SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 13 Sep 2025 (Shift 2) — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

General Intelligence & Reasoning — Solved Questions

1. Q1: In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives. Architect : Design :: Chef : ?
   Answer: D — Food
   The correct answer is Food. Key Points - The relationship is professional : what they produce. - An architect produces a design; by the same logic a chef produces food. - Cook and serve are verbs describing the activity, not its product, an
2. Q2: In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives. Utilitarianism : Consequence :: Deontology : ?
   Answer: B — Duty
   The correct answer is Duty. Key Points - The relationship is ethical theory : the criterion it judges by. - Utilitarianism judges an action by its consequences — the greatest happiness for the greatest number. - Deontology judges by duty: a
3. Q3: Select the letters from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. K, M, O, ?, S, U, ?, Y
   Answer: B — Q, W
   The correct answer is Q, W. Key Points - Convert the letters to positions: K(11), M(13), O(15), ?, S(19), U(21), ?, Y(25). - The step is a constant +2 throughout. - The first gap sits between O(15) and S(19), so it is 17 = Q. - The second s
4. Q4: Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. PQR, STU, VWX, ?
   Answer: C — YZA
   The correct answer is YZA. Key Points - Each cluster is simply the next three consecutive letters of the alphabet: - PQR, then STU, then VWX - Continuing, the next three after X are Y, Z and then the alphabet wraps to A. - That gives YZA. A
5. Q5: Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. YMW, VJT, SGQ, PDN, ?
   Answer: D — MAK
   The correct answer is MAK. Key Points - Read the clusters column-wise, and every column falls by the same step: - 1st letters: Y, V, S, P → −3 each → next is M - 2nd letters: M, J, G, D → −3 each → next is A - 3rd letters: W, T, Q, N → −3 e
6. Q6: Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series: RBEH, RGOW, RLYL, RQIA, ?
   Answer: A — RVSP
   The correct answer is RVSP. Key Points - The first letter is always R, so only the remaining three positions carry a pattern. - Taking each column separately: - 2nd letters: B, G, L, Q → +5 each → next is V - 3rd letters: E, O, Y, I → +10 e
7. Q7: Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series: CDEF, CKSA, CRGV, CYUQ, ?
   Answer: D — CFIL
   The correct answer is CFIL. Key Points - As in the previous question the first letter is fixed at C, and the other three columns each move by a constant step: - 2nd letters: D, K, R, Y → +7 each → Y(25) + 7 = 32 − 26 = F - 3rd letters: E, S
8. Q8: Complete the pattern: 120, 96, 76.8, 61.44, ?
   Answer: D — 49.152
   The correct answer is 49.152. Key Points - Check the ratio between consecutive terms rather than the difference: - 96 ÷ 120 = 0.8, 76.8 ÷ 96 = 0.8, 61.44 ÷ 76.8 = 0.8 - The series is geometric with a common ratio of 0.8 (that is, each term
9. Q9: Each of the letters in the word CONTRAST is arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the letter that is first from the left and the one tha
   Answer: B — 13
   The correct answer is 13. Key Points - Arrange CONTRAST alphabetically. Its letters are C, O, N, T, R, A, S, T, giving A, C, N, O, R, S, T, T. - First from the left is A. - Fifth from the right: counting back T(1st), T(2nd), S(3rd), R(4th),
10. Q10: Which of the following addresses are identical to each other: 1. S. Iyer 17-D, Coral Residency, Thiruvananthapuram, 695014 2. S. Iyer 17-D, Coral Residency, Thiruvananthapuram, 695014 3. S. Iyer 17-D
    Answer: A — 1 and 2
    The correct answer is 1 and 2. Key Points - Compare the four entries field by field — name, flat number, building, city, PIN. - Items 1 and 2 are character-for-character identical, including the comma after "17-D" and the PIN 6950
11. Q11: Which of the following is/are identical to the address given: Sunil Kumar 21/4, Ashok Vihar, Delhi, 110052 1. Sunil Kumar 21/4, Ashok Vihar, Delhi, 1100522 2. Sunil Kumar 21/4, Ashok Vihar, Delhi, 110
    Answer: C — 2 Only
    The correct answer is 2 Only. Key Points - The reference is "Sunil Kumar 21/4, Ashok Vihar, Delhi, 110052". - Item 1 has the PIN 1100522 — seven digits instead of six. - Item 2 matches on every field. - Item 3 changes the city to
12. Q12: Find the best option that best completes the analogy. CAB : EDF :: GIH : ?
    Answer: C — ILL
    The correct answer is ILL. Key Points - Compare CAB with EDF position by position: - C(3) → E(5) is +2 - A(1) → D(4) is +3 - B(2) → F(6) is +4 - Apply the same +2, +3, +4 to GIH: - G(7) + 2 = I(9) - I(9) + 3 = L(12) - H(8) + 4 = L(12) - The
