SSC CGL 2025 Tier II — 19 Jan 2026 — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

Quantitative Aptitude — Solved Questions

1. Q1: A set of n values X₁, X₂, …, Xₙ has a standard deviation of 5. The standard deviation of the n values X₁ − 7, X₂ − 7, …, Xₙ − 7 will be:
   Answer: B — 5
   The correct answer is 5. Key Points - Subtracting the same constant from every value shifts the whole distribution but does not spread it out or compress it. - Formally, if every Xᵢ becomes Xᵢ − 7, the mean also falls by 7, so each deviatio
2. Q2: The height of a pyramid is 8 m, and the base of the pyramid is a square whose diagonal is √512 m. Find the approximate volume of the pyramid.
   Answer: A — 683 m³
   The correct answer is 683 m³. Key Points - Get the base area from the diagonal. For a square, area = d²/2: - area = (√512)² / 2 = 512 / 2 = 256 m² - Apply the pyramid formula V = (1/3) × base area × height: - V = (1/3) × 256 × 8 = 2048/3 =
3. Q3: Simplify: (tan²θ − sin²θ) / (2 + tan²θ + cot²θ)
   Answer: C — sin⁶θ
   The correct answer is sin⁶θ. Key Points - Simplify the numerator first: - tan²θ − sin²θ = sin²θ/cos²θ − sin²θ = sin²θ(1 − cos²θ)/cos²θ = sin⁴θ/cos²θ - The denominator is a perfect square in disguise: - 2 + tan²θ + cot²θ = (tanθ + cotθ)², si
4. Q4: A rectangle is such that its area is 48 cm² and its perimeter is 28 cm. If a rhombus is formed by joining the midpoints of the sides of this rectangle, what is the area of the rhombus?
   Answer: C — 24 cm²
   The correct answer is 24 cm². Key Points - Joining the midpoints of any quadrilateral produces a figure of exactly half its area — so the rhombus is half the rectangle. - The rectangle's area is given as 48 cm², so the rhombus is 48/2 = 24
5. Q5: The given table shows the number of people in different age groups. Find the mean age of the given number of people. Class interval of age (in years), Number of people (f); 25 - 29, 10; 30 - 34, 12; 3
   Answer: D — 43.2 years
   The correct answer is 43.2 years. Key Points - Take the midpoint of each class as its representative value: - 27, 32, 37, 42, 47, 52, 57 against frequencies 10, 12, 8, 5, 15, 10, 15 - Compute Σfx: - (27×10) + (32×12) + (37×8) + (42×5) + (47
6. Q6: A, B, and C invest in a business in the ratio 2:3:5. After 4 months, A increases his capital by 50%, B decreases his capital by 1/3, and C leaves the capital unchanged. At the end of the year, if the
   Answer: D — Rs. 7,700
   The correct answer is Rs. 7,700. Key Points - Profit divides in the ratio of capital × time, and each partner's capital changes after 4 months, so split the year into 4 months and 8 months. - Take the starting capitals as 2, 3 and 5: - A: 2
7. Q7: In a triangle ΔPQR, ∠R = 62°. The perpendicular bisector of PQ at S meets QR at T. If ∠TPR = 38°, what is the measure of ∠PQR?
   Answer: C — 40°
   The correct answer is 40°. Key Points - T lies on the perpendicular bisector of PQ, so it is equidistant from P and Q: TP = TQ. - That makes triangle TPQ isosceles, so its base angles are equal: ∠TPQ = ∠TQP = ∠PQR. Call this x. - In triangl
8. Q8: What is the value of 3/2 × (cos 39° / sin 51°) − √(sin² 39° + sin² 51°) ?
   Answer: D — 1/2
   The correct answer is 1/2. Key Points - Use the complementary relationship: since 39° + 51° = 90°, cos 39° = sin 51°. - So the first term collapses: (3/2) × (cos 39° / sin 51°) = (3/2) × 1 = 3/2. - For the radical, sin 51° = cos 39°, so: -
9. Q9: At what rate of interest per annum will a sum of ₹15,625 amount to ₹19,683 in 1 year 6 months, if the interest is compounded half-yearly?
   Answer: C — 16%
   The correct answer is 16%. Key Points - Compounded half-yearly over 1 year 6 months means 3 periods, each at half the annual rate. - Set up the ratio and look for a cube: - 19,683 / 15,625 = (1 + r)³ - 19,683 = 27³ and 15,625 = 25³ - So (1
10. Q10: The base of a right pyramid is an equilateral triangle with side 10 cm, and its vertical height is 24 cm. Find the volume (in cm³) of the pyramid.
    Answer: A — 200√3 cm³
    The correct answer is 200√3 cm³. Key Points - The base is an equilateral triangle of side 10 cm, so its area is: - (√3/4) × a² = (√3/4) × 100 = 25√3 cm² - Apply V = (1/3) × base area × height: - V = (1/3) × 25√3 × 24 = 25√3 × 8 = 200√3 cm³
11. Q11: A number is chosen at random from the set 1, 2, 3, . . . , 120. What is the probability that the number chosen is divisible by 6 or 8 but not divisible by 24?
    Answer: B — 25/120
    The correct answer is 25/120. Key Points - Count each set within 1 to 120: - divisible by 6: 120/6 = 20 - divisible by 8: 120/8 = 15 - divisible by both, i.e. by LCM(6, 8) = 24: 120/24 = 5 - By inclusion-exclusion, divisible by 6 or 8 = 20
12. Q12: A hemispherical tank is full of water. It is connected to a pipe that empties it at a rate of 7 litres per second. How much approximate time (in minutes) will it take to empty half the tank if the int
    Answer: A — 23 minutes
    The correct answer is 23 minutes. Key Points - Volume of a hemisphere = (2/3)πr³, with r = 2.1 m: - r³ = 2.1³ = 9.261 - V = (2/3) × (22/7) × 9.261 = 19.404 m³ - Half the tank is 19.404 / 2 = 9.702 m³, and 1 m³ = 1000 litres, so that is 9,70
13. Q13: If the mode of the data set a, a + 2, a + 4, a + 6, a + 6, a + 6, a + 8 is 26, find a.
    Answer: B — 20
    The correct answer is 20. Key Points - The mode is the value occurring most often. In the set a, a+2, a+4, a+6, a+6, a+6, a+8, the term a + 6 appears three times while every other appears once. - So a + 6 = 26, giving a = 20. Additional Inf
14. Q14: P and Q can do a piece of work in 20 days and 30 days, respectively. They work together for 6 days, and then Q is replaced by R. If the rest of the work is completed by P and R in 8 more days, in how
    Answer: B — 48 days
    The correct answer is 48 days. Key Points - Work done by P and Q together in 6 days: - 6 × (1/20 + 1/30) = 6 × (3 + 2)/60 = 6 × 1/12 = 1/2 of the job - The remaining 1/2 is finished by P and R in 8 days: - 8 × (1/20 + 1/R) = 1/2 - 8/20 + 8/
15. Q15: In an equilateral triangle, the circumcenter coincides with which of the following?
    Answer: B — The centroid of the triangle
    The correct answer is The centroid of the triangle. Key Points - In an equilateral triangle the perpendicular bisector of each side is also the median, the angle bisector and the altitude — all four cevians coincide. - Consequently the circ
16. Q16: The base of a right prism is an isosceles trapezium with parallel sides measuring 10 cm and 20 cm, and non-parallel sides measuring 13 cm each. The volume of the prism is 3240 cm³. What is the total s
    Answer: D — 1368 cm²
    The correct answer is 1368 cm². Key Points - Find the trapezium's height first. The parallel sides differ by 20 − 10 = 10 cm, split 5 cm either side, so with a slant side of 13: - h = √(13² − 5²) = √(169 − 25) = √144 = 12 cm - Base area = ½
17. Q17: The marks scored by students in a class test are out of 50. Find the median of the following data: Marks, Frequency; 0 - 10, 5; 10 - 20, 8; 20 - 30, 6; 30 - 40, 6; 40 - 50, 5
    Answer: B — 23.3
    The correct answer is 23.3. Key Points - Build the cumulative frequencies: 5, 13, 19, 25, 30. Total n = 30, so n/2 = 15. - The median class is the first whose cumulative frequency reaches 15 — that is 20-30 (cf 13 before it, 19 after). - Ap
18. Q18: If a chord of a circle subtends an angle of 60° at the circumference of the circle, then what is the ratio of the radius of the circle and the length of the chord respectively?
