledge — Solved Questions

1. Q21: Which of the following is the fundamental operation performed by computers to carry out arithmetic computations in the ALU?
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - processing binary data through logic gate operations. - The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) is the part of the CPU that performs arithmetic (add, subtract) and logic (AND, OR, NOT, comparison) operat
2. Q22: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the relationship between instruction execution, memory hierarchy, and addressing modes in a typical von Neumann architecture computer system?
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - data hazards can occur in pipelined CPUs even with only register addressing. - A data hazard happens when one instruction depends on the result of a previous instruction that has not yet finished
3. Q23: Which statement is correct concerning computer memory and data storage fundamentals?
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - cache memory is faster than the main memory and stores frequently accessed data. - Cache is a small, very fast memory that sits between the CPU and main memory (RAM), holding recently and frequen
4. Q24: Which statement is correct regarding CPU operation and instruction execution?
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - the instruction register stores the current instruction being decoded or executed. - (Note: the provisional key showed B; the final JKSSB key is C.) - The Instruction Register (IR) holds the inst
5. Q25: Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. Overflow in two's complement addition can be detected by examining only the carry out of the most significant bit. II. When converting an unsigned
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - (Note: the final JKSSB key is B, revised from the provisional C.) - II is correct: when widening an unsigned integer to a larger type, zero extension (padding with 0s on the left) preserves the v
6. Q26: Which of the following correctly classifies hardware and system software?
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - CPU is Hardware; Operating System is System Software. - (Note: the provisional key showed A; the final JKSSB key is C — and it is clearly the right classification.) - The CPU is a physical compon
7. Q27: A computer has a quad-core CPU with a 2.4 GHz frequency, 16 GB RAM, and a 1TB SSD. A program that uses many threads and performs frequent disk operations is running very slowly and sometimes crashes.
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - inefficient multithreading and high memory usage. - (Note: the provisional key showed D; the final JKSSB key is A.) - The machine is capable — quad-core, 2.4 GHz, 16 GB RAM, SSD. - A program that
8. Q28: Categorize the following devices as Input (I) and Output (O) i) Light Pen ii) Punch Card Reader iii) Plotter iv) Sound Card v) Digitizer Tablet vi) Drum Printer vii) Scanner
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - Input: Light Pen, Punch Card Reader, Digitizer Tablet, Scanner; Output: Plotter, Sound Card, Drum Printer. - Classifying each device: - Input: Light Pen (i), Punch Card Reader (ii), Digitizer/Gra
9. Q29: Match the following devices with their corresponding descriptions. Devices 1. Haptic Gloves 2. Tactile Display 3. Voice Response Unit (VRU) 4. Data Glove Statements i. Generates tactile sensations and
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - Haptic Gloves (1) → iii: detect user gestures and provide force feedback. - Tactile Display (2) → i: generates tactile sensations and may sense user interaction. - Voice Response Unit / VRU (3) →
10. Q30: In a system with multiple processes and resource types, which of the following is a valid method to recover from a deadlock?
    Answer: B — B
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - preempt resources from one process and allocate to another. - Once a deadlock exists, the operating system can recover in two broad ways: process termination (kill one or more processes) or resou
11. Q31: Consider a system using preemptive priority scheduling with multiple real-time and user-level processes. Priority inheritance protocol is implemented. I. Priority inversion can occur when a low-priori
    Answer: D — D
    The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - I is correct: priority inversion occurs when a low-priority process holds a resource that a high-priority process needs, so the high-priority one is effectively blocked by the low-priority one. -
12. Q32: Which of the following statements is NOT correct about MS Word?
    Answer: A — A
    The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - 'A content control can restrict editing but cannot enforce data validation' is NOT correct. - Read carefully: the question asks which statement is NOT correct. - In MS Word, content controls CAN
13. Q33: Which of the following statements is true about MS Word?
    Answer: A — A
    The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - using Section Breaks allows different headers and footers in the same document. - By default a Word document repeats the same header and footer throughout. - To have different headers/footers (fo
14. Q34: A company keeps sales data in column B and wants to categorise sales into three levels: "High" if sales = 1000 "Medium" if sales = 500 but < 1000 "Low" if sales < 5
    Answer: D — D
    The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - the formula will work correctly for all numeric values in B2. - The nested IF =IF(B2=1000,"High",IF(B2=500,"Medium","Low")) evaluates in order: if B2 is at least 100
15. Q35: In Microsoft Excel, student scores are listed in column B (Math) and column C (Science). Which formula correctly counts the number of students who scored = 80 in Math and = 90 in Science?
    Answer: A — A
    The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - =COUNTIFS(B2:B10,"=80",C2:C10,"=90"). - COUNTIFS counts rows that satisfy multiple conditions at once (a logical AND). - Here it counts students with Math ≥ 80 and Science ≥ 9
16. Q36: Which of the following statements is correct about email functionality?
    Answer: C — C
    The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - POP3 is used to download emails from the server to a local computer. - POP3 (Post Office Protocol v3) downloads messages from the mail server to a single local device, typically removing them fro
17. Q37: In Microsoft PowerPoint, which of the following existing slide contents CANNOT be directly converted into SmartArt, without re-entering the data?
    Answer: B — B
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - a table of data cannot be directly converted into SmartArt. - In PowerPoint, text-based content — a bulleted list, a block of text, or indented text — can be converted straight into SmartArt usin
18. Q38: Consider the following statements about TCP/IP and Internet communication:
    Answer: A — TCP guarantees delivery and the correct order of packets, but not the timing.
    The correct answer is TCP guarantees delivery and the correct order of packets, but not the timing. Key Points - TCP is a reliable, connection-oriented protocol: it guarantees delivery and correct ordering of packets, but makes no real-time
19. Q39: Which of the following statements about Internet routing and protocols is correct?
    Answer: C — C
    The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - IPv6 adoption eliminates the need for NAT because it provides a vastly larger address space. - NAT (Network Address Translation) exists mainly because IPv4's ~4.3 billion addresses are too few, s
20. Q40: In the context of cloud computing in an IaaS model, what is managed by the service provider?
    Answer: A — A
    The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - In IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service), the cloud provider manages the underlying physical infrastructure — servers, storage, and networking hardware — while the customer manages the operating sys