13. Q13: Find the option that best completes the analogy. DP : XZ :: EN : ?
    Answer: D — YX
    The correct answer is YX. Key Points - Compare DP with XZ position by position: - D(4) → X(24) is +20 - P(16) → Z(26) is +10 - Apply the same shifts to EN: - E(5) + 20 = Y(25) - N(14) + 10 = X(24) - The answer is YX. Additional Information
14. Q14: Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing five persons each, such that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. Line 1: Five men (A-E) are seated and all of them are facing S
    Answer: A — O
    The correct answer is O. Key Points - Line 2 seats five women facing North, so their right-hand side runs consistently in one direction along the row. - M sits at one extreme end of Line 2, which means there are exactly four seats on one si
15. Q15: In each of the following questions, a specific rearrangement pattern is applied to the first word to form the second. Identify the same pattern and apply it to the third word to determine the correct
    Answer: A — RGUODN
    The correct answer is RGUODN. Key Points - Compare AROUND with RAUODN in pairs: - A R → R A, O U → U O, N D → D N - The rule is to swap each adjacent pair of letters, working left to right. - Applying it to GROUND: - G R → R G, O U → U O, N
16. Q16: In each of the following questions, the second group of letters is formed from the first using a specific alphabetical transformation. Apply the same pattern to the third group and find the correct op
    Answer: D — WKPA
    The correct answer is WKPA. Key Points - Compare QDXM with SFYN position by position: - Q(17) → S(19) is +2, D(4) → F(6) is +2 - X(24) → Y(25) is +1, M(13) → N(14) is +1 - The pattern is +2, +2, +1, +1. Applying it to UIOZ: - U(21) + 2 = W(
17. Q17: Choose the odd one:
    Answer: D — Thu Apr 16 1936 00:00:00 GMT+0530 (India Standard Time)
    The marked answer is Thu Apr 16 1936, though the intended rule is not recoverable from the options as printed. Key Points - One pattern holds across all four options, so it cannot be the basis for choosing: in every case the date equals the
18. Q18: In each of the following questions, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.
    Answer: D — H8 : E6 : B4
    The correct answer is H8 : E6 : B4. Key Points - In each group the number should equal the letter's alphabetical position, and both should fall by 3 at each step: - M13 : J10 : G7 — positions 13, 10, 7 ✓ - Z26 : W23 : T20 — positions 26, 23
19. Q19: In each of the following questions, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.
    Answer: D — Q10 : P11 : O12
    The correct answer is Q10 : P11 : O12. Key Points - Examine all three strands in each group: - Letters fall by one: Z, Y, X / W, V, U / T, S, R / Q, P, O — consistent everywhere. - Numbers rise by one: 1, 2, 3 / 4, 5, 6 / 7, 8, 9 / 10, 11,
20. Q20: B is the daughter of A. C is the husband of B. D is the son of C. How is A related to D?
    Answer: D — Cannot be determined
    The correct answer is Cannot be determined. Key Points - Trace the chain: B is A's daughter, C is B's husband, and D is C's son — so D is the child of B and C, making D A's grandchild. - A is therefore D's grandparent, but the question asks
21. Q21: If 'X' means '+', 'Y' means '-', 'Z' means '×', and 'W' means '÷', what is the value of the following expression? 15 W 3 X 2 Y 4 = ?
    Answer: B — 3
    The correct answer is 3. Key Points - Substitute the symbols as defined: X → +, Y → −, Z → ×, W → ÷. - The expression 15 W 3 X 2 Y 4 becomes 15 ÷ 3 + 2 − 4. - Apply BODMAS: division first, 15 ÷ 3 = 5. - Then work left to right: 5 + 2 = 7, a
22. Q22: A's father's wife's only daughter is B. How is A related to B?
    Answer: C — Sibling
    The correct answer is Sibling. Key Points - Unpack the phrase from the inside out: - "A's father's wife" is A's mother. - Her "only daughter" is B. - So A and B share the same mother, making them siblings. - The answer i
23. Q23: Introducing a boy, a girl says, "He is the son of my mother's only son." Who is the boy to the girl?
    Answer: C — Nephew
    The correct answer is Nephew. Key Points - The speaker is a girl, and "my mother's only son" must therefore be her brother — the word only excludes any other son and, since the speaker is female, excludes her too. - The boy is the
24. Q24: A is the wife of B. B is the brother of C. C is the father of D. How is A related to D?
    Answer: A — Aunt
    The correct answer is Aunt. Key Points - Follow the chain: A is B's wife, B is C's brother, and C is D's father. - Since B and C are brothers, B is D's uncle (the father's brother). - A, being B's wife, is therefore D's aunt by marriage. Ad
25. Q25: If '+' means '−', '−' means '+', '×' means '÷', then 50 + 10 − 5 × 5 = ?
    Answer: A — 41
    The correct answer is 41. Key Points - Substitute as instructed: + → −, − → +, × → ÷. - The expression 50 + 10 − 5 × 5 becomes 50 − 10 + 5 ÷ 5. - Apply BODMAS: division first, 5 ÷ 5 = 1. - Then left to right: 50 − 10 = 40, and 40 + 1 = 41.

