JKCCE Prelims 2025 — General Studies Paper II (CSAT, Set B) — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

Reading Comprehension — Solved Questions

1. Q1: Passage for Questions (1-5) The revival of traditional knowledge systems represents an important cultural and intellectual shift in the modern world. For centuries, local and indigenous forms of knowl
   Answer: A — Offer sustainable approaches to modern global challenges.
   The correct answer is Offer sustainable approaches to modern global challenges.. Key Points - The passage states that as societies face growing crises in environment, health, and ethics, these traditional systems are being re-evaluated for
2. Q2: The author suggests that the revival of traditional knowledge should:
   Answer: A — Avoid being treated as unquestionable or perfect.
   The correct answer is Avoid being treated as unquestionable or perfect.. Key Points - The second paragraph opens with revival must not mean blind imitation of the past, and adds that traditional knowledge should be studied critically. - To
3. Q3: The passage implies that true revival of traditional wisdom requires:
   Answer: B — A balance between authenticity and adaptation.
   The correct answer is A balance between authenticity and adaptation.. Key Points - The passage names the real challenge as keeping its original essence alive while making it suitable for modern realities. - Original essence corresponds to a
4. Q4: The tone of the passage can best be described as:
   Answer: B — Analytical and constructive.
   The correct answer is Analytical and constructive.. Key Points - The passage weighs a case: it presents the value of traditional knowledge, then states a limitation (must not mean blind imitation), then proposes a remedy (collaboration). Th
5. Q5: Assertion (A): The revival of traditional knowledge systems is vital for building sustainable futures. Reason (R): These systems are based on harmony between human existence and the natural environmen
   Answer: A — Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
   The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.. Key Points - Assertion restates the passage's closing claim that traditional wisdom is a living foundation for creating a more balanced and sustainable future. It is
6. Q76: Passage for Questions (76-80) In the evolving architecture of global power, the multi-polar world represents a decisive shift from the unipolar dominance of the post-Cold War era toward a more distrib
   Answer: B — Maintain flexibility by engaging with multiple power blocs.
   The correct answer is Maintain flexibility by engaging with multiple power blocs.. Key Points - The passage defines the term directly: strategic autonomy allows it to engage with multiple power blocs without being constrained by rigid allia
7. Q77: The passage suggests that India's foreign policy in the 21st century differs from traditional non-alignment because it:
   Answer: B — Combines independence with pragmatic engagement in global institutions.
   The correct answer is Combines independence with pragmatic engagement in global institutions.. Key Points - The passage describes India's policy as rooted in the tradition of non-alignment yet reinterpreted through the lens of 21st-century
8. Q78: Which of the following best captures the author's view of India's role in the multi-polar world?
   Answer: B — India functions as a mediator that bridges diverse global power structures.
   The correct answer is India functions as a mediator that bridges diverse global power structures.. Key Points - The passage states that India aspires to function as a balancing power — bridging the ideological divide between established Wes
9. Q79: The passage implies that one of India's key challenges in maintaining its global position is:
   Answer: B — Managing both domestic vulnerabilities and external pressures.
   The correct answer is Managing both domestic vulnerabilities and external pressures.. Key Points - The third paragraph lists the challenges: India must navigate competing expectations from major powers, manage complex regional dynamics, and
10. Q80: The tone of the passage is best described as:
    Answer: B — Analytical and balanced in its evaluation of India's foreign policy.
    The correct answer is Analytical and balanced in its evaluation of India's foreign policy.. Key Points - The passage sets out India's position, supports it with concrete examples, and then devotes a full paragraph to the difficulties — that
11. Q81: Passage for Questions (81-85) In the modern era of technological convenience, the sedentary lifestyle has emerged as one of the most insidious threats to human well-being. Characterized by prolonged p
    Answer: B — Appears harmless but leads to severe long-term consequences.
    The correct answer is Appears harmless but leads to severe long-term consequences.. Key Points - Insidious means harmful in a gradual, concealed way — dangerous precisely because it does not look dangerous. - The passage supplies exactly th
12. Q82: The author suggests that combating sedentary behaviour demands:
    Answer: C — A cultural transformation that values movement in everyday life.
    The correct answer is A cultural transformation that values movement in everyday life.. Key Points - The passage is explicit: countering sedentarism requires more than occasional workouts; it necessitates a cultural and psychological shift.
13. Q83: The paradox mentioned in the passage refers to the fact that:
    Answer: A — Technological advancement coexists with declining physical health.
    The correct answer is Technological advancement coexists with declining physical health.. Key Points - The passage flags the paradox in its first paragraph: this lifestyle is paradoxically associated with progress. - The contradiction is th
14. Q84: The author's tone in the passage can best be described as:
    Answer: B — Analytical and cautionary
    The correct answer is Analytical and cautionary. Key Points - The passage examines mechanisms and cites evidence (studies have correlated…), which is analytical. - It also warns — a silent epidemic, insidious threats, premature mortality —
15. Q85: Assertion (A): Sedentary lifestyles contribute to both physical and psychological deterioration. Reason (R): Continuous inactivity disrupts the body's natural need for movement and balance. Select the
    Answer: A — Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
