J&K Police Constable Recruitment Exam 2017 — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

General Knowledge & Current Affairs — Solved Questions

1. Q1: Which causes maximum pollution?
   Answer: D — Carbon monoxide
   The correct answer is Carbon monoxide. Key Points - Carbon monoxide (CO) is a highly toxic pollutant produced by the incomplete combustion of fuels, chiefly in vehicle exhaust. - It binds to haemoglobin about 200-250 times more readily than
2. Q2: Which one of these medicines is used for treating acidity?
   Answer: C — Antacid
   The correct answer is Antacid. Key Points - An antacid neutralises excess hydrochloric acid in the stomach, relieving acidity and heartburn. - Common antacids are mild bases — magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia), aluminium hydroxide and
3. Q3: Zebra lines are meant for:
   Answer: B — pedestrians crossing
   The correct answer is pedestrians crossing. Key Points - Zebra crossings are the striped markings that give pedestrians a designated place to cross, and pedestrians have right of way on them. - They do not exist to stop vehicles as such, no
4. Q4: Function of kidney is:
   Answer: D — excretion
   The correct answer is excretion. Key Points - The kidneys carry out excretion — filtering nitrogenous waste, chiefly urea, from the blood and removing it as urine. - Respiration is performed by the lungs, nutrition by the digestive system,
5. Q5: Insulin is used in treatment of:
   Answer: A — Diabetes
   The correct answer is Diabetes. Key Points - Insulin treats diabetes mellitus, a disorder in which blood glucose stays abnormally high. - Insulin is a hormone secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas, and it en
6. Q6: Oxygen in human body is transported by:
   Answer: A — blood
   The correct answer is blood. Key Points - Oxygen is carried by the blood, bound to haemoglobin in the red blood cells as oxyhaemoglobin. - The lungs are where gas exchange happens, but they do not transport oxygen around the body; nerves ca
7. Q7: Blood pressure is measured by:
   Answer: C — Sphygmomanometer
   The correct answer is Sphygmomanometer. Key Points - Blood pressure is measured with a sphygmomanometer, using an inflatable cuff and a pressure gauge. - The distractors measure other quantities: a barometer measures atmospheric pressure, a
8. Q8: Which is the correct statement below?
   Answer: A — The force with which the earth attracts all objects towards itself is called gravitational force.
   The correct answer is The force with which the earth attracts all objects towards itself is called gravitational force. Key Points - Gravitational force is the attraction the earth exerts on every object, pulling it towards the centre of th
9. Q9: A is the smallest structural and functional unit of life.
   Answer: D — Cell
   The correct answer is Cell. Key Points - The cell is the smallest structural and functional unit of life — the smallest entity that can carry out all the processes of living. - Blood and bone are tissues made of many cells, and a sperm is o
10. Q10: A microscope is:
    Answer: A — An instrument to view small objects by magnifying them.
    The correct answer is An instrument to view small objects by magnifying them. Key Points - A microscope magnifies small, nearby objects that the unaided eye cannot resolve. - A telescope, by contrast, is used for distant objects — the disti
11. Q11: Electroplating saves:
    Answer: A — The metal from corrosion
    The correct answer is The metal from corrosion. Key Points - Electroplating deposits a thin layer of one metal onto another by electrolysis, chiefly to protect the base metal from corrosion. - The object to be plated is made the cathode, an
12. Q12: Forests provide which of the following to local people:
    Answer: D — All of the above
    The correct answer is All of the above. Key Points - Forests supply local communities with fodder for livestock, medicinal herbs, and fruits and nuts, so all three options are correct. - These are direct provisioning benefits, alongside tim