General Awareness — Solved Questions

1. Q26: Arrange the following sites in chronological order based on the stylistic development of Buddhist sculpture: a) Mathura b) Bharhut c) Sanchi Stupa-1
   Answer: A — b-c-a
   The correct answer is b-c-a. Key Points - The stylistic sequence of early Buddhist sculpture runs: - Bharhut (2nd century BCE) — the earliest, with flat, low-relief carving and figures arranged in a shallow plane - Sanchi Stupa-1 (1st centu
2. Q27: Which of the following statements about the Chithirai Festival of Madurai is correct?
   Answer: B — Lord Kallazhagar arrives on a golden horse
   The correct answer is Lord Kallazhagar arrives on a golden horse. Key Points - The Chithirai Festival of Madurai, Tamil Nadu, celebrates the celestial marriage of Meenakshi and Sundareswarar, followed by the journey of Lord Kallazhagar (a f
3. Q28: What is the term for a structured musical composition in Hindustani classical music?
   Answer: B — Bandish
   The correct answer is Bandish. Key Points - A bandish is a fixed, structured composition in Hindustani classical music, set to a particular raga and taal, providing the framework a performer elaborates upon. - Kriti is its Carnatic counterp
4. Q29: Consider the following statements regarding belt ranks and competition area in Judo: 1) A red-and-white belt is associated with judokas from Sixth dan to Eighth dan levels. 2) A shared safety zone of
   Answer: C — 1 and 2 both are correct
   The correct answer is 1 and 2 both are correct. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. In judo the red-and-white patterned belt marks the senior dan grades, worn from the sixth to the eighth dan. - Statement 2 is correct. Where competition ar
5. Q30: Who broke the 30-year-old Asian Games men's 5,000 m meet record in National Open Athletics Championships 2024?
   Answer: B — Gulveer Singh
   The correct answer is Gulveer Singh. Key Points - Gulveer Singh broke a long-standing men's 5,000 m record at the National Open Athletics Championships 2024, ending a mark that had stood for around three decades. - He has emerged as India's
6. Q31: Consider the following statements regarding BRICS Science, Technology and Innovation (STI) cooperation: 1) It is based on mutual benefit and public-good-driven innovation. 2) It is governed only throu
   Answer: A — Only 1 is correct
   The correct answer is Only 1 is correct. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. BRICS science and technology cooperation is framed around mutual benefit and innovation directed at public goods, with joint research and shared capacity-building
7. Q32: Fill in the blank: The inaugural Khelo India Para Games took place in , showcasing seven sporting disciplines across three venues in New Delhi.
   Answer: C — December 2023
   The correct answer is December 2023. Key Points - The inaugural Khelo India Para Games were held in December 2023 in New Delhi, across three venues and featuring seven sporting disciplines. - The event extended the Khelo India framework — p
8. Q33: Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Assertion (A): Last Man in Tower explores the moral and ethical conflicts faced by residents during rapid ur
   Answer: C — A is true, but R is false.
   The correct answer is A is true, but R is false. Key Points - Assertion is true. Last Man in Tower centres on the moral and ethical pressures on residents of a Mumbai housing society facing redevelopment, and the conflict between collective
9. Q34: Choose the correctly matched cave feature and its formation:
   Answer: B — Stalagmite — Formed by dripping water from cave ceiling
   The correct answer is Stalagmite — Formed by dripping water from ceiling. Key Points - Stalactites hang down from the roof of a cave, formed as mineral-rich water deposits calcium carbonate at the tip of each drip. - Stalagmites build upwar
10. Q35: What is the primary function of the NVS-02 satellite launched aboard GSLV-F15?
    Answer: C — It boosts India's navigation system by offering precise position and timing data.
    The correct answer is It boosts India's navigation system. Key Points - NVS-02, launched aboard GSLV-F15, is a navigation satellite belonging to the NVS (Navigation with Indian Constellation) second-generation series. - Its role is to susta
11. Q36: Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Choose the correct option: Assertion (A): Population growth can be measured in absolute numbers and percentage change per year. Reason (R): Measuring grow
    Answer: C — A is true, but R is false
    The correct answer is A is true, but R is false. Key Points - Assertion is true. Population growth is indeed expressed both in absolute numbers — the actual increase in people — and as a percentage change per year. - Reason is false. Measur
12. Q37: Read the following statements regarding K. Sanjay Murthy's recent appointment as Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India: 1. He took office as the CAG in November 2024 after the term of Girish
    Answer: A — 1 and 2 only
    The correct answer is 1 and 2 only. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. K. Sanjay Murthy took office as CAG in November 2024, succeeding Girish Chandra Murmu. - Statement 2 is correct. The CAG is a constitutional office, appointed by the P
13. Q38: What is the primary function of the Golgi apparatus?
    Answer: B — Protein modification
    The correct answer is Protein modification. Key Points - The Golgi apparatus receives proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum and modifies, sorts and packages them for delivery within or outside the cell. - Modification includes glycosylati
14. Q39: As per Article 279A of the Indian Constitution, the GST Council's decisions require what kind of majority of the weighted votes of the members present and voting?