    Answer: B — 1 : √3
    The correct answer is 1 : √3. Key Points - An angle at the circumference is half the angle the same chord subtends at the centre, so a 60° inscribed angle means a 120° central angle. - Drop a perpendicular from the centre to the chord; it b
19. Q19: A sphere of radius 21 cm is cut into 8 identical pieces by making three mutually perpendicular cuts through its center (one along each axis). Find the total surface area of each piece in cm².
    Answer: B — 551.25π cm²
    The correct answer is 551.25π cm². Key Points - Three mutually perpendicular cuts through the centre divide the sphere into 8 identical octants, each bounded by one curved surface and three flat quarter-circles. - Curved part: one-eighth of
20. Q20: The expenditure of a company on five heads A, B, C, D and E is in proportion to 3:5:7:11:? respectively. The expenditure on E is equal to the arithmetic mean of the expenditures on A and D. If the exp
    Answer: B — ₹2,97,000
    The correct answer is ₹2,97,000. Key Points - First find E's share. It is the arithmetic mean of A and D: - E = (3 + 11)/2 = 7 - So the full ratio is 3 : 5 : 7 : 11 : 7, totalling 33 parts. - C exceeds B by 18,000, and C − B = 7 − 5 = 2 par
21. Q21: If x + 1/x = 2√3, then find the value of x³ + 1/x³.
    Answer: C — 18√3
    The correct answer is 18√3. Key Points - Use the standard identity rather than solving for x: - x³ + 1/x³ = (x + 1/x)³ − 3(x + 1/x) - Substituting x + 1/x = 2√3: - (2√3)³ = 8 × 3√3 = 24√3 - 3 × 2√3 = 6√3 - So x³ + 1/x³ = 24√3 − 6√3 = 18√3.
22. Q22: If 3x − ky + 8 = 0 and 9x − 18y + 20 = 0 have no solution, find k.
    Answer: B — 6
    The correct answer is 6. Key Points - Two linear equations have no solution when their lines are parallel — the coefficients are proportional but the constants are not: - a₁/a₂ = b₁/b₂ ≠ c₁/c₂ - Comparing 3x − ky + 8 = 0 with 9x − 18y + 20
23. Q23: How many integers in the set 1, 2, 3......, 100 have exactly 3 divisors?
    Answer: A — 4
    The correct answer is 4. Key Points - A number has exactly three divisors only when it is the square of a prime. If n = p², its divisors are 1, p and p² — precisely three. - Any other form gives a different count: a prime has 2 divisors, p³
24. Q24: A sum of Rs. 4800 is divided among A, B, and C in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5. The share of B is how much more than that of A?
    Answer: A — Rs. 400
    The correct answer is Rs. 400. Key Points - The ratio 3 : 4 : 5 has 12 parts in total. - One part = 4800 / 12 = Rs. 400. - B's share exceeds A's by 4 − 3 = 1 part, which is Rs. 400. Additional Information - The shares are A = 1,200, B = 1,6
25. Q25: If sinθ / x = cosθ / y, then sinθ − cosθ is:
    Answer: D — (x − y) / √(x² + y²)
    The correct answer is (x − y) / √(x² + y²). Key Points - Set the equal ratios to a constant k: - sinθ/x = cosθ/y = k, so sinθ = kx and cosθ = ky - Apply the Pythagorean identity: - sin²θ + cos²θ = 1 → k²(x² + y²) = 1 → k = 1/√(x² + y²) - Th
26. Q26: The diagonals of three faces of a rectangular parallelepiped that meet at a single corner measure √5 cm, √10 cm, and √13 cm. What is the volume of this parallelepiped?
    Answer: D — 6 cm³
    The correct answer is 6 cm³. Key Points - Let the edges be a, b and c. The three face diagonals meeting at one corner give: - a² + b² = 5, b² + c² = 10, c² + a² = 13 - Adding all three: 2(a² + b² + c²) = 28, so a² + b² + c² = 14. - Subtract
27. Q27: The marks obtained by 9 students in a test are: 5, 8, 7, 9, 6, 7, 8, 7, 10.Determine: (i) Mode of the marks, (ii) Number of students scoring above average.
    Answer: D — Mode = 7, Number of students scoring above average = 4
    The correct answer is Mode = 7, Number of students scoring above average = 4. Key Points - The marks are 5, 8, 7, 9, 6, 7, 8, 7, 10. - Mode: 7 occurs three times, more than any other value, so the mode is 7. - Mean: the total is 5 + 8 + 7 +
28. Q28: The weekly expenditure (in dollars) of 5 families on groceries is: Family A = 250, Family B = 400, Family C = 350, Family D = 500, Family E = 300.Determine: (i) Average expenditure, (ii) Family spendi
    Answer: B — Average = 360, Families above average = B, D, Difference = 250
    The correct answer is Average = 360, Families above average = B, D, Difference = 250. Key Points - Total expenditure = 250 + 400 + 350 + 500 + 300 = 1,800, over 5 families, so the average is 360. - Comparing each against 360: - A = 250 ✗, B
29. Q29: In a right-angled triangle ABC, the angle at B is 90°. If AB = 6 cm and BC = 8 cm, what is the distance between the centroid G and the orthocenter H?
    Answer: C — 10/3 cm
    The correct answer is 10/3 cm. Key Points - In a right-angled triangle the orthocentre is the right-angle vertex itself, so H is at B. - Place B at the origin: B(0, 0), A(0, 6) and C(8, 0), since AB = 6 and BC = 8. - The centroid is the ave
30. Q30: (0.1667 × 0.8333 × 0.3333) / (0.2222 × 0.6667 × 0.1250) is approximately equal to:
    Answer: A — 2.5
    The correct answer is 2.5. Key Points - Recognise each decimal as a familiar fraction: - 0.1667 ≈ 1/6, 0.8333 ≈ 5/6, 0.3333 ≈ 1/3 - 0.2222 ≈ 2/9, 0.6667 ≈ 2/3, 0.1250 = 1/8 - Numerator = (1/6)(5/6)(1/3) = 5/108. - Denominator = (2/9)(2/3)(1

Reasoning & General Intelligence — Solved Questions

1. Q31: If in a certain code, ALMIRAH is written as BNPMWGO, which word would be written as DNRWLUA?
   Answer: B — CLOSGOT
   The correct answer is CLOSGOT. Key Points - Work out the shift letter by letter from ALMIRAH → BNPMWGO: - A→B is +1, L→N is +2, M→P is +3, I→M is +4, R→W is +5, A→G is +6, H→O is +7 - The shift increases by one at each position, so decoding
2. Q32: In a certain language, COMPUTER is coded as OCPMTURE. How is KEYBOARD coded in that code?
   Answer: B — EKBYAODR
   The correct answer is EKBYAODR. Key Points - Compare COMPUTER with OCPMTURE in pairs: - CO → OC, MP → PM, UT → TU, ER → RE - The rule is simply to swap each adjacent pair of letters, left to right. No alphabetical shifting is involved. - Ap
3. Q33: If '+' means 'division', '×' means 'addition', '−' means 'multiplication', and '÷' means 'subtraction', then find the value of the following expression: 36 − 2 + 4×10÷5
   Answer: A — 23
   The correct answer is 23. Key Points - Substitute as defined: + → ÷, × → +, − → ×, ÷ → −. - The expression 36 − 2 + 4 × 10 ÷ 5 becomes 36 × 2 ÷ 4 + 10 − 5. - Apply BODMAS to the converted expression, taking × and ÷ from left to right: - 36
4. Q34: In each of the following problem, a square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How would the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line? A square transparent sheet w
   Answer: C — A tall rectangle with a dotted rectangle beside it. Inside: a triangle with its apex on the fold line, a second slanting line within it, and an arc bulging away from the fold line.