13. Q13: A positively charged particle that is present in the nucleus of every atom is:
    Answer: C — Proton
    The correct answer is Proton. Key Points - The proton is the positively charged particle in the nucleus of every atom. - Neutrons share the nucleus but carry no charge, and electrons are negatively charged and orbit outside it. - The number
14. Q14: Botany is study of:
    Answer: B — Plants
    The correct answer is Plants. Key Points - Botany is the branch of biology dealing with plants — their structure, physiology, classification and distribution. - The study of animals is zoology, of insects entomology, and of birds ornitholog
15. Q21: India is the second largest producer of the Silk in the world after:
    Answer: A — China
    The correct answer is China. Key Points - India is the world's second largest producer of silk, after China, which accounts for the great majority of global output. - India is also the largest consumer of silk in the world. Additional Infor
16. Q26: Headquarter of UNO is situated at:
    Answer: A — New York
    The correct answer is New York. Key Points - The headquarters of the United Nations is in New York City, on an international-territory site beside the East River. - The Hague hosts the International Court of Justice, Geneva the UN's Europea
17. Q33: Floriculture deals with:
    Answer: C — Flowers
    The correct answer is Flowers. Key Points - Floriculture is the branch of horticulture concerned with cultivating and marketing flowers and ornamental plants. - The related terms: pomology deals with fruits, olericulture with vegetables, an
18. Q34: SDRF stands for:
    Answer: A — State Disaster Response Force
    The correct answer is State Disaster Response Force. Key Points - SDRF stands for State Disaster Response Force, the state-level counterpart of the National Disaster Response Force. - It is constituted by each state to handle rescue and rel
19. Q39: Jalianwala Bagh is situated in:
    Answer: B — Amritsar
    The correct answer is Amritsar. Key Points - Jallianwala Bagh is in Amritsar, Punjab, close to the Golden Temple. - The massacre took place on 13 April 1919, Baisakhi day, when General Dyer ordered troops to fire on an unarmed gathering pro
20. Q40: MNC stands for:
    Answer: C — Both A & B
    The correct answer is Both A & B. Key Points - MNC is expanded as both Multi National Corporation and Multi National Company — the two are used interchangeably. - Since both expansions are in use, the combined option is correct. Additio
21. Q41: Who led the civil disobedience movement in India?
    Answer: A — Mahatma Gandhi
    The correct answer is Mahatma Gandhi. Key Points - The Civil Disobedience Movement was led by Mahatma Gandhi, beginning with the Dandi March of March-April 1930. - Gandhi walked about 385 km from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi and broke the salt
22. Q43: Who was the founder of the Mughal dynasty in India?
    Answer: A — Zahir-ud-din Babar
    The correct answer is Zahir-ud-din Babar. Key Points - Zahir-ud-din Muhammad Babur founded the Mughal dynasty in India after defeating Ibrahim Lodi at the First Battle of Panipat in 1526. - Sher Shah Suri interrupted Mughal rule with the Su
23. Q44: People in the world mostly follow which of the following religion:
    Answer: C — Christianity
    The correct answer is Christianity. Key Points - Christianity is the most widely followed religion in the world, with roughly 2.3 billion adherents, about 31% of the global population. - Islam is second at around 1.9 billion, followed by Hi
24. Q45: Teacher's day is observed on:
    Answer: D — 5th September
    The correct answer is 5th September. Key Points - Teachers' Day in India is observed on 5 September, the birth anniversary of Dr Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, philosopher and the second President of India. - The observance began in 1962, when h
25. Q46: Mahatma Gandhi is known as:
    Answer: B — Father of the Nation