    Answer: B — Three-fourths majority
    The correct answer is Three-fourths majority. Key Points - Under Article 279A, decisions of the GST Council require a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting. - The weighting is fixed:
15. Q40: Which of the following correctly reflects the legal implication of Article 255 regarding presidential or governor's assent to bills?
    Answer: C — Omission of prior recommendation doesn't invalidate law if assent is given.
    The correct answer is Omission of prior recommendation doesn't invalidate the Act. Key Points - Article 255 provides that where a prior recommendation or previous sanction of the President or a Governor was required for a Bill, the failure
16. Q41: When light enters from air into a medium, its speed changes. Which of the following properties of light remains constant during this transition?
    Answer: B — Frequency
    The correct answer is Frequency. Key Points - When light passes from one medium into another, its speed and wavelength change, but its frequency stays constant. - Frequency is fixed by the source that emitted the light; the receiving medium
17. Q42: The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) aims to align Indian evidence law with advancements in:
    Answer: A — Forensic science and digital technology
    The correct answer is Forensic science and digital technology. Key Points - The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, and came into force on 1 July 2024. - Its central purpose is to modernise the la
18. Q43: Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Assertion (A): Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar is a civilian science award. Reason (R): It is conferred by Ministr
    Answer: C — A is true, but R is false
    The correct answer is A is true, but R is false. Key Points - Assertion is true. The Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP) is a national civilian award recognising outstanding contributions in science, technology and innovation. - Reason is false
19. Q44: The Global Gender Gap Report primarily measures disparities between genders in which key areas?
    Answer: A — Politics, Economy, Health, Education
    The correct answer is Politics, Economy, Health, Education. Key Points - The Global Gender Gap Report measures gender parity across four sub-indices: - Economic Participation and Opportunity - Educational Attainment - Health and Survival -
20. Q45: Thang-Ta is a traditional martial dance associated with which northeastern state of India?
    Answer: C — Manipur
    The correct answer is Manipur. Key Points - Thang-Ta is the traditional martial art of Manipur, its name combining thang (sword) and ta (spear). - It is performed both as a combat discipline and as a ritual and performance art, which is why
21. Q46: Which of the following industry pairs is correctly grouped as heavy industries?
    Answer: B — Shipbuilding and Automobile
    The correct answer is Shipbuilding and Automobile. Key Points - Heavy industries use bulky raw materials, require large capital investment and heavy machinery, and produce bulky output. - Shipbuilding and automobile manufacturing satisfy al
22. Q47: The President is elected by an electoral college, while the Governor is .
    Answer: B — Appointed by the President
    The correct answer is Appointed by the President. Key Points - The President is elected indirectly by an electoral college of elected MPs and elected MLAs, using a single transferable vote with proportional representation. - The Governor is
23. Q48: The Western Ghats are a recognized biodiversity hotspot. Which of the following is currently considered the most significant threat to its endemic species, beyond general habitat loss?
    Answer: B — Introduction of invasive alien species.
    The correct answer is Introduction of invasive alien species. Key Points - Beyond outright habitat loss, invasive alien species are treated as the gravest threat to the endemic species of the Western Ghats. - Invasives spread rapidly, outco
24. Q49: NISAR's orbit regime is?
    Answer: C — Polar sun-sync
    The correct answer is Polar sun-synchronous. Key Points - NISAR operates in a polar sun-synchronous orbit, the standard regime for Earth-observation satellites. - A sun-synchronous orbit crosses any given latitude at the same local solar ti
25. Q50: Consider the following statements: 1. The Governor can dissolve the State Legislative Assembly. 2. The President has no such power regarding the Lok Sabha. Which of the above is/are correct?
    Answer: A — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 174(2)(b) the Governor may dissolve the State Legislative Assembly, acting on the advice of the Council of Ministers. - Statement 2 is incorrect. The President

Quantitative Aptitude — Solved Questions