   The correct answer is option C. Key Points - The sheet is transparent, so nothing is hidden when it is folded — the pattern already on the near half and the pattern brought over by the fold are both visible, one on top of the other. - The f
5. Q35: In the following letter sequence, one term is missing. Choose the correct option that will replace the question mark. EV, GT, JQ, OL,?
   Answer: C — VE
   The correct answer is VE. Key Points - Split the pairs into two columns and convert to positions: - 1st letters: E(5), G(7), J(10), O(15) — differences +2, +3, +5 - 2nd letters: V(22), T(20), Q(17), L(12) — differences −2, −3, −5 - The step
6. Q36: There is a definite relationship between figures A and B. Establish a similar relationship between figures C and D by selecting a suitable figure from the answer set that would replace the question ma
   Answer: B — 4
   The correct answer is 4. Key Points - Read the change from figure A to figure B as three steps applied together: - Every symbol turns upside down. A's T C ( ) S inverts to ⊥ Ɔ ( ) S. - The symbols then swap in pairs — first with second, thi
7. Q37: P is married to M. W is the wife of S. G is the daughter of A. M is the mother of S. A is the sister of P. How is P related to W?
   Answer: D — Father-in-law
   The correct answer is Father-in-law. Key Points - Take the statements in turn: - M is the mother of S, and P is married to M, so P is S's father. - W is the wife of S. - P is therefore the father of W's husband, which makes P her father-in-
8. Q38: What is the mirror image of the given question figure, when the mirror is placed at the right side of the question figure as shown in the figure? A square frame containing a clock face marked with twe
   Answer: A — A clock dial with a long arrow pointing up and to the left towards the ten, and a shorter, broader arrow pointing down and to the right towards the five.
   The correct answer is option A. Key Points - The mirror stands at the right-hand side of the figure, so the reflection is a left-to-right flip. Top stays at the top, bottom stays at the bottom, and only the horizontal direction reverses. -
9. Q39: Pointing towards Sakshi, I said, "She is the daughter of the brother of my wife's son." How am I related to Sakshi?
   Answer: C — Grandfather
   The correct answer is Grandfather. Key Points - Unpack the description from the inside out: - "my wife's son" is my son - "the brother of my son" is another son of mine - "the daughter of" that son is therefore
10. Q40: Which two numbers need to be swapped to make this equation correct? 20÷5×3 + 10 − 4 = 20
    Answer: C — 4 and 5
    The correct answer is 4 and 5. Key Points - As printed, 20 ÷ 5 × 3 + 10 − 4 evaluates to: - 20 ÷ 5 = 4, 4 × 3 = 12, 12 + 10 = 22, 22 − 4 = 18, not 20. - Swapping 4 and 5 gives 20 ÷ 4 × 3 + 10 − 5: - 20 ÷ 4 = 5, 5 × 3 = 15, 15 + 10 = 25, 25
11. Q41: From the given options, select the group of letters that, when inserted in order from left to right into the blanks of the incomplete series, will logically complete it. cdfcefcdefcdecdefcdecdef
    Answer: D — edff
    The correct answer is edff. Key Points - The series repeats the block cdef. Writing it in groups of four: - c d f | c e f | c d e f | c d e | c d e f | c d e | c d e f - Filling each gap against the pattern: - block 1 needs e, block 2 needs
12. Q42: Directions: In the following question, two statements are given, followed by two conclusions (I and II). Assume the statements to be true even if they appear to contradict general facts. Determine whi
    Answer: A — Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
    The correct answer is Neither conclusion I nor II follows. Key Points - Statements: All televisions are radios and Some radios are transistors. - Conclusion I — "All radios are televisions" — does not follow. This reverses the fir
13. Q43: Which figure best represents the relation among Fathers, Teacher, Males?
    Answer: A — A small circle lying entirely inside a larger circle, with a third circle overlapping both of them and extending outside the larger circle.
    The correct answer is option A. Key Points - Take the three classes one relation at a time: - Fathers and Males — every father is a man, and there is no father who is not male. The Fathers circle therefore lies wholly inside the Males circl
14. Q44: Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third number: 3 : 30 :: 4 : 68 :: 5 :?
    Answer: B — 130
    The correct answer is 130. Key Points - Test the relationship on both worked pairs: - 3 → 30 is 3³ + 3 = 27 + 3 ✓ - 4 → 68 is 4³ + 4 = 64 + 4 ✓ - The rule is n³ + n, so for 5: - 5³ + 5 = 125 + 5 = 130 Additional Information - Validate a can
15. Q45: Observe the following table and determine the missing number in the last cell: A, B, C, D, Result; 5, 2, 3, 10, 40; 4, 3, 5, 8, 40; 6, 4, 2, 12, ?
    Answer: C — 48
    The correct answer is 48. Key Points - Look for a rule that holds across every completed row: - Row 1: 5 + 2 + 3 + 10 = 20, and the result is 40 = 20 × 2 - Row 2: 4 + 3 + 5 + 8 = 20, and the result is 40 = 20 × 2 - The rule is Result = 2 ×
16. Q46: From the given options, select the group of letters that, when inserted in order from left to right into the blanks of the incomplete series, will logically complete it. S KBFHBSFKSF B
    Answer: C — FHSKHBHK
    The correct answer is FHSKHBHK. Key Points - The series repeats the five-letter block S F H K B. Written in groups of five: - S K B | F H B | S F K | S F B - Filling each gap from the block pattern: - block 1 needs F, H; block 2 needs S, K;
17. Q47: Select the option in which the given figure is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed) A long horizontal line. Two vertical strokes rise from it. A diagonal falls from the top of the left stroke to a poin
    Answer: C — Two rhombi side by side sharing a vertex, each crossed by a vertical and a horizontal diagonal, so that one continuous horizontal line runs through both.
    The correct answer is option C. Key Points - The question figure has four parts that must all survive intact, in the same positions and at the same angles, because rotation is not allowed: - one continuous horizontal line forming the base,
18. Q48: In the following letter sequence, each group follows a specific pattern. Identify the group of letters that should come next in the sequence. ZYA, WVD, TSG, QPJ,?