    The correct answer is Father of the Nation. Key Points - Mahatma Gandhi is known as the Father of the Nation, a title popularly attributed to Subhas Chandra Bose, who addressed him so in a 1944 radio broadcast. - The Iron Man of India is Sa
26. Q47: 2019 Cricket World Cup is scheduled at:
    Answer: A — England
    The correct answer is England. Key Points - The 2019 ICC Cricket World Cup was hosted by England and Wales, from 30 May to 14 July 2019. - England won the title, beating New Zealand in a final decided by the boundary-count rule after both t
27. Q63: Boarding in and alighting from a vehicle while in motion is:
    Answer: C — prohibited in all vehicles
    The correct answer is prohibited in all vehicles. Key Points - Boarding or alighting from a moving vehicle is prohibited in all vehicles, without exception. - It is a serious safety hazard: a passenger can fall under the wheels or be thrown
28. Q81: FIR stands for:
    Answer: C — First Information Report
    The correct answer is First Information Report. Key Points - FIR stands for First Information Report — the written document a police station records on first receiving information about a cognizable offence. - It is registered under Section
29. Q83: A police lockup is used for keeping:
    Answer: B — Arrestees
    The correct answer is Arrestees. Key Points - A police lockup is used to hold arrested persons in temporary custody at a police station, before they are produced in court. - Stores and arms are kept in a malkhana or armoury, and stray cattl
30. Q84: Which of the following cannot be used to make a lens?
    Answer: D — Clay
    The correct answer is Clay. Key Points - A lens must be made of a transparent material so that light can pass through and be refracted. - Glass, plastic and even water are transparent and can form lenses; clay is opaque and cannot. Addition
31. Q85: Water is a combination of:
    Answer: A — Oxygen & Hydrogen
    The correct answer is Oxygen & Hydrogen. Key Points - Water is H₂O — a compound of hydrogen and oxygen, in the ratio of two hydrogen atoms to one of oxygen. - By mass the ratio is 1 : 8, hydrogen to oxygen. Additional Information - The
32. Q86: Most sensitive part of Retina is called:
    Answer: C — Yellow spot
    The correct answer is Yellow spot. Key Points - The yellow spot, or macula lutea, is the most sensitive part of the retina, giving the sharpest and most detailed vision. - At its centre lies the fovea centralis, packed densely with cone cel
33. Q87: Electric heaters are made from a wire of:
    Answer: B — Nichrome
    The correct answer is Nichrome. Key Points - Electric heaters use nichrome, an alloy of nickel and chromium, for the heating element. - Nichrome is chosen because it has high resistivity, a high melting point (about 1400°C) and does not oxi
34. Q88: The commercial unit of electric energy is:
    Answer: C — Kilowatt hour
    The correct answer is Kilowatt hour. Key Points - The commercial unit of electrical energy is the kilowatt hour (kWh), commonly called one unit on an electricity bill. - Watt and kilowatt are units of power (the rate of energy use), not of
35. Q89: Natural gas is mostly:
    Answer: D — Methane
    The correct answer is Methane. Key Points - Natural gas is mostly methane (CH₄), typically making up 70-90% of it. - Smaller amounts of ethane, propane and butane are also present. - Oxygen, hydrogen and ammonia are not principal constituen
36. Q96: Which is the National song of India?
    Answer: C — Vande Matram
    The correct answer is Vande Matram. Key Points - Vande Mataram is India's National Song, written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in Sanskritised Bengali and included in his novel Anandamath (1882). - Jana Gana Mana, by Rabindranath Tagore,
37. Q97: Which is the National Bird of India?
    Answer: A — Peacock
    The correct answer is Peacock. Key Points - The Indian Peacock (Pavo cristatus) is the National Bird of India, adopted in 1963. - It was chosen for its presence throughout the country, its place in Indian tradition and myth, and its distinc