1. Q51: What is the value of 4 + 44 + 444 + 4444 + 44444 ?
   Answer: A — 49380
   The correct answer is 49380. Key Points - Add the terms directly: 4 + 44 = 48, + 444 = 492, + 4444 = 4,936, + 44,444 = 49,380. - A faster route factors out the 4: the sum is 4 × (1 + 11 + 111 + 1,111 + 11,111) = 4 × 12,345 = 49,380. Additio
2. Q52: Simplify: \((125 + 2.6) - 134\)
   Answer: A — 2.25
   The correct answer is 2.25. Key Points - Convert everything to one form. Working in decimals: - 1⅖ = 1 + 2/5 = 1.4 - 1¾ = 1 + 3/4 = 1.75 - Evaluate the bracket first: 1.4 + 2.6 = 4. - Then subtract: 4 − 1.75 = 2.25. Additional Information -
3. Q53: Evaluate the expression: \((1/3-√8) - (1/√8-√7) + (1/√7-√6) - (1/√6-√5) + (1/√5-2) = \,?\)
   Answer: A — 5
   The correct answer is 5. Key Points - Rationalise each term by multiplying by its conjugate. Because each denominator is a difference whose squares differ by 1, every reciprocal simplifies to a sum: - 1/(3 − √8) = 3 + √8, since 9 − 8 = 1 -
4. Q54: Determine the ratio of the number of students who play Football to the number of students who play Basketball in a survey of 120 students from the following table: Category, Number; Play Football and
   Answer: C — 7 : 6
   The correct answer is 7 : 6. Key Points - Read the categories carefully — "plays Football" includes everyone who plays it, whether or not they also play Basketball: - Football total = plays both (25) + Football only (45) = 70 - Ba
5. Q55: Tina and Meera started a business with ₹1,00,000 and ₹80,000 respectively. After 6 months, Meera added ₹40,000 more. Tina withdrew ₹20,000 at the same time. What is the profit-sharing ratio at the end
   Answer: A — 9 : 10
   The correct answer is 9 : 10. Key Points - Capital changes at six months, so compute capital × time in two halves: - Tina: 1,00,000 × 6 + 80,000 × 6 = 6,00,000 + 4,80,000 = 10,80,000 - Meera: 80,000 × 6 + 1,20,000 × 6 = 4,80,000 + 7,20,000
6. Q56: A invests ₹20,000, while B invests ₹30,000. A receives an additional 20% for management. The total profit is ₹60,000. What is A's share?
   Answer: C — ₹31,200
   The correct answer is ₹31,200. Key Points - The management allowance is taken off the top, before the remainder is divided by capital: - A's management share = 20% of 60,000 = ₹12,000 - Remaining profit = 60,000 − 12,000 = ₹48,000 - The rem
7. Q57: A batsman's average score for a certain number of innings is 44. If he scores 132 runs in the next innings, his average becomes 48. How many innings did he play earlier?
   Answer: A — 21
   The correct answer is 21. Key Points - Let the earlier number of innings be n, so the runs then totalled 44n. - After one more innings of 132 runs, the average over (n + 1) innings is 48: - 44n + 132 = 48(n + 1) - 44n + 132 = 48n + 48 - 84
8. Q58: The average of 13 numbers is 70. The average of the first five numbers is 60. The average of the next five numbers is 25% higher than the average of the first five numbers. The 11th number is 6 less t
   Answer: A — 78
   The correct answer is 78. Key Points - Convert every average to a total: - All 13 numbers: 13 × 70 = 910 - First five: 5 × 60 = 300 - Next five: their average is 25% above 60, i.e. 75, so the total is 5 × 75 = 375 - The first ten therefore
9. Q59: In an election, 80% of eligible voters cast their votes. Of these votes, 5% were declared invalid. If a winning candidate received 11,400 votes, which accounted for 60% of the total valid votes, what
   Answer: C — 25000
   The correct answer is 25000. Key Points - Work backwards from the winner's votes: - 11,400 is 60% of the valid votes → valid votes = 11,400 ÷ 0.60 = 19,000 - Valid votes are 95% of the votes cast (5% invalid) → votes cast = 19,000 ÷ 0.95 =
10. Q60: The compound interest on a sum at 18% p.a. for 1½ years, compounded yearly, is ₹2,862. Find the principal.
    Answer: A — ₹10,000
    The correct answer is ₹10,000. Key Points - For 1½ years compounded yearly, interest compounds once for the full year and then simple interest applies for the half year: - Amount = P × (1 + 0.18) × (1 + 0.09), since half of 18% is 9% - = P
11. Q61: If the compound interest on a certain sum at 16⅔% per annum for 3 years is ₹1,270, find the simple interest on the same sum at the same rate and for the same period.