English Language — Solved Questions

1. Q41: The senator's apology was widely viewed as "too little, too late" after months of public outrage. The idiom "too little, too late" most precisely conveys that the apology:
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - inadequate in both substance and timing to be effective. - The idiom "too little, too late" means an action that is both insufficient in amount AND done too late to have any useful effe
2. Q42: The committee's proposal, though ambitious, was dismissed as "a bridge too far" by senior officials. In this context, "a bridge too far" suggests that the proposal was:
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - excessively ambitious beyond what was feasible or acceptable. - The idiom "a bridge too far" means an over-ambitious step that goes further than is wise or achievable. - It comes from t
3. Q43: The scholar was known for his perspicacious analysis of complex philosophical texts. Which option is the closest synonym of perspicacious as used here?
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Perspicacious means having keen insight and sharp discernment — quick to understand. - Its closest synonym here is astute. - Why the others miss: (A) methodical and (C) meticulous describe being
4. Q44: The editor criticized the article for its prolix treatment of an otherwise simple topic. Which word is the most appropriate synonym of prolix in this context?
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Prolix means using too many words; tediously long-winded. - The best single synonym is verbose. - While discursive (A), redundant (B) and diffuse (D) all touch on wordiness, verbose is the most d
5. Q45: Her argument was praised for being cogent and logically compelling. Which option is the best antonym of cogent?
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Cogent means clear, logical and convincing. - Its best antonym is specious — meaning superficially plausible but actually flawed or false. - A cogent argument is genuinely sound; a specious one o
6. Q46: The professor was admired for his equanimous response to harsh criticism. Which word is the most precise antonym of equanimous?
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Volatile. - (JKSSB's final key accepted both A and C; A is stored here.) - Equanimous means calm, even-tempered and composed, especially under stress. - Its most precise antonym is volatile — mea
7. Q47: Choose the option that correctly punctuates the sentence: The proposal which was submitted last week however requires further revision
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - 'The proposal, which was submitted last week, however, requires further revision.' - The sentence has a non-defining relative clause ('which was submitted last week') and a conjunctive adverb ('h
8. Q48: Identify the type of clause in the sentence below: What the committee decided surprised everyone present. The clause "What the committee decided" is a:
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - a noun clause functioning as the subject. - In 'What the committee decided surprised everyone present', the group of words 'What the committee decided' acts as a single noun — it is the subject o
9. Q49: In which sentence is the word "bank" used as a homonym when compared to its use in the sentence below? She deposited the cheque at the bank.
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - 'The children played on the bank of the river.' - A homonym is a word spelt/pronounced the same but with a different meaning. - In the given sentence, 'bank' means a financial institution. - Opti
10. Q50: Choose the sentence in which the correct homophone has been used.
    Answer: D — D
    The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - 'He could not cite a single example to support his claim.' - This is a homophone question — words that sound alike but differ in spelling/meaning. - Option D correctly uses cite (to quote/refer t
11. Q51: Choose the sentence in which the pronoun usage is grammatically correct.
    Answer: C — C
    The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - 'Every applicant should bring his or her identification for verification.' - 'Every applicant' is singular, so it needs a singular pronoun: 'his or her'. - Option C is grammatically correct. - Wh
12. Q52: Identify the sentence with a clear and unambiguous pronoun reference.
    Answer: A — A
    The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - 'When Sara met Lina, she was already upset.' - The question asks for the sentence with the clearest, least ambiguous pronoun reference, and JKSSB's final key is A: in the exam's reading, 'she' at
13. Q53: Choose the sentence in which the use of articles is grammatically and contextually correct.
    Answer: B — He was appointed the head of department after an extensive review process.
    The correct answer is He was appointed the head of department after an extensive review process. Key Points - This sentence uses articles correctly. The others contain article errors: 'a expert' should be 'an expert', 'a effective' should b
14. Q54: Choose the option that best expresses a logical deduction about a past event.
    Answer: C — C
    The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - 'They must have overlooked the crucial data.' - The question asks for a logical deduction about a PAST event. - The structure 'must have + past participle' expresses a confident conclusion about
15. Q55: Choose the option that correctly converts the following sentence into indirect speech: The professor said, "I will review your thesis tomorrow."
    Answer: C — C
    The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - 'The professor said that he would review my thesis the next day.' (Final key C, revised from B.) - Converting direct to indirect speech requires three changes here: - 'I' → 'he' (the professor is
16. Q56: Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph: I. He worked hard to achieve his goals. II. Success did not come easily to him. III. Eventually, his efforts paid off. IV. From a youn
    Answer: B — B
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - IV → II → I → III. - (Final key B, revised from A.) - Building the paragraph logically: - IV 'From a young age, he was determined to succeed' — sets the background (start). - II 'Success did not
17. Q57: Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: I. She practiced every day to improve her skills. II. As a result, she won the competition. III. She wanted to become a professional dan
    Answer: A — A
    The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Ordering the paragraph: - III 'She wanted to become a professional dancer' — the goal/background (start). - I 'She practiced every day to improve her skills' — the action taken. - IV 'Her dedicat
18. Q58: The following sentence has an error. Identify the part that contains the error. The students (A) has submitted (B) their assignments (C) before the deadline (D).
    Answer: B — B
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - 'has submitted'. - (Final key B, revised from D.) - The sentence is: 'The students has submitted their assignments before the deadline.' The subject 'The students' is plural, so the verb must be
19. Q59: Choose the option that correctly completes the sentence: She is proficient French and German.
    Answer: A — A
    The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - The fixed collocation is 'proficient IN' something — 'She is proficient in French and German.' In standard English you are proficient in a skill or language. Additional Information - 'proficient
20. Q60: Choose the option that correctly converts the following sentence into the passive voice: The committee will announce the results tomorrow.
    Answer: A — A
    The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - 'The results will be announced by the committee tomorrow.' - Converting active to passive: - Active: 'The committee (subject) will announce (verb) the results (object) tomorrow.' - Passive: the o