General Knowledge (J&K) — Solved Questions

1. Q15: Syed Altaf Bukhari is the minister in JK state for:
   Answer: C — Education
   The correct answer is Education. Key Points - Syed Mohammad Altaf Bukhari held the Education portfolio in the Jammu & Kashmir government at the time this paper was set in 2017. - He later moved to the Finance portfolio in the same PDP-B
2. Q16: The constituent Assembly of Kashmir ratified the accession of the state to India on:
   Answer: A — 6th February, 1954
   The correct answer is 6th February, 1954. Key Points - The Constituent Assembly of Jammu & Kashmir ratified the State's accession to India on 6 February 1954. - The Instrument of Accession itself had been signed earlier, on 26 October 1
3. Q17: Which of the following District of Jammu share it's border with Himachal Pradesh?
   Answer: C — Doda
   The correct answer is Doda. Key Points - Doda district of the Jammu division shares its border with Himachal Pradesh. - Rajouri and Poonch lie along the Line of Control facing Pakistan-administered territory, and Jammu district borders Punj
4. Q18: The largest District in terms of area in J&K state is:
   Answer: B — Leh
   The correct answer is Leh. Key Points - Leh was the largest district by area in the erstwhile State of Jammu & Kashmir, covering roughly 45,000 sq km. - Its vast, sparsely populated high-altitude terrain makes it far larger in area than
5. Q19: The gateway of J&K is:
   Answer: A — Lakhanpur
   The correct answer is Lakhanpur. Key Points - Lakhanpur, in Kathua district, is called the Gateway of Jammu & Kashmir — the point at which the national highway from Punjab enters the region. - Akhnoor, Uri and Chakkan-Da-Bagh are border
6. Q20: Which of the following soils is suitable for growing saffron?
   Answer: C — Karewa
   The correct answer is Karewa. Key Points - Karewa soils are ideal for growing saffron. These are lacustrine deposits — old lake-bed clays, silts and sands — found on the elevated tablelands of the Kashmir Valley. - Their well-drained, sligh
7. Q22: The Pashmina wool is obtained from which of the following livestock:
   Answer: C — Goat
   The correct answer is Goat. Key Points - Pashmina is the fine undercoat of the Changthangi goat, reared on the high Changthang plateau of Ladakh. - It is combed out in spring rather than sheared, and the fibre measures only about 12-16 micr
8. Q23: The main animal species that Dachigam national park is famous for:
   Answer: C — Hangul
   The correct answer is Hangul. Key Points - Dachigam National Park near Srinagar is famous for the Hangul, or Kashmir stag — the State animal of Jammu & Kashmir. - The Hangul is the only surviving Asiatic subspecies of red deer, and Dach
9. Q24: Which of the following places in the state of J&K doesn't have a civil airport?
   Answer: D — Kargil
   The correct answer is Kargil. Key Points - Among the places listed, Kargil did not have a civil airport at the time of this paper. - Jammu, Srinagar and Leh all have civil airports, with Srinagar being an international airport. Additional I
10. Q25: The word 'gul', means flower in which of the following languages:
    Answer: D — Persian
    The correct answer is Persian. Key Points - Gul means flower in Persian, and passed into Urdu, Kashmiri and other South Asian languages through Persian influence. - It survives in many familiar names and words: Gulmarg ("meadow of flow
11. Q27: Which of the following mark the end of the winter season?
    Answer: A — Lohri
    The correct answer is Lohri. Key Points - Lohri, celebrated on 13 January, marks the end of winter and the passing of the winter solstice in North India. - Holi marks the arrival of spring, Muharram is the first month of the Islamic calenda
12. Q28: Which of the following is known as father of Kashmiri Gazal?
    Answer: C — Rasool Mir
    The correct answer is Rasool Mir. Key Points - Rasool Mir of Doru Shahabad, Anantnag, is known as the father of Kashmiri ghazal and as the Shelley of Kashmir for his romantic verse. - Habba Khatoon was the sixteenth-century poetess and quee
13. Q29: State of J&K has no. of Districts.
    Answer: B — 22
    The correct answer is 22. Key Points - The erstwhile State of Jammu & Kashmir had 22 districts — 10 in the Kashmir division, 10 in Jammu and 2 in Ladakh. - The number rose from 14 to 22 in 2006-07, when eight new districts were created.
14. Q30: State of J&K consists of how many Lok Sabha Constituencies?
    Answer: C — 6
    The correct answer is 6. Key Points - The State of Jammu & Kashmir sent 6 members to the Lok Sabha, from Baramulla, Srinagar, Anantnag, Udhampur, Jammu and Ladakh. - It also had 4 Rajya Sabha seats. Additional Information - After the 20
15. Q31: State of J&K has:
    Answer: B — Bicameral Legislature