    Answer: A — ₹1,080
    The correct answer is ₹1,080. Key Points - Convert the rate to a fraction: 16⅔% = 1/6, so each year multiplies the sum by 7/6. - Over three years: A = P(7/6)³ = P × 343/216, so CI = P(343 − 216)/216 = 127P/216. - Setting 127P/216 = 1,270 gi
12. Q62: A tea seller bought 15 kg of Darjeeling tea at ₹300 per kg and 25 kg of Assam tea at ₹240 per kg. He mixed them together. Due to a slight drop in market prices, he had to sell the entire mixture at ₹2
    Answer: A — Loss of ₹100
    The correct answer is Loss of ₹100. Key Points - Compute the total cost of the two purchases: - Darjeeling: 15 × 300 = ₹4,500 - Assam: 25 × 240 = ₹6,000 - Total cost = ₹10,500 for 40 kg - Total revenue = 40 × 260 = ₹10,400. - Since revenue
13. Q63: An antique dealer sold three items, A, B, and C, with their selling prices in the ratio 4 : 5 : 6. He suffered a loss of 10% on item A, made a profit of 50% on item B, and broke even (no profit, no lo
    Answer: B — profit of 8.88%
    The correct answer is profit of 8.88%. Key Points - The selling prices are in the ratio 4 : 5 : 6, so work back to each cost price: - A sold at a 10% loss: CP = 4 ÷ 0.9 = 4.444 - B sold at a 50% profit: CP = 5 ÷ 1.5 = 3.333 - C broke even:
14. Q64: A 75-litre mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 3 : 2. If 15 litres of this mixture are removed and replaced with 10 litres of pure milk, what is the new ratio of milk to water in the mixture?
    Answer: B — 23 : 12
    The correct answer is 23 : 12. Key Points - Start from the original 75 litres in the ratio 3 : 2 → milk 45 L, water 30 L. - Removing 15 L of the mixture removes both in the same 3 : 2 ratio: 9 L milk and 6 L water. - Remaining: milk 36 L, w
15. Q65: A wholesaler buys a batch of ceiling fans at a 50% markup over the factory's base cost ₹C. He then allows a 20% trade discount to the retailer. The retailer applies a 40% markup on his cost and offers
    Answer: A — ₹12,000
    The correct answer is ₹12,000. Key Points - Track the price through each stage as a multiplier on the base cost C: - Wholesaler's cost: 50% markup → 1.5 C - Retailer pays after a 20% trade discount → 1.5C × 0.8 = 1.2 C - Printed price after
16. Q66: A can lay railway track between two specified stations in 16 days, while B can complete the same task in 12 days. When C assists them, they manage to finish the job in just 4 days. How long would it t
    Answer: C — \(935\) days
    The correct answer is 9⅗ days. Key Points - Express each rate as work per day, using an LCM of 48 units for the whole job: - A: 48 ÷ 16 = 3 units/day - B: 48 ÷ 12 = 4 units/day - All three together: 48 ÷ 4 = 12 units/day - C's rate = 12 − 3
17. Q67: Three varieties of rice costing ₹40/kg, ₹50/kg, and a third unknown price are mixed in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. If the resulting mixture is sold at ₹55/kg, making a profit of 10% on the cost price, what i
    Answer: C — ₹54.00
    The correct answer is ₹54.00. Key Points - Convert the selling price back to the mixture's cost price: a 10% profit on selling at ₹55 means CP = 55 ÷ 1.1 = ₹50 per kg. - Let the third variety cost x. With quantities in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5 o
18. Q68: A can build up a wall in 8 days while B can break it in 3 days. A has worked for 4 days and then B joined to work with A for another 2 days only. In how many days will A alone build up the remaining p
    Answer: A — \(713\) days
    The correct answer is 7⅓ days. Key Points - A builds at 1/8 per day; B destroys at 1/3 per day, so B's contribution is −1/3. - A works alone for 4 days: 4 × 1/8 = 1/2 of the wall built. - A and B together for 2 days: 2 × (1/8 − 1/3) = 2 × (
19. Q69: An airplane travels a specific distance at a speed of 240 km/h over the course of 5 hours. To cover the same distance in just 1 hour, it needs to fly at a speed of:
    Answer: A — 1200 km/h
    The correct answer is 1200 km/h. Key Points - Find the distance first: 240 km/h × 5 hours = 1,200 km. - To cover the same 1,200 km in 1 hour, the required speed is 1,200 ÷ 1 = 1,200 km/h. Additional Information - Speed and time are inversel
20. Q70: A person travels from city A to city B. If he travels at a speed of 50 km/h, he arrives 1 hour early. If he travels at a speed of 30 km/h, he arrives 1 hour late. What is the distance (in km) between
    Answer: A — 150 km
    The correct answer is 150 km. Key Points - The two journeys differ in arrival by 2 hours in total — one hour early against one hour late. - Let the distance be d. The slower trip takes 2 hours longer than the faster one: - d/30 − d/50 = 2 -
21. Q71: A ring-shaped metallic sheet has outer and inner radii 10 cm and 6 cm. What percentage of the full circle's area is the ring?
    Answer: C — 64%
    The correct answer is 64%. Key Points - The ring (annulus) is the outer circle minus the inner one: - Ring area = π(10² − 6²) = π(100 − 36) = 64π - The full circle here is the outer one: π × 10² = 100π. - Percentage = (64π ÷ 100π) × 100 = 6
22. Q72: A circular pond is surrounded by a path 2 m wide. If the total area (pond + path) is 616 m² and the pond area is 452.16 m², what is the radius of the pond?