Quantitative Aptitude — Solved Questions

1. Q61: If a number 45678x9231 is divisible by 3, then how many values are possible for x?
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3. For 4567x9231, add the known digits: 4+5+6+7+9+2+3+1 = 37. - Adding x, the total is 37 + x, and this must be a multiple of 3
2. Q62: If x = 2¹⁰ × 5⁶ then how many zeros will be there at the end of x?
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - The number of trailing zeros equals the number of times 10 divides the number, and 10 = 2 × 5. So count the pairs of 2 and 5. - Here x = 2^10 × 5^6. The number of 5s is 6 and the number of 2s is
3. Q63: The price of an article is reduced by 10%. By what percent should the new price be increased to get the original price?
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Let the original price be 100. - After a 10% reduction, the new price is 90. To return to 100, the increase needed is 10 on a base of 90: - Increase % = (10 / 90) × 100 = 100/9 = 11 1/9 %. - The
4. Q64: If x% of y = y% of x, then which of the following is true?
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - The statement x% of y = y% of x expands to (x/100)·y = (y/100)·x, i.e. xy/100 = xy/100. - This is always true for every x and y — it is an identity, not a condition. - Because the equation holds
5. Q65: The average of x numbers is 15. The average of y numbers is 20. The average of all x+y numbers is 18. Find the ratio x:y.
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Use the weighted-average (alligation) relationship. - Total of x numbers = 15x; total of y numbers = 20y. - The combined average is 18: - (15x + 20y) / (x + y) = 18 - 15x + 20y = 18x + 18y - 2y =
6. Q66: If a discount of 10% is given on the marked price of a book, the publisher gains 20%. If the discount is increased to 15%, the gain of the publisher is?
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Let the marked price be 100. - A 10% discount gives a selling price of 90, and this yields a 20% gain, so the cost price is: - CP = 90 / 1.20 = 75. - Now apply a 15% discount: new selling price =
7. Q67: A barrel contains a mixture of wine and water in the ratio 3:1. How much fraction of the mixture must be drawn off and substituted by water so that the ratio becomes 1:1?
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Start with wine : water = 3 : 1, so in 4 parts, wine = 3/4 of the mixture. - We want the final ratio 1 : 1, i.e. wine = 1/2. - Let fraction f be drawn off and replaced with water. - Drawing off f
8. Q68: Find the Compound Ratio of a:b and c:d
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - The compound ratio of two ratios is obtained by multiplying the antecedents together and the consequents together. - Compound ratio of a : b and c : d = (a × c) : (b × d) = ac : bd. Exam Tip - co
9. Q69: Three men A, B and C complete a work in 10 days, 12 days and 15 days respectively. All three of them start the work together. After 2 days A left and after next 2 days C also left. Find in how many mo
   Answer: B — 6 2/5 days
   The correct answer is 6 2/5 days. Key Points - Total work = LCM(10, 12, 15) = 60 units; rates are A = 6, B = 5, C = 4 units/day. - First 2 days all three work: (6+5+4)×2 = 30 units. Next 2 days B and C work (A has left): (5+4)×2 = 18 units
10. Q70: A can complete a work in 15 days and B can complete a work in 25 days. If they start work together and B leaves 7 days before completion, then the work will be completed in how many days?
    Answer: C — C
    The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - A's rate = 1/15 per day, B's rate = 1/25 per day. - Let the work finish in n days. - B leaves 7 days before completion, so B works for (n − 7) days while A works all n days: - n·(1/15) + (n − 7)·
11. Q78: Ram, while going to school, reduces his speed to 4/5th of his actual speed and reaches 15 minutes late. Find the actual time of Ram.
    Answer: B — B
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - When speed becomes 4/5 of usual, time becomes the reciprocal, 5/4 of usual (speed and time are inversely proportional for a fixed distance). - Extra time = 5/4·T − T = T/4, and this equals the 15