    The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.. Key Points - Assertion is true: the passage states that sedentary behaviour raises the risk of physical disease and also erodes cognitive sharpness, diminishes produc
16. Q86: Passage for Questions (86-90) Critical thinking has become a cornerstone of higher education, fostering intellectual rigor, creativity, and independent judgment. It is not merely the accumulation of k
    Answer: B — Analysing, evaluating, and synthesizing information
    The correct answer is Analysing, evaluating, and synthesizing information. Key Points - The passage defines it directly: critical thinking is not merely the accumulation of knowledge but the ability to analyse, evaluate, and synthesize info
17. Q87: The passage implies that critical thinking contributes to:
    Answer: B — Problem-solving, ethical reasoning, and adaptive judgment
    The correct answer is Problem-solving, ethical reasoning, and adaptive judgment. Key Points - The second paragraph states that critical thinking cultivates problem-solving skills, ethical reasoning, and reflective judgment. - It adds that l
18. Q88: A major challenge to fostering critical thinking in higher education is:
    Answer: B — Rote-based teaching and examination-oriented curricula
    The correct answer is Rote-based teaching and examination-oriented curricula. Key Points - The third paragraph names the obstacles: traditional rote-based pedagogies, examination-oriented curricula, and hierarchical classroom structures oft
19. Q89: Which of the following best captures the author's perspective on the purpose of higher education?
    Answer: B — It should cultivate discernment, responsibility, and transformative thinking.
    The correct answer is It should cultivate discernment, responsibility, and transformative thinking.. Key Points - The passage closes by urging institutions to transform education from a mere process of knowledge transmission into a platform
20. Q90: The passage suggests that in the context of information abundance, critical thinking is essential because:
    Answer: B — It helps students discern credible, relevant, and conflicting perspectives.
    The correct answer is It helps students discern credible, relevant, and conflicting perspectives.. Key Points - The first paragraph explains why: in an era of information abundance, where digital media and open-access resources flood studen
21. Q91: Passage for Questions (91-95) The relationship between reason and faith has been a central concern in philosophy, theology, and intellectual history. Reason, grounded in logic, evidence, and critical
    Answer: B — Oppositional, though historically reconciled in many cases
    The correct answer is Oppositional, though historically reconciled in many cases. Key Points - The passage says the two are frequently portrayed as oppositional, and then immediately adds that history reveals numerous attempts to reconcile
22. Q92: The passage suggests that faith contributes primarily by:
    Answer: B — Offering ethical and existential frameworks of meaning
    The correct answer is Offering ethical and existential frameworks of meaning. Key Points - The passage assigns each side a role: faith provides a framework of values and meaning, while reason ensures coherence, critical assessment, and resp
23. Q93: The author implies that reliance solely on reason may result in:
    Answer: A — Moral relativism and existential emptiness
    The correct answer is Moral relativism and existential emptiness. Key Points - The third paragraph gives the two symmetrical dangers: uncritical adherence to faith can lead to dogmatism, while exclusive reliance on reason may produce moral
24. Q94: According to the passage, the historical example of Thomas Aquinas demonstrates that:
    Answer: B — Reason can support and illuminate faith
    The correct answer is Reason can support and illuminate faith. Key Points - The passage states that medieval thinkers like Thomas Aquinas argued that reason could illuminate and support faith, showing that rational reflection and divine rev
25. Q95: The author's perspective on the coexistence of reason and faith can best be described as:
    Answer: B — Advocating for a balanced dialogue integrating both
    The correct answer is Advocating for a balanced dialogue integrating both. Key Points - The closing paragraph recommends that a balanced engagement encourages dialogue, humility, and openness, allowing empirical knowledge to be integrated w
26. Q96: Passage for Questions (96-100) In the contemporary information ecosystem, the proliferation of misinformation has emerged as a profound threat to social cohesion and democratic governance. Misinformat
    Answer: B — Undermining informed decision-making and public trust
    The correct answer is Undermining informed decision-making and public trust. Key Points - The passage states that misinformation undermines the capacity of individuals to make informed decisions, and that false narratives corrode public tru
27. Q97: The passage suggests that repeated exposure to false narratives leads to:
    Answer: B — Scepticism, polarization, and erosion of trust in institutions
    The correct answer is Scepticism, polarization, and erosion of trust in institutions. Key Points - The second paragraph traces the sequence: when repeated and amplified, false narratives corrode public trust, so that citizens become sceptic
28. Q98: The author implies that combating misinformation requires:
    Answer: B — A combination of media literacy, critical thinking, and institutional accountability
    The correct answer is A combination of media literacy, critical thinking, and institutional accountability. Key Points - The final paragraph calls for both structural and cognitive interventions. - On the cognitive side: media literacy, cri
29. Q99: Which of the following scenarios exemplifies the erosion of trust described in the passage?
    Answer: B — Communities ignoring official health guidelines due to conflicting online rumours
    The correct answer is Communities ignoring official health guidelines due to conflicting online rumours. Key Points - The passage describes citizens becoming sceptical of official reports, scientific findings, and policy directives as a res
30. Q100: The tone of the passage can best be described as:
    Answer: A — Analytical and cautionary
    The correct answer is Analytical and cautionary. Key Points - The passage defines its terms, traces mechanisms and consequences, and prescribes remedies — that method is analytical. - Its vocabulary — profound threat, corrode public trust,