    Answer: C — 12 m
    The correct answer is 12 m. Key Points - The total area covers pond plus path, so it gives the outer radius: - πR² = 616 → R² = 616 × 7/22 = 196 → R = 14 m - The path is 2 m wide, so the pond's radius is 14 − 2 = 12 m. - Check against the s
23. Q73: The ratio of the circumferences of two circular flower beds is 3 : 5. If the smaller flower bed has a radius of 9 m, what is the radius of the larger flower bed?
    Answer: A — 15 m
    The correct answer is 15 m. Key Points - Circumference is 2πr, which is directly proportional to the radius, so the ratio of circumferences equals the ratio of radii. - Circumferences are in the ratio 3 : 5, therefore the radii are also 3 :
24. Q74: What is the equation of line through (0, 3) with slope −1?
    Answer: A — y = −x + 3
    The correct answer is y = −x + 3. Key Points - Use the slope-intercept form, y = mx + c, where m is the slope and c the y-intercept. - The slope is −1, so m = −1. - The line passes through (0, 3), a point on the y-axis, so the y-intercept i
25. Q75: Given \(x + 1/x = 5\) , determine the value of \(x^2 + 1/x^2\) .
    Answer: D — 23
    The correct answer is 23. Key Points - Square both sides of the given equation, using (a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b²: - (x + 1/x)² = x² + 2·x·(1/x) + 1/x² = x² + 2 + 1/x² - Since x + 1/x = 5, the left side is 25: - x² + 1/x² + 2 = 25 → x² + 1/x²

English Comprehension — Solved Questions

1. Q76: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: BIBLIOPHILE
   Answer: D — Book-lover
   The correct answer is Book-lover. Key Points - Bibliophile breaks into biblio- (book) + -phile (lover of), so it means a lover or collector of books. - The distractors describe occupations connected with books rather than an affection for t
2. Q77: Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: Has two strings to his bow
   Answer: C — He has an additional skill or option to rely on.
   The correct answer is He has an additional skill or option to fall back on. Key Points - To have two strings to one's bow means to possess a second resource, skill or plan in reserve, so that a setback in one does not leave you stranded. -
3. Q78: Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Lachrymose
   Answer: D — Jovial
   The correct answer is Jovial. Key Points - Lachrymose means tearful, given to weeping or inducing tears, from Latin lacrima, a tear. - Its opposite is jovial — cheerful and good-humoured. - Tearful, mournful and weepy are all synonyms of la
4. Q79: Identify the misspelt word.
   Answer: C — Consciencious
   The correct answer is Consciencious. Key Points - The correct spelling is conscientious, meaning careful, diligent and guided by conscience. - The confusion arises from the related noun conscience, but the adjective changes its ending to -t
5. Q80: Spot the correct spelling of an electron-transport protein.
   Answer: C — Cytochrome
   The correct answer is Cytochrome. Key Points - The word is built from cyto- (cell) + chrome (colour), so the spelling must keep the ch of chrome intact. - The distractors each damage that element — dropping the h, transposing it to rh, or o
6. Q81: Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A state of temporary disuse or suspension.'
   Answer: C — Abeyance
   The correct answer is Abeyance. Key Points - Abeyance is a state of temporary disuse or suspension, typically of a rule, right or claim that may later be revived — as in "the policy was held in abeyance". - The distractors are clo
7. Q82: Select the correct option: The analyst found the correlation to be marginal to influence policy.
   Answer: A — too
   The correct answer is too. Key Points - The structure too + adjective + to-infinitive expresses an excess that prevents something: the correlation was too marginal to influence policy. - Very intensifies without implying prevention, so &quo
8. Q83: Select the correct option: Her argument was compelling; , it was based on outdated data.
   Answer: C — nevertheless
   The correct answer is nevertheless. Key Points - The two clauses contrast: the argument was compelling, yet it rested on outdated data — a concession that qualifies the praise. - Nevertheless is the concessive connector that fits, meaning &
9. Q84: Select the correct option: Had it not been for her timely intervention, the discussion might well have into an acrimonious stalemate.
   Answer: B — devolved
   The correct answer is devolved. Key Points - To devolve into something means to deteriorate or degenerate into a worse state — exactly what a discussion collapsing into an acrimonious stalemate describes. - Evolved means to develop, usually
10. Q85: Find the part of the sentence that contains an error : The regulator's decision to postpone the implementation (1) / was attributed partly to industry pressure (2) / and partly due to legal ambiguity
    Answer: C — (3)
    The correct answer is part (3). Key Points - The sentence uses the paired construction partly … and partly …, so both halves must take the same grammatical form. - Part (2) reads "was attributed partly to industry pressure", so th
11. Q86: Find the part of the sentence that contains an error : That there exists no recourse for citizens (1) / if environmental violations are condoned at the ministerial level (2) / underline a systemic ero
    Answer: C — (3)
    The correct answer is part (3). Key Points - The subject is the noun clause beginning "That there exists no recourse for citizens…", and a that-clause functioning as a subject is singular. - Part (3) uses the plural verb underline
12. Q87: Change the following from active to passive : We shall have dispatched the invitations before Friday evening.
    Answer: D — The invitations shall have been dispatched before Friday evening.