Reasoning Ability — Solved Questions

1. Q71: 1, 9, 35, 99, 225, ?
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Look at the pattern: 1, 9, 35, 99, 225, ? - These are close to cubes. Check n³ − n: - 2³ − 2 = 6 (no) — instead try relation to squares of consecutive: 1 = 1, 9 = 9, 35, 99, 225. - Better pattern
2. Q72: C, E, K, Q, W, ?
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Letters: C, E, K, Q, W, ? - Convert to positions: C=3, E=5, K=11, Q=17, W=23. The gaps are +2, +6, +6, +6 — from E onward the step is +6. - Continuing: 23 + 6 = 29. Since the alphabet has 26 lett
3. Q73: A, D, I, P, Y, ?
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Letters: A, D, I, P, Y, ? - Positions: A=1, D=4, I=9, P=16, Y=25 — these are the perfect squares 1², 2², 3², 4², 5². - The next is 6² = 36. Wrapping around the 26-letter alphabet: 36 − 26 = 10 =
4. Q74: In a code language: • Letters are arranged in reverse order • Each vowel is replaced by its position number in alphabet If BALLOON → N1515LL1B, find MONDAY
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Two rules: (1) reverse the letters, (2) replace each vowel by its alphabet position number. - MONDAY reversed = Y, A, D, N, O, M. Now replace vowels by position (A=1, O=15): - Y → Y - A → 1 - D →
5. Q75: A man is facing east. He turns 135° clockwise, then 90° anticlockwise. Which direction is he facing now?
   Answer: B — B
   The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - Start facing East. - Turn 135° clockwise: from East (90°) clockwise by 135° lands at 90 + 135 = 225°, which is South-West. - Then 90° anticlockwise: 225 − 90 = 135°, which is South-East. - So the
6. Q76: A man said, "This girl is the daughter of my father's only son's wife." How is the girl related to him?
   Answer: C — C
   The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Work inward: 'my father's only son' — the speaker is his father's only son, so this is the man himself. - Then 'my father's only son's wife' is the man's own wife. - The girl is 'the daughter of
7. Q77: Given: P = Q R, R <= S < T, P T Which statement is always true?
   Answer: D — D
   The correct answer is Option D. Key Points - Given: P ≥ Q R and R ≤ S < T and P T. - Check T R: from R ≤ S < T we have R ≤ S and S < T, so R < T, i.e. T R is always true. - Why the others fail: P = S is not forced; S < Q is n
8. Q79: Statement: "The government plans to reduce the import duty on electronics." Conclusions: I. Prices of electronics may fall. II. Domestic production of electronics will stop.
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Statement: the government plans to reduce import duty on electronics. - Conclusion I (prices may fall): follows — lower import duty reduces landed cost, so retail prices may fall. The cautious wo
9. Q80: Statement: Some books are fiction. All fictional books are popular. Conclusions: I. Some books are popular. II. All popular things are fiction.
   Answer: A — A
   The correct answer is Option A. Key Points - Statements: Some books are fiction; all fictional books are popular. - Conclusion I (some books are popular): follows — the books that are fiction are, by the second statement, popular; so at lea

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