    The correct answer is Bicameral Legislature. Key Points - The State of Jammu & Kashmir had a bicameral legislature: a Legislative Assembly (lower house) and a Legislative Council (upper house). - Bicameral means two chambers; unicameral
16. Q32: The Director General of Police of the state of J&K is:
    Answer: A — Dr. S.P. Vaid
    The correct answer is Dr. S.P. Vaid. Key Points - Dr Shesh Paul Vaid was the Director General of Police of Jammu & Kashmir at the time this paper was set in 2017. - B.B. Vyas was then the Chief Secretary of the State, not the DGP. Addit
17. Q35: Double hump Camel is found in the district of:
    Answer: D — Leh
    The correct answer is Leh. Key Points - The double-humped Bactrian camel is found in the Nubra Valley of Leh district, in Ladakh. - It is the only place in India where this species survives, a legacy of the old Silk Route caravans that cros
18. Q36: Which is the second coldest inhabited place in the world?
    Answer: B — Drass
    The correct answer is Drass. Key Points - Drass, in Kargil district, is widely described as the second coldest inhabited place in the world, after Siberia's Oymyakon. - Winter temperatures there have fallen to about −60°C, recorded in 1995.
19. Q37: Which is the least populous district of the J&K state?
    Answer: A — Leh
    The correct answer is Leh. Key Points - Leh was the least populous district of the State of Jammu & Kashmir, with about 1,33,487 people at the 2011 Census. - Kargil is close behind at roughly 1,40,802, which is why the two are easily co
20. Q38: Which of the following is the largest mode of transportation in J&K?
    Answer: A — Road
    The correct answer is Road. Key Points - Road is by far the largest mode of transport in Jammu & Kashmir, carrying most passenger and freight movement. - Rail connectivity is limited, air services are confined to a few airports, and wat
21. Q42: The deepest lake in J&K is:
    Answer: D — Manasbal Lake
    The correct answer is Manasbal Lake. Key Points - Manasbal Lake, in Ganderbal district, is the deepest lake in Jammu & Kashmir, reaching about 13 metres. - Wular is the largest freshwater lake, and Dal the best known, but neither is the
22. Q80: Name the first woman Chief Minister of J&K:
    Answer: B — Mehbooba Mufti
    The correct answer is Mehbooba Mufti. Key Points - Mehbooba Mufti became the first woman Chief Minister of Jammu & Kashmir, taking office in April 2016. - She succeeded her father, Mufti Mohammad Sayeed, and led the PDP-BJP coalition un
23. Q82: In a District of J&K, Police is headed by:
    Answer: C — Superintendent of Police
    The correct answer is Superintendent of Police. Key Points - A district in Jammu & Kashmir is headed by a Superintendent of Police (SP), or an SSP in larger districts. - A DIG supervises a range of several districts, an IGP a zone, and
24. Q90: In J&K, the education is free upto which of the following level:
    Answer: B — Primary
    The correct answer is Primary. Key Points - The official answer records free education in Jammu & Kashmir as extending up to the primary level. - Note that the State's policy on free education varied over time and across schemes, which
25. Q91: The latest flood that devastated many parts of the state happened on:
    Answer: A — 7th September, 2014
    The correct answer is 7th September, 2014. Key Points - The devastating Kashmir floods struck on 7 September 2014, after exceptionally heavy rainfall caused the Jhelum to breach its banks. - Srinagar was submerged for weeks, and the disaste
26. Q92: Which of the cricket player of J&K represented India in International one day cricket match?
    Answer: A — Parvaiz Rasool
    The correct answer is Parvaiz Rasool. Key Points - Parvez Rasool is the first cricketer from Jammu & Kashmir to represent India, making his ODI debut against Bangladesh in June 2014. - He is an off-spinning all-rounder who has long capt
27. Q93: Which of the following is known as first Kashmiri Historian?
    Answer: C — Kalhana
    The correct answer is Kalhana. Key Points - Kalhana is regarded as the first Kashmiri historian, author of the Rajatarangini ("River of Kings") in about 1148 CE. - The work chronicles the rulers of Kashmir in Sanskrit verse and is
28. Q94: Famous Tulip Garden is situated in which of the following places in J&K?
    Answer: C — Srinagar
    The correct answer is Srinagar. Key Points - The Indira Gandhi Memorial Tulip Garden is in Srinagar, on the Zabarwan foothills overlooking Dal Lake. - It is the largest tulip garden in Asia, spread over about 30 hectares. Additional Informa
29. Q95: Which of the Dogra ruler signed the instrument of Accession with India?
    Answer: D — Maharaja Hari Singh
    The correct answer is Maharaja Hari Singh. Key Points - Maharaja Hari Singh, the last Dogra ruler of Jammu & Kashmir, signed the Instrument of Accession with India on 26 October 1947. - He acted after tribal forces backed by Pakistan in