    Answer: C — NMM
    The correct answer is NMM. Key Points - Read the clusters column by column: - 1st letters: Z(26), W(23), T(20), Q(17) — each −3 → next is 14 = N - 2nd letters: Y(25), V(22), S(19), P(16) — each −3 → next is 13 = M - 3rd letters: A(1), D(4),
19. Q49: Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third number: 4 : 49 :: 6 : 81 :: 8 :?
    Answer: D — 121
    The correct answer is 121. Key Points - Check the rule against both given pairs: - 4 → 49 is (4 + 3)² = 7² ✓ - 6 → 81 is (6 + 3)² = 9² ✓ - The rule is (n + 3)², so for 8: - (8 + 3)² = 11² = 121 Additional Information - Squares worth instant
20. Q50: If P denotes '+', Q means '÷', R means '−' and S means '×', then which of the following equations is correct?
    Answer: C — 16 S 5 Q 10 P 4 R 3 = 9
    The correct answer is 16 S 5 Q 10 P 4 R 3 = 9. Key Points - Substitute throughout: P = +, Q = ÷, R = −, S = ×, then evaluate each option under BODMAS. - Option C becomes 16 × 5 ÷ 10 + 4 − 3: - 16 × 5 = 80, then 80 ÷ 10 = 8 - 8 + 4 = 12, the
21. Q51: Instructions: In each of the following, the first and second pair of letters have a specific relationship. Apply the same logic to complete the third pair. WOODLAND : ZIRXOUQX :: PERIODIC : SYUCRXLW :
    Answer: D — PUJUCCQY
    The correct answer is PUJUCCQY. Key Points - Compare WOODLAND with ZIRXOUQX position by position: - W→Z is +3, O→I is −6, O→R is +3, D→X is −6, L→O is +3, A→U is −6, N→Q is +3, D→X is −6 - The rule alternates +3 and −6 across the eight posi
22. Q52: Identify the word that cannot be constructed using the letters of the given word. PROCRASTINATE
    Answer: B — PRINTED
    The correct answer is PRINTED. Key Points - List what PROCRASTINATE supplies: P, R, O, C, R, A, S, T, I, N, A, T, E — so one P, two R, one O, one C, two A, one S, two T, one I, one N, one E. There is no D. - PRINTED requires a D, which is a
23. Q53: The question consists of a set of three figures X, Y and Z showing a sequence of folding of a piece of paper. Figure Z shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. Choose the figure which
    Answer: B — A square with two six-sided holes lying side by side along the horizontal centre line, meeting at a pinch point at the centre and reaching the left and right edges.
    The correct answer is option B. Key Points - Track the folds first. In figure X the sheet is folded along the horizontal centre line, taking the top half down onto the bottom half. In figure Y the result is folded again along the vertical c
24. Q54: A 3 × 3 grid of cells is drawn. In addition, a small square is drawn inside each of the four corner cells and one inside the centre cell. How many squares are present in the following figure?
    Answer: D — 19
    The correct answer is 19. Key Points - Count the squares belonging to the 3 × 3 grid itself, by size: - 1 × 1: nine - 2 × 2: four (one in each corner position of the grid) - 3 × 3: one, the whole grid - subtotal = 9 + 4 + 1 = 14 - Add the s
25. Q55: Each letter in a word is assigned a specific number, as shown below. From the four given arrangements of these numbers, identify which one represents a meaningful word when the numbers are translated
    Answer: B — 5, 1, 2, 3, 7, 8, 6, 4, 9
    The correct answer is 5, 1, 2, 3, 7, 8, 6, 4, 9. Key Points - Build the key from the given assignment: - 1 = N, 2 = D, 3 = I, 4 = O, 5 = I, 6 = T, 7 = C, 8 = A, 9 = R - Decode the keyed option in order: 5, 1, 2, 3, 7, 8, 6, 4, 9 - I, N, D,
26. Q56: Two matrices are provided: Matrix I uses row and column numbers 0 to 4. Matrix II uses row and column numbers 5 to 9. A letter is represented by row number, column number (for example, 23 means row 2,
    Answer: D — 42, 57, 75, 11
    The correct answer is 42, 57, 75, 11. Key Points - Each code is read as row digit followed by column digit, with Matrix-I indexed 0-4 and Matrix-II indexed 5-9. - Decode the keyed option letter by letter: - 42 — Matrix-I, row 4, column 2 →
27. Q57: In the following question, one statement is given, followed by certain inferences. Consider the statement to be true even if it seems to contradict commonly known facts. Read the inferences carefully
    Answer: B — Both I and II follows
    The correct answer is Both I and II follows. Key Points - The statement asserts that humans cannot match the data-processing speed of supercomputers, which perform billions of calculations per second. - Inference I — humans are less efficie
28. Q58: A 3 × 3 grid of cells is drawn. In addition, one small square is drawn inside the top-left cell and one inside the middle cell. How many squares are present in the following figure?
    Answer: A — 16
    The correct answer is 16. Key Points - Count the squares formed by the 3 × 3 grid itself: - 1 × 1: nine · 2 × 2: four · 3 × 3: one - subtotal = 9 + 4 + 1 = 14 - Add the small squares drawn inside cells — one in the top-left cell and one in
29. Q59: Two positions of the same dice are shown. In the first position the faces showing are 3 on top, 1 on the left and 5 on the front. In the second position they are 6 on top, 3 on the left and 5 on the f
    Answer: D — 1
    The correct answer is 1. Key Points - List what each view shows: - View 1: 3 on top, 1 on the left, 5 on the front - View 2: 6 on top, 3 on the left, 5 on the front - 5 is common to both views and stays in the same position, so the die has
30. Q60: The following series of numbers is given. One number is missing. Study the pattern and find the missing number. 8, 32, 72, 128, ?
    Answer: B — 200
    The correct answer is 200. Key Points - Each term is twice a perfect square of an even number: - 8 = 2 × 2², 32 = 2 × 4², 72 = 2 × 6², 128 = 2 × 8² - Continuing the pattern with 10: 2 × 10² = 2 × 100 = 200. - Differencing agrees: the gaps a

English Language & Comprehension — Solved Questions

1. Q61: The following sentence has been divided into four parts. Identify the part which contains a grammatical error.If there is no error in the sentence, then select 'No Error'. The company will invest more
   Answer: B — The company will invest more
   The correct answer is The company will invest more. Key Points - A comparison introduced by more needs than to complete it. The sentence reads "will invest more six hundred crores", where "more than six hundred crores" i
2. Q62: Given below are four jumbled parts of a sentence. Select the option that gives their correct order. A) has been attributed by many climate scientists B) the unprecedented frequency of extreme weather
   Answer: A — BDAC
   The correct answer is BDAC. Key Points - Identify the grammatical role of each fragment: - B — "the unprecedented frequency of extreme weather events" is the subject - D — "observed across various continents over the last dec
3. Q63: Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. The burglar destroyed several items in the room. Even the carpet has been torn.
   Answer: D — Several items in the room were destroyed by the burglar. Even the carpet has been torn.
   The correct answer is Several items in the room were destroyed by the burglar. Even the carpet has been torn. Key Points - The first sentence is active and in the simple past, so its passive is was/were + past participle: - object several i
4. Q64: Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order. A. Here, the picture-perfect French Quarter and heritage laden Tamil streets blend into one another. B. Across
   Answer: A — BDAC
   The correct answer is BDAC. Key Points - B opens: it states the general situation — a visible conflict between old and new across many metropolitan cities — and contains no back-reference. - D follows, signalled by "However, Puducherry
5. Q65: Choose the appropriate antonym of the given word. Gullibility
   Answer: D — Skepticism
   The correct answer is Skepticism. Key Points - Gullibility is the tendency to believe things too readily — being easily deceived or persuaded. - Its opposite is skepticism, the disposition to doubt and question claims before accepting them.
6. Q66: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which gives the meaning of the given idiom or phrase. A stitch in time saves nine
   Answer: D — Timely action prevents more work
   The correct answer is Timely action prevents more work later. Key Points - A stitch in time saves nine means that repairing a small problem promptly avoids a far larger repair afterwards. - The image is literal in origin: one stitch in a sm
7. Q67: Select the correct direct form of the given sentence. He inquired whether the boy's name was Ahmed.
   Answer: D — He asked, “Is the boy's name Ahmed?”