Communication & Interpersonal Skills — Solved Questions

1. Q6: is the power of touch in communication.
   Answer: D — Haptics
   The correct answer is Haptics. Key Points - Haptics is the branch of non-verbal communication dealing with touch — handshakes, a pat on the back, an embrace — and the meanings such contact carries. - The term comes from the Greek haptesthai
2. Q7: Which interpersonal skill is MOST important when solving a conflict?
   Answer: B — Empathy and impartiality
   The correct answer is Empathy and impartiality. Key Points - Conflict resolution needs an accurate picture of what each side actually wants, which requires empathy, and a process both sides accept as fair, which requires impartiality. - Tog
3. Q9: Which of the following best illustrates semantic noise?
   Answer: B — Misunderstanding caused by unfamiliar words or jargon
   The correct answer is Misunderstanding caused by unfamiliar words or jargon. Key Points - Semantic noise is interference that occurs at the level of meaning — the signal arrives intact, but the receiver decodes it differently from what the
4. Q10: Empathy in interpersonal communication involves: I. Understanding others' feelings. II. Judging others' perspectives. III. Responding sensitively to emotions. IV. Ignoring personal biases to remain ob
   Answer: B — I and III only
   The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Empathy has two working parts: an understanding component and a response component. - Statement I — understanding others' feelings — is the cognitive half. - Statement III — responding sens

Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability — Solved Questions

1. Q8: If the Defence Minister is advocated by the Defence secretary to solve the problem connecting to the Military services based on some general principles, then he is offering this solution based on:
   Answer: B — Deductive reasoning
   The correct answer is Deductive reasoning. Key Points - Reasoning that moves from general principles to a conclusion about a particular case is deductive reasoning. - Here the Defence Secretary starts from general principles and applies the
2. Q19: Consider the following statements: Statement 1: All graduates are teachers. Statement 