General English — Solved Questions

1. Q48: You get a in train while travelling.
   Answer: D — berth
   The correct answer is berth. Key Points - A berth is a sleeping place on a train or ship — the word required here. - Its homophone birth means being born, and is the intended trap. - Bridle is a horse's headgear, and canon a law or principl
2. Q49: Kalidas is Shakespeare of India.
   Answer: C — the
   The correct answer is the. Key Points - The definite article the is used before a proper noun when comparing someone to a famous person: Kalidas is the Shakespeare of India. - The construction singles out a unique, well-known figure, so an
3. Q50: Sacred means:
   Answer: C — Holy
   The correct answer is Holy. Key Points - Sacred means holy — dedicated to a religious purpose and deserving of reverence. - Pure means free from contamination, which overlaps in feeling but not in meaning; secrety is not a word. - The close
4. Q51: Choose the word with correct British spelling.
   Answer: C — Recite
   The correct answer is Recite. Key Points - The correct spelling is recite — re + cite, meaning to repeat something aloud from memory. - Ricite, Resite and Rycite are all misspellings. Additional Information - The root is Latin citare, "
5. Q52: Choose the word with correct British spelling.
   Answer: A — Accident
   The correct answer is Accident. Key Points - The correct spelling is accident — double c, then i, ending -dent. - Accedent, Eccident and the "none" option are wrong. Additional Information - From Latin accidere, "to happen&qu
6. Q53: Choose the word with correct British spelling.
   Answer: A — Conceive
   The correct answer is Conceive. Key Points - The correct spelling is conceive, following the rule "i before e, except after c". - Because the letter before is c, the order is -cei-, not -cie-, ruling out concieve. Additional Infor
7. Q69: Give the antonyms (opposite meaning) of: BLEAK
   Answer: A — BRIGHT
   The correct answer is BRIGHT. Key Points - Bleak means dismal, gloomy, cold and cheerless, whether of weather, a landscape or a prospect. - Its opposite is bright — cheerful and full of light or promise. - Dark and dim are near-synonyms of
8. Q70: Give the antonyms (opposite meaning) of: CONCEDE
   Answer: B — DENY
   The correct answer is DENY. Key Points - Concede means to admit, grant or yield — to accept that something is true or to surrender a point. - Its opposite is deny, to refuse to admit. - Agree and consent are synonyms of concede, not antonym
9. Q71: Give the antonyms (opposite meaning) of: OBVIOUS
   Answer: C — OBSCURE
   The correct answer is OBSCURE. Key Points - Obvious means clear, plain and easily understood. - Its opposite is obscure — unclear, hidden or difficult to understand. - Clear and apparent are synonyms of obvious, so neither can be the antony
10. Q72: Give the antonyms (opposite meaning) of: SPEND
    Answer: A — EARN
    The correct answer is EARN. Key Points - Spend means to pay out or use up money; its opposite is earn, to acquire money by working. - Expend is a synonym of spend, not an antonym, and defend is unrelated. Unspend is not a word. Additional I
11. Q74: Which of the following is feminine gender?
    Answer: D — All of the above
    The correct answer is All of the above. Key Points - Aunt, grandmother and niece are all feminine gender nouns, so every option is correct. - Their masculine counterparts are uncle, grandfather and nephew respectively. Additional Informatio
12. Q75: A person pretending to be someone else, is called:
    Answer: A — Imposter
    The correct answer is Imposter. Key Points - An imposter (also spelt impostor) is a person who pretends to be someone else in order to deceive. - A liar merely tells untruths without assuming another identity, a rogue is a dishonest person
13. Q76: Anything which destroys the effect of poison, is called:
    Answer: C — Antidote
    The correct answer is Antidote. Key Points - An antidote is a substance that counteracts the effect of a poison. - An antiseptic prevents infection on wounds, and a serum is a blood product used to confer immunity — neither neutralises pois
14. Q77: A tall order means:
    Answer: A — A difficult task
    The correct answer is A difficult task. Key Points - The idiom "a tall order" means a difficult task or an unreasonably demanding request. - The literal readings — a royal summons or a plain demand — are the distractors; idioms ca
15. Q78: Make passive sentence from: “I know him.”
    Answer: B — He is known to me
    The correct answer is He is known to me. Key Points - The active sentence I know him becomes passive as He is known to me. - With the verb know, standard English takes the preposition to, not by — which is what makes option A wrong despite
16. Q79: Which of the spellings of the word is correct?
    Answer: A — Committee
    The correct answer is Committee. Key Points - The correct spelling is committee — double m, double t, double e. - All three distractors drop one of those doubles. Additional Information - A memory hook: committee has three pairs of double l
17. Q98: ‘Care for’ means:
    Answer: B — To look after
    The correct answer is To look after. Key Points - The phrasal verb care for means to look after or take charge of someone's wellbeing. - It has a second sense, to like, as in I don't care for coffee — but "to look after" is the pr
18. Q99: Incorrigible means:
    Answer: A — which cannot be corrected
    The correct answer is which cannot be corrected. Key Points - Incorrigible describes a person or habit that cannot be corrected or reformed. - It is built from in- (not) + corrigible (able to be corrected), from Latin corrigere, "to co
19. Q100: Ram died Cholera.
    Answer: B — of
    The correct answer is of. Key Points - The idiomatic construction is "died of" a disease: Ram died of cholera. - Died of is used for illness or internal causes; died from is used for injuries or external causes, as in died from a