   The correct answer is He asked, "Is the boy's name Ahmed?" Key Points - Converting indirect to direct reverses the usual changes: the reporting conjunction whether disappears, the word order returns to a question, and the tense mo
8. Q68: Choose the appropriate synonym of the given word. Erroneous
   Answer: B — Fallacious
   The correct answer is Fallacious. Key Points - Erroneous means containing error — mistaken or incorrect. - Fallacious carries the same sense of being based on a mistake or false reasoning, so it is the synonym. - Right and accurate are dire
9. Q69: Select the most appropriate option to substitute the highlighted segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’. Come quickly if you will catch the train.
   Answer: C — If you want to
   The correct answer is If you want to. Key Points - In a conditional clause, English uses the present tense for future meaning — "if you want to", not "if you will catch". - The sentence means come quickly if it is your i
10. Q70: Select the wrongly spelt word out of the four alternatives.
    Answer: D — Impetunent
    The correct answer is Impetunent. Key Points - Impetunent is not an English word. The intended form is either impertinent (rude, impudent) or impenitent (unrepentant), and neither is spelt this way. - The other three are correct: imperial (
11. Q71: Select the most appropriate option to substitute the highlighted segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’. Tom was standing besides the schoolhouse
    Answer: C — standing beside the schoolhouse poster
    The correct answer is standing beside the schoolhouse. Key Points - Beside means next to; besides means in addition to or apart from. The sentence describes position, so it needs beside. - The tense must also stay as it is — "Tom was s
12. Q72: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words sentence. Fear of ugliness.
    Answer: B — Cacophobia
    The correct answer is Cacophobia. Key Points - Cacophobia is the fear of ugliness, from Greek kakos meaning bad or ugly. - The distractors name different fears: - Hydrophobia — fear of water (hydro) - Arachnophobia — fear of spiders (arachn
13. Q73: Select the correctly spelt word out of the four alternatives.
    Answer: B — Grotesque
    The correct answer is Grotesque. Key Points - Grotesque — meaning comically or repulsively distorted — is spelt with -esque, the French-derived ending. - The distractors mangle either the opening (Growtesque, Grosteasque) or the ending (Gro
14. Q74: Choose the most appropriate option to fill the blank in the given sentence. The tiny deer stood looking at them with eyes.
    Answer: D — Luminous
    The correct answer is Luminous. Key Points - The sentence describes a deer's eyes, so the adjective must plausibly describe eyes. Luminous means giving off or reflecting light — precisely how an animal's eyes appear in low light. - The dist
15. Q75: Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. “Do you suppose you know better than your own father?” jeered his angry mother.
    Answer: D — His angry mother jeered and asked whether he supposed he knew better than his own father.
    The correct answer is the option beginning His angry mother jeered and asked… Key Points - The sentence is a question spoken in a jeering manner, so the reported form needs both parts: a reporting verb for the manner (jeered) and one for th
16. Q76: Choose the option that contains the homonym of the highlighted word in the given sentence. Please make sure to write your full home address, including the apartment number and zip code, on the top of
    Answer: C — Millions of people tuned in to watch the president’s televised address regarding the new economic policies.
    The correct answer is the sentence about the president's televised address. Key Points - In the prompt, address is the noun meaning a postal location — the place where someone lives or where post is delivered. - A homonym reuses the same sp
17. Q77: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which gives the meaning of the given idiom or phrase. To strain at a gnat and swallow a camel
    Answer: C — To fuss over trifles while ignoring big issues
    The correct answer is To fuss over trifles while ignoring bigger issues. Key Points - To strain at a gnat and swallow a camel describes objecting to something trivial while accepting something far more serious — a failure of proportion. - T
18. Q78: Given below are four jumbled parts of a sentence. Select the option that gives their correct order. A) by the intricate tapestry of B) the philosopher was captivated C) that define human existence D)
    Answer: C — BADC
    The correct answer is BADC. Key Points - Work out each fragment's role: - B — "the philosopher was captivated" is the subject and verb, so it opens - A — "by the intricate tapestry of" supplies the agent required by capt
19. Q79: Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. “Call the first witness,” said the judge.
    Answer: D — The judge ordered them to call the first witness.
    The correct answer is The judge ordered them to call the first witness. Key Points - The quoted sentence is an imperative — a command — so the reported form uses a command verb + object + to-infinitive. - "Call the first witness"
20. Q80: Select the correct active form of the given sentence. The massive exterior wall of the old mansion was being painted by the skilled laborers when it suddenly started raining heavily.
    Answer: A — The skilled laborers were painting the massive exterior wall of the old mansion when it suddenly started raining heavily.
    The correct answer is The skilled laborers were painting the massive exterior wall of the old mansion when it suddenly started raining heavily. Key Points - The passive is was being painted, which is the past continuous passive, so its acti
21. Q81: Select the correct direct form of the given sentence. I asked Mary if she would lend me a pencil.
    Answer: A — I said, “Mary, will you lend me a pencil?”
    The correct answer is I said, "Mary, will you lend me a pencil?" Key Points - Converting indirect to direct reverses the backshift: would returns to will. - The reported if disappears, interrogative word order is restored, and the
22. Q82: The following sentence has been divided into four parts. Identify the part which contains a grammatical error. If there is no error in the sentence, then select 'No Error'. The whole family / would bu
    Answer: D — peals for laughter.
    The correct answer is peals for laughter. Key Points - The fixed expression is peals of laughter, not peals for laughter — the preposition of links the noun to what it consists of. - The error therefore lies in the final part. - The rest is
23. Q83: Select the correct active form of the given sentence. Why was such a letter written by your brother?
    Answer: C — Why did your brother write such a letter?
    The correct answer is Why did your brother write such a letter? Key Points - The passive "Why was such a letter written by your brother?" is simple past, so the active must be simple past too. - In an active question the simple pa
24. Q84: Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order. A. Faced with the high cost and scarcity of Indian indigo; European manufacturers were forced to rely on the w
    Answer: A — DACB
    The correct answer is DACB. Key Points - Establish the logical chain rather than reading the fragments in the order given. - The passage concerns European manufacturers, the cost and scarcity of Indian indigo, and the consequences that foll
25. Q85: Choose the most appropriate option to fill the blank in the given sentence. Radium rays that can damage the eyes.
    Answer: C — gives off
    The correct answer is gives off. Key Points - Give off means to emit — to send out light, heat, radiation or a smell. Radium emitting rays is precisely this sense. - The alternatives mean something else entirely: - give away — to donate, or
26. Q86: What are the major themes expressed by the first line of the novel?
    Answer: B — Wealth, status, and marriage
    The correct answer is Wealth, status, and marriage. Key Points - The passage states directly that the novel's opening sentence sets up the major themes of money, status, and marrying well that run through 19th-century England. - The answer
27. Q87: Which defects in character does the name "Pride and Prejudice" primarily refer to?
    Answer: A — Darcy’s pride and Elizabeth’s prejudice
    The correct answer is Darcy's pride and Elizabeth's prejudice. Key Points - The title names two character defects, and the passage attaches them to the two central figures: pride to Darcy and prejudice to Elizabeth. - The pairing is what th
28. Q88: How is the character of Lady Catherine de Bourgh employed in the novel as a criticism of society?
    Answer: D — She represents social tyranny and class prejudice.