    The correct answer is The invitations shall have been dispatched by us before Friday evening. Key Points - The active sentence is future perfect — shall have dispatched — so the passive must be the future perfect passive. - Its form is shal
13. Q88: Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The medieval oriel window projected elegantly from the chapel wall.
    Answer: C — The technician adjusted the frequency on the oriel.
    The correct answer is the option using oriel in a technical, non-architectural sense. Key Points - In the prompt, oriel is an architectural term: a bay window projecting from an upper wall, supported on a bracket or corbel rather than risin
14. Q89: Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: The photos will be printed by the studio within an hour.
    Answer: B — The studio will print the photos within an hour.
    The correct answer is The studio will print the photos within an hour. Key Points - The passive sentence is in the simple future: will be printed. - Converting to the active voice, the agent the studio becomes the subject and the verb becom
15. Q90: According to the passage, which quality is most crucial for entrepreneurs?
    Answer: B — Resilience
    The correct answer is Resilience. Key Points - The passage states directly that entrepreneurship demands resilience, resourcefulness and a high tolerance for ambiguity. - Resilience is required because entrepreneurs face volatile markets, r
16. Q91: Why is employment often psychologically comforting, as per the passage?
    Answer: C — It provides hierarchy and reduced risk
    The correct answer is It provides hierarchy and reduced risk. Key Points - The passage explains that employees work within frameworks of responsibility and hierarchy, where risk is absorbed at higher managerial levels. - It then states that
17. Q92: How does the passage describe the social view towards entrepreneurship?
    Answer: D — Skeptical until proven successful
    The correct answer is Skeptical until proven successful. Key Points - The passage observes that in many cultures steady employment is seen as the hallmark of success, while entrepreneurial ventures are regarded with reservation until they d
18. Q93: What is implied by "absence of assured income" in the context of entrepreneurship?
    Answer: B — No fixed salary or stable cash flow
    The correct answer is No fixed salary or stable cash flow. Key Points - The phrase appears in a list of entrepreneurial challenges alongside volatile markets and regulatory complexity, so it names a financial uncertainty. - Assured income m
19. Q94: What does the word " dichotomy " in the passage most nearly mean?
    Answer: C — A clear division between two contrasting things
    The correct answer is A clear division between two contrasting things. Key Points - A dichotomy is a division into two mutually exclusive or contrasting parts. - In the passage it refers to the split between entrepreneurship and conventiona
20. Q95: Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: He is looking forward to meet you soon.
    Answer: A — to meeting you soon
    The correct answer is to meeting you soon. Key Points - In look forward to, the word to is a preposition, not part of an infinitive, so it must be followed by a noun or gerund. - The correct form is therefore "looking forward to meetin
21. Q96: Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: The judge declared the prisoner as guilty.
    Answer: B — guilty
    The correct answer is guilty. Key Points - Declare takes a direct object followed by a complement, with no linking preposition: declare something/someone + adjective or noun. - So the correct form is "declared the prisoner guilty"
22. Q97: A sentence is provided in direct speech . From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech . Ravi said, "I like this pen.
    Answer: A — Ravi said he liked that pen.
    The correct answer is Ravi said he liked that pen. Key Points - The reporting verb said is past, so the reported verb backshifts: present like becomes past liked. - The pronoun shifts from I to he. - The demonstrative also shifts: this beco
23. Q98: A sentence is provided in indirect speech . From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech . The judge said that justice must
    Answer: B — "Justice must be served at any cost," the judge said.
    The correct answer is "Justice must be served at any cost," said the judge. Key Points - Converting indirect to direct speech restores the speaker's exact words: remove that, add quotation marks, and capitalise the opening word. -
24. Q99: Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. The rapid spread of misinformation and disinformation on social media platforms represents a major challenge to public discourse. 2.
    Answer: C — 1, 3, 4, 2
    The correct answer is 1, 3, 4, 2. Key Points - Sentence 1 opens by introducing the problem — the rapid spread of misinformation as a challenge to public discourse — with no back-reference. - Sentence 3 follows: "This phenomenon can ero
25. Q100: Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. It is a process that involves the systematic and objective investigation of a subject to discover new facts or to confirm existing on
    Answer: A — 2, 1, 3, 4
    The correct answer is 2, 1, 3, 4. Key Points - Sentence 2 opens with the general claim that research is a foundational pillar of academic and scientific progress. - Sentence 1 follows: "It is a process that involves systematic and obje

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are there in the SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 13 Sep 2025 (Shift 2)?

The SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 13 Sep 2025 (Shift 2) has 100 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

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The SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 13 Sep 2025 (Shift 2) was held on 13 September 2025.

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Yes. SSC CGL deducts 0.5 marks for every wrong answer, so accuracy matters as much as attempting more questions.

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