Numerical & Reasoning Ability — Solved Questions

1. Q54: Value of (√2)³:
   Answer: C — 2√2
   The correct answer is 2√2. Key Points - (√2)³ = √2 × √2 × √2. - The first two give √2 × √2 = 2, leaving 2 × √2 = 2√2. - Numerically that is about 2.83, so the answer is neither 8 nor 2. Additional Information - Using index laws: (√2)³ = (2^
2. Q55: Value of (a + b + 2c)² is:
   Answer: C — a² + b² + 4c² + 2ab + 4bc + 4ca
   The correct answer is a² + b² + 4c² + 2ab + 4bc + 4ca. Key Points - Apply (x + y + z)² = x² + y² + z² + 2xy + 2yz + 2zx with x = a, y = b, z = 2c. - Squares: a² + b² + (2c)² = 4c². - Cross terms: 2(a)(b) = 2ab, 2(b)(2c) = 4bc, 2(2c)(a) = 4c
3. Q56: Complementary angle of 60° is:
   Answer: B — 30°
   The correct answer is 30°. Key Points - Two angles are complementary when they add to 90°. - The complement of 60° is therefore 90° − 60° = 30°. - 120° would be the supplement (adding to 180°), which is the intended trap. Additional Informa
4. Q57: In Δ ABC, if AB AC then:
   Answer: C — ∠C ∠B
   The correct answer is ∠C ∠B. Key Points - In any triangle, the larger side lies opposite the larger angle. - Side AB is opposite ∠C, and side AC is opposite ∠B. - Since AB AC, it follows that ∠C ∠B. Additional Information - The converse als
5. Q58: The sum of two numbers is 20 and their difference is 4, then the numbers are:
   Answer: C — 12, 8
   The correct answer is 12, 8. Key Points - Let the numbers be x and y with x + y = 20 and x − y = 4. - Adding the equations: 2x = 24, so x = 12. - Substituting back: y = 8. - Check: 12 + 8 = 20 ✓ and 12 − 8 = 4 ✓. Additional Information - Th
6. Q59: If all the sides of a quadrilateral are equal, then it is:
   Answer: D — Rhombus
   The correct answer is Rhombus. Key Points - A quadrilateral with all four sides equal is a rhombus. - A square also has four equal sides, but additionally requires all angles to be 90° — so it is a special case, not the general answer. - A
7. Q60: Value of sin 30° is:
   Answer: C — 1/2
   The correct answer is 1/2. Key Points - sin 30° = 1/2, a standard value derived from the 30-60-90 triangle whose sides are in the ratio 1 : √3 : 2. - The side opposite 30° is the shortest, giving sin 30° = 1/2. Additional Information - The
8. Q61: The surface area of a sphere having radius 7 cm is:
   Answer: B — 616 cm²
   The correct answer is 616 cm². Key Points - The surface area of a sphere is 4πr². - With r = 7 and π taken as 22/7: 4 × (22/7) × 7 × 7 = 4 × 22 × 7 = 616 cm². Additional Information - The distractor 154 cm² is πr², the area of a circle of t
9. Q62: The mean of the first five natural numbers is:
   Answer: C — 3
   The correct answer is 3. Key Points - The first five natural numbers are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, which sum to 15. - Mean = sum ÷ count = 15 ÷ 5 = 3. Additional Information - For the first n natural numbers, the sum is n(n+1)/2 and the mean is (n+1)/
10. Q64: Which one does not belong to the Group?
    Answer: A — Salt