    The correct answer is She represents social tyranny. Key Points - Lady Catherine de Bourgh functions in the novel as a figure of aristocratic authority attempting to dictate others' choices, particularly in opposing a marriage beneath her e
29. Q89: What is the key event that marks a turning point in making Elizabeth change her view of Darcy?
    Answer: D — Her visit to Pemberley and her reception of Darcy's letter
    The correct answer is Her visit to Pemberley. Key Points - The turning point in Elizabeth's view of Darcy is her visit to Pemberley, his estate, where she encounters evidence of his character quite unlike her earlier impression. - Seeing ho
30. Q90: What kind of marriage does Jane Austen appear to prize the most, according to the conclusion of the novel?
    Answer: B — Based on mutual respect, love, and understanding in marriage
    The correct answer is Based on mutual respect and love. Key Points - The passage contrasts the marriages in the novel: those made for convenience (Charlotte and Mr Collins) and those driven by passion without responsibility (Lydia and Wickh
31. Q91: What might be the author’s overall purpose for discussing the development from MGNREGA to the VB-GRAM G Act?
    Answer: B — Emphasize how institutional reforms try to maintain constitutionally provided rights while recognizing administrative weaknesses
    The correct answer is Emphasize how institutional and legislative change reshapes the programme. Key Points - The passage traces a legislative transition in rural employment guarantee law and then examines what the amended provisions do — n
32. Q92: The author's tone regarding new rules (e.g., photo-based attendance) is best described as?
    Answer: B — Cautiously critical, admitting the benefits of innovation while pointing out the dangers of abuse in bureaucracies
    The correct answer is Cautiously critical, admitting some merit. Key Points - The passage neither endorses nor rejects the newer procedural requirements outright. It acknowledges an intended benefit while raising concerns about their practi
33. Q93: What can be reasonably inferred about the relationship between women's participation and rural resilience during the pandemic?
    Answer: C — Their significant involvement contributed to the continuation of the community through the maintenance of the local economy in spite of the general economic disruptions that were happening.
    The correct answer is Their significant involvement supported rural resilience. Key Points - The passage links women's participation in the employment programme to the maintenance of rural livelihoods during the pandemic period. - The reaso
34. Q94: What does the author's discussion of lack of funding primarily indicate?
    Answer: B — Administrative inefficiencies and implementation challenges due to a shortage of funding.
    The correct answer is Administrative inefficiency. Key Points - The passage's discussion of funding shortfalls points to problems in how resources move through the system — delays and gaps in disbursement rather than an absolute absence of
35. Q95: What does “sustainable development” mean most nearly in the context of the passage?
    Answer: A — Improvements relating to long-term socioeconomic benefits for rural households via stable program design
    The correct answer is Improvements relating to livelihood. Key Points - The question asks what "sustainable development" means in the context of this passage, which need not match its broadest definition. - The passage is concerne
36. Q96: Which of the following is most true in regard to stating the structure of logic found in the author's conclusion?
    Answer: C — It urges a transition from procedural pedantry towards a results-oriented strategic framework.
    The correct answer is It urges a transition from complex rules toward incentive-based supervision. Key Points - The passage builds toward a conclusion about how banks should be supervised, contrasting detailed prescriptive regulation with a
37. Q97: The use of "stress tests" by the author is an example of illustrating which of the following consequences?
    Answer: A — The movement of risk-related financial activities into industries that are less heavily regulated.
    The correct answer is The movement of risk-related activity. Key Points - The passage uses stress tests as an illustration, and the consequence it illustrates is that risk relocates rather than disappearing when supervision focuses on measu
38. Q98: Why are supervisors often slow to act when banks have problems?
    Answer: B — They prefer to avoid conflict instead of fixing risks early.
    The correct answer is They prefer to avoid conflict. Key Points - The passage attributes supervisory delay to reluctance to confront the institutions being supervised, rather than to any absence of authority. - The distinction matters: supe
39. Q99: What would "positive incentives" do for the banking system?
    Answer: C — Help banks behave in a way that keeps the economy stable.
    The correct answer is Help banks behave prudently of their own accord. Key Points - Positive incentives work by making sound behaviour advantageous to the bank, so that prudence follows from self-interest rather than from enforcement. - The
40. Q100: The tone with which the author approaches the current situation of "complex regulation" is best described as:
    Answer: C — Critical because complicated rules can actually cause more risk.
    The correct answer is Critical, because complicated rules create their own problems. Key Points - The passage treats the growth of complex regulation as a difficulty rather than an achievement, arguing that complexity itself produces uninte
41. Q101: What should come in blank (1) ?
    Answer: D — against
    The correct answer is against. Key Points - Currency movements are always expressed with against: a currency rises or falls against another. - The sentence describes the rupee falling consistently in relation to the dollar, so "falling
42. Q102: What should come in blank (2) ?
    Answer: D — recovered
    The correct answer is recovered. Key Points - The sentence turns on a contrast: after falling for much of the year, the rupee has done something different over recent weeks, and the next sentence confirms it has risen by almost 5% from its
43. Q103: What should come in blank (3) ?
    Answer: A — reached
    The correct answer is reached. Key Points - The phrase describes the lowest levels the rupee reached in October — the natural verb for arriving at a value or extreme. - "Levels reached in October" is a standard past-participle con
44. Q104: What should come in blank (4) ?
    Answer: C — tied
    The correct answer is tied. Key Points - The passage links the rupee's movement to global crude oil prices, and the natural way to express that dependence is that the currency is tied to them. - The distractors fail on sense: amicably and m
45. Q105: What should come in blank (5) ?
    Answer: A — strengthened
    The correct answer is strengthened. Key Points - The clause runs "as global crude prices have fallen, the rupee has against the dollar", so the blank needs a verb describing the currency gaining value. - Falling oil prices reduce

General Awareness — Solved Questions

1. Q106: Dr. Bhupen Hazarika is famously known by which of the following titles, reflecting his deep connection to the geography and spirit of Assam?
   Answer: B — Bard of Brahmaputra
   The correct answer is Bard of Brahmaputra. Key Points - Dr. Bhupen Hazarika is known as the Bard of Brahmaputra, the title tying his songs to the river that defines Assam's landscape and identity. - He was a singer, lyricist, composer and f
2. Q107: Which of the following was a primary objective of Alauddin Khilji's ‘Market Control’ (Zawabit) regulations?
   Answer: B — To keep essential commodity prices low so soldiers could be maintained on fixed salaries.
   The correct answer is To keep essential commodity prices low. Key Points - Alauddin Khilji's market control regulations fixed the prices of grain, cloth, horses, cattle and slaves, and enforced them through a dedicated administrative machin
3. Q108: Which historical process is best reflected by the evolution of temple architecture in India?
   Answer: D — Continuous interaction of religion and regional styles
   The correct answer is Continuous interaction of religious and cultural traditions. Key Points - Indian temple architecture developed gradually over centuries, absorbing regional styles, changing religious practice and successive dynastic pa
4. Q109: Regarding 'Hit and Run' cases under Section 106(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS), what is the maximum punishment if an offender causes death by rash and negligent driving and fails to inf
   Answer: A — Imprisonment up to 10 years and a fine
   The correct answer is Imprisonment up to 10 years and fine. Key Points - Section 106(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with causing death by rash and negligent driving where the driver flees without reporting the incident to a p
5. Q110: Which of the following biological processes explains why human muscles often feel sore or "cramped" after a sudden, intense bout of physical exercise?
   Answer: D — Accumulation of Lactic Acid
   The correct answer is Accumulation of Lactic Acid. Key Points - During intense exercise the muscles' oxygen supply falls short of demand, so they switch to anaerobic respiration. - Glucose is then broken down incompletely, producing lactic
6. Q111: Regarding the 'Subsidiary Alliance' system introduced by Lord Wellesley (1798–1805), which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
   Answer: A — The ruler was free to employ any European (French, Portuguese, etc.) as long as they were not in active conflict with the British.
   The correct answer is The ruler was free to employ any European. Key Points - The question asks for the incorrect statement, and this is it. Under the Subsidiary Alliance, an Indian ruler was expressly forbidden from employing Europeans wit
7. Q112: Consider the following statements regarding the current Vice President of India: Statement 1: Chandrapuram Ponnusami (C.P.) Radhakrishnan is the Vice President of India, took charge on 12th September
   Answer: A — Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
   The correct answer is Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Key Points - C. P. Radhakrishnan assumed office as Vice President of India, and the accompanying statement on the office is likewise accurate. - Both statements standing means the a
8. Q113: Read the below statements: 1. NASA launched a space telescope, SPHEREx, to study the universe's "cosmic glow". 2. The Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) telescope was inaugurated
   Answer: B — Statement 1 and 2 both
   The correct answer is Statement 1 and 2 both. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. NASA's SPHEREx is a space telescope designed to survey the sky in infrared, studying the faint collective glow of cosmic sources and the early universe. - St
9. Q114: The 'Fortaleza Declaration' of 2014 is most famous in BRICS history for the creation of which of the following?
   Answer: B — The Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA)
   The correct answer is The Contingent Reserve Arrangement. Key Points - The Fortaleza Declaration was issued at the 6th BRICS Summit held in Fortaleza, Brazil, in 2014. - It established the New Development Bank (NDB) and the Contingent Reser
10. Q115: Read the following statements regarding the 'Doctrine of Repugnancy' (Article 254): Statement I: If a ‘State law’ on a "Concurrent List" subject conflict with a ‘Union law’, then the Union l
    Answer: C — Both Statements I and II are correct
    The correct answer is Both Statements I and II are correct. Key Points - Article 254 embodies the Doctrine of Repugnancy, governing conflict between Union and State law on a Concurrent List subject. - Statement I is correct: where the two c
11. Q116: The Second Five Year Plan (1956-1961), often associated with the Mahalanobis Model, marked a significant shift in India's development strategy. What was the primary focus of this plan?
    Answer: A — Rapid industrialization with a particular emphasis on the development of basic and heavy industries.
    The correct answer is Rapid industrialization with a focus on heavy industry. Key Points - The Second Five Year Plan (1956-61) was built on the Mahalanobis model, which prioritised building the capacity to produce capital goods — the machin
12. Q117: Who was awarded the 2025 Pulitzer Prize for Fiction for a novel that serves as a provocative and satirical reimagining of the life of Jim from Mark Twain’s 'Adventures of Huckleberry Finn'?
    Answer: B — Percival Everett
    The correct answer is Percival Everett. Key Points - Percival Everett won the 2025 Pulitzer Prize for Fiction for James, which retells Adventures of Huckleberry Finn from the perspective of the enslaved character Jim. - The novel's device —
13. Q118: Regarding the legal protection of Dugong (Sea Cow) in India, consider the following statements: Statement 1: The Dugong is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement
    Answer: D — Both Statement 1 and Statement 2
    The correct answer is Both Statement 1 and Statement 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The Dugong, or sea cow, is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the category carrying the highest level of protection. - St
14. Q119: Which of the following correctly describes the NISAR mission?
    Answer: D — Joint ISRO–NASA mission using L and S-band radar
    The correct answer is Joint ISRO-NASA mission using dual-band radar. Key Points - NISAR stands for NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar, so it is a joint mission, not the work of either agency alone. - It carries two radar frequencies: an L-b
15. Q120: In a standard FIBA (International) game, how many quarters are played, and how long is each quarter?
    Answer: B — Four 10-minute quarters
    The correct answer is Four 10-minute quarters. Key Points - Under FIBA rules an international basketball match is played in four quarters of 10 minutes each, giving 40 minutes of playing time. - The distractors describe other formats: NBA g
16. Q121: India hosted the 2025 Men's FIH Hockey Junior World Cup. Which of the following correctly states the location, host city name, and timing of this event?
    Answer: C — Chennai and Madurai, Tamil Nadu, from November 28 to December 10, 2025
    The correct answer is Chennai and Madurai, Tamil Nadu. Key Points - India hosted the 2025 Men's FIH Hockey Junior World Cup, staged across Chennai and Madurai in Tamil Nadu. - Using two host cities is the detail separating the correct optio
17. Q122: Which of the following statements regarding 'Navroz' (Nowruz) is correct?
    Answer: B — It is the Persian New Year celebrated on the Spring Equinox, introduced in India by Ghiyasuddin Balban.
    The correct answer is It is the Persian New Year. Key Points - Navroz, or Nowruz, literally means "new day" and marks the Persian New Year. - It falls on the spring equinox, around 21 March, when day and night are of equal length
18. Q123: Which of the following was a primary objective of 'Liberalization' within the New Economic Policy (NEP) of 1991?
    Answer: B — Abolishing industrial licensing for most industries to encourage private entry.
    The correct answer is Abolishing industrial licensing. Key Points - Liberalisation under the New Economic Policy of 1991 meant removing state controls over private enterprise, and its central act was dismantling the industrial licensing sys
19. Q124: Read the below statements regarding Aman Sehrawat's performance at the Paris 2024 Olympics: Statement I: Aman Sehrawat won the bronze medal in the Men's 57kg freestyle wrestling event by defeating Dar
    Answer: D — Both statements I and II are correct
    The correct answer is Both statements I and II are correct. Key Points - Aman Sehrawat won a bronze medal in men's 57 kg freestyle wrestling at the Paris 2024 Olympics, defeating Darian Cruz of Puerto Rico in the bronze-medal bout. - The ac
20. Q125: Match List-I (Schedules) with List-II (Provisions/Functionaries) and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I (Schedule) List-II (Specific Provisions/Functionaries) A. Second Sche
    Answer: A — A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
    The correct answer is A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4. Key Points - Match each Schedule to what it actually contains: - Second Schedule — emoluments, allowances and privileges of the President, Governors, Speaker, judges and the CAG - Third Schedule — t
21. Q126: Which of the following pairs of minerals and its leading producing state in India is correctly matched?
    Answer: A — Bauxite – Odisha
    The correct answer is Bauxite – Odisha. Key Points - Odisha is India's leading producer of bauxite, the principal ore of aluminium, with major deposits in the Kalahandi and Koraput districts. - The other pairings are wrong: - Limestone — le
22. Q127: Read the below statements: Statement I: The 'Zoji La pass' serves as a very important link between the Kashmir Valley and the Ladakh region, cutting through the Great Himalayan Range. Statement II: Th
    Answer: C — Only Statement I is correct
    The correct answer is Only Statement I is correct. Key Points - Statement I is correct. Zoji La connects the Kashmir Valley with Ladakh, cutting through the Great Himalayan range on the Srinagar-Leh road, and is the region's critical winter
23. Q128: Which indicator is used to measure the 'Knowledge' dimension of the Human Development Index?
    Answer: B — Mean years of schooling and Expected years of schooling
    The correct answer is Mean years of schooling and Expected years of schooling. Key Points - The HDI combines three dimensions, and the Knowledge dimension is measured by two education indicators together: - Mean years of schooling for adult
24. Q129: From a macroeconomic perspective, which indicator best captures the government’s borrowing requirement excluding interest payments on past debt?