    The correct answer is Salt. Key Points - Black pepper, chilli and coriander are all spices obtained from plants. - Salt is a mineral — sodium chloride — obtained from seawater or rock deposits, not from any plant. - That difference in origi
11. Q65: Which one does not belong to the Group?
    Answer: C — Water
    The correct answer is Water. Key Points - Mica, zinc and iron are all minerals or metals extracted from the earth in solid form. - Water is a liquid compound, not a mined mineral, which makes it the odd one out. Additional Information - Mic
12. Q66: Which one does not belong to the Group?
    Answer: D — Computer
    The correct answer is Computer. Key Points - Table, chair and bed are items of furniture. - A computer is an electronic device, not furniture, so it is the odd one out. Additional Information - The test is always the shared category: three
13. Q67: Altaf borrowed ₹ 1,00,000 for 3 years from Hitesh at 7% compound interest annually. How much money will he pay to his friend at the end of 3 years?
    Answer: A — ₹ 1,22,504.30
    The correct answer is ₹ 1,22,504.30. Key Points - Compound interest amount: A = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ. - Substituting P = 1,00,000, R = 7 and n = 3: A = 1,00,000 × (1.07)³. - (1.07)³ = 1.225043, so A = ₹ 1,22,504.30. Additional Information - Year b
14. Q68: Look at this series: 2, 1, 1/2, 1/4, … What number should come next?
    Answer: B — 1/8
    The correct answer is 1/8. Key Points - Each term is half the one before: 2 → 1 → 1/2 → 1/4. - The next term is therefore 1/4 ÷ 2 = 1/8. - This is a geometric progression with first term 2 and common ratio 1/2. Additional Information - In a
15. Q73: Look at this series: 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, … What number should come next?
    Answer: B — 22
    The correct answer is 22. Key Points - Examine the differences: 36 → 34 is −2, 34 → 30 is −4, 30 → 28 is −2, 28 → 24 is −4. - The pattern alternates −2, −4, so the next step is −2: 24 − 2 = 22. Additional Information - Always write the row

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are there in the J&K Police Constable Recruitment Exam 2017?

The J&K Police Constable Recruitment Exam 2017 has 100 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

When was the J&K Police Constable Recruitment Exam 2017 held?

The J&K Police Constable Recruitment Exam 2017 was held on 8 October 2017.

Is there negative marking in JKSSB Constable (Executive / Armed / IRP / SDRF) 2017?

Yes. JKSSB Constable (Executive / Armed / IRP / SDRF) deducts 0.25 marks for every wrong answer, so accuracy matters as much as attempting more questions.

Is the JKSSB Constable (Executive / Armed / IRP / SDRF) 2017 answer key with explanations available for free?

Yes. Every question in this paper includes the correct answer and a detailed, step-by-step explanation, free of cost and without login.

Can I attempt the J&K Police Constable Recruitment Exam 2017 online?

Yes. You can attempt the full paper online in a timed, exam-like interface, and get your score with solutions immediately after submitting.