    Answer: B — Primary deficit
    The correct answer is Primary deficit. Key Points - The primary deficit is the fiscal deficit minus interest payments on past borrowing. - Removing interest strips out the cost of previous debt, leaving the borrowing attributable to the cur
25. Q130: What constitutes the primary objective of the Gyan Bharatam Mission?
    Answer: A — Preserving, digitizing, and disseminating India's manuscript heritage
    The correct answer is Preserving, digitizing, and disseminating manuscripts. Key Points - The Gyan Bharatam Mission is directed at India's manuscript heritage — surveying, conserving, digitising and making accessible the vast body of manusc

Computer Knowledge — Solved Questions

1. Q131: What is the primary benefit of enabling encryption for data in transit on a network?
   Answer: B — It ensures that data is unreadable to attackers during transmission
   The correct answer is It ensures that data is unreadable if intercepted. Key Points - Encryption in transit scrambles data while it travels across a network, so anyone capturing the traffic sees only ciphertext. - It protects confidentialit
2. Q132: In enterprise storage, how does a "Copy-on-Write" (CoW) snapshot differ from a traditional backup?
   Answer: B — It only stores pointers to data blocks until those blocks are modified.
   The correct answer is It only stores pointers to data blocks and records changes. Key Points - A Copy-on-Write snapshot captures the state of a volume by recording pointers to existing blocks rather than duplicating them. - Original data is
3. Q133: In Windows 10/11, which shortcut key combination allows a user to cycle through apps on the Taskbar in the order they are pinned?
   Answer: C — Windows Key + T
   The correct answer is Windows Key + T. Key Points - Windows Key + T cycles through the applications on the Taskbar in the order they are pinned, showing a preview of each as it is highlighted. - The distractors do something different: - Alt
4. Q134: Which of the following is a limitation of using symmetric encryption for securing communications?
   Answer: B — Key distribution and management become challenging
   The correct answer is Key distribution and management is difficult. Key Points - Symmetric encryption uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt, so both parties must already share that key secretly. - Delivering the key safely to the other p
5. Q135: In the OSI model, which layer is responsible for routing packets across different networks using logical addressing?
   Answer: B — Network Layer
   The correct answer is Network Layer. Key Points - The Network Layer (Layer 3) handles routing between different networks and uses logical addressing — IP addresses. - Its job is to determine the path a packet takes across interconnected net
6. Q136: In asynchronous serial communication, what is the role of "Hardware Handshaking" (e.g., using RTS/CTS lines)?
   Answer: D — To prevent data loss by managing buffer overflow
   The correct answer is To prevent data loss by managing flow control. Key Points - Hardware handshaking using the RTS (Request To Send) and CTS (Clear To Send) lines is a flow control mechanism. - The receiver signals on these dedicated line
7. Q137: A computer system has a memory capacity of 4K×8 bits. How many address lines are required on the address bus to identify every byte in this memory uniquely?
   Answer: B — 12 lines
   The correct answer is 12 lines. Key Points - The notation 4K × 8 bits means 4K locations, each holding 8 bits (one byte). - 4K = 4 × 1024 = 4096 locations, so the address bus must uniquely identify 4096 addresses. - Since n address lines ad
8. Q138: In Excel’s "Edit Mode," which keyboard shortcut allows you to insert a manual line break within a single cell to manage long text strings or multi-line formulas?
   Answer: D — Alt + Enter
   The correct answer is Alt + Enter. Key Points - Alt + Enter inserts a manual line break inside a cell, letting text wrap onto a new line within the same cell while remaining in edit mode. - The others do different things: - Enter alone conf
9. Q139: What is the main purpose of using a file compression technique before uploading to cloud storage?
   Answer: A — To reduce the file size and save storage space
   The correct answer is To reduce the file size and save bandwidth. Key Points - Compression encodes data more efficiently, producing a smaller file that uploads faster and consumes less storage and bandwidth. - That is its primary purpose; t
10. Q140: In Excel, which function would you use to count the number of cells in a range that meet a specific condition?
    Answer: D — =COUNTIF(A1:A10, "10")
    The correct answer is =COUNTIF(A1:A10, "10"). Key Points - COUNTIF counts the cells in a range that satisfy a single condition, which is exactly what the question asks for. - The syntax is =COUNTIF(range, criteria), with the crite
11. Q141: When comparing HDMI and DisplayPort, which feature is unique to the DisplayPort architecture?
    Answer: D — Daisy Chaining (MST)
    The correct answer is Daisy Chaining (MST). Key Points - Multi-Stream Transport (MST) is unique to DisplayPort. It allows several monitors to be connected in a chain from a single port, with the video streams multiplexed over one cable. - H
12. Q142: What is the main purpose of a Trojan horse in network and information security?
    Answer: B — To steal or delete files and create a backdoor for hackers
    The correct answer is To steal or delete files and create backdoors. Key Points - A Trojan horse disguises itself as legitimate software so the user installs it willingly; once running it performs hidden malicious actions — stealing or dest
13. Q143: You are editing a 50-page thesis. The heading font size changes automatically whenever you modify one heading. You want only the selected heading to change, not all similar headings. What should you d
    Answer: A — Apply Direct Formatting
    The correct answer is Apply Direct Formatting. Key Points - The headings are changing together because they share a style. Editing a style updates every element using it throughout the document — which is the behaviour described. - To chang
14. Q144: Which mechanism handles the "Object Linking" in OLE by maintaining a persistent connection to a remote server's CLSID?
    Answer: A — Component Object Model (COM)
    The correct answer is Component Object Model (COM). Key Points - OLE (Object Linking and Embedding) is built on the Component Object Model, Microsoft's standard for software components to expose interfaces and communicate. - COM identifies
15. Q145: During the Instruction Cycle, which specific register holds the instruction that is currently being decoded and executed by the CPU?
    Answer: D — Instruction Register (IR)
    The correct answer is Instruction Register (IR). Key Points - The Instruction Register holds the instruction currently being decoded and executed, after it has been fetched from memory. - The other registers have distinct roles: - Program C
16. Q146: When a user creates a 'Section Break (Next Page)' in a long document, which of the following attributes can be uniquely modified for the new section without affecting the previous one?
    Answer: C — Page orientation and margin settings
    The correct answer is Page orientation and margin settings. Key Points - A Section Break divides a document into parts that can carry independent page-level formatting. - Attributes that can differ between sections include page orientation
17. Q147: What is the primary architectural advantage of a Microprogrammed Control Unit over a Hardwired one?
    Answer: A — Ease of instruction set updates
    The correct answer is Ease of instruction set updates. Key Points - A Microprogrammed Control Unit stores its control logic as microinstructions in control memory, so modifying or extending the instruction set means rewriting that microcode
18. Q148: Which of the following is a secure method for encrypting emails to protect the content from unauthorized access?
    Answer: D — S/MIME
    The correct answer is S/MIME. Key Points - S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) encrypts the content of an email message and supports digital signatures, providing confidentiality, integrity and authenticity end to end. - T
19. Q149: A teacher wants to view only students who scored above 75 marks without deleting other records. Which Excel tool is best?
    Answer: D — Filter
    The correct answer is Filter. Key Points - Filter temporarily hides rows that do not meet a condition, showing only the matching records while leaving all data intact. - For this case a number filter of "greater than 75" displays
20. Q150: A text box moves out of place when content is edited during a presentation. Which design mistake MOST likely caused this?
    Answer: A — Not using placeholders
    The correct answer is Not using placeholders. Key Points - Placeholders are the predefined content boxes belonging to a slide layout. Their position and size are governed by the Slide Master, so content stays anchored as it is edited. - A m

Frequently Asked Questions

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The SSC CGL 2025 Tier II — 19 Jan 2026 has 150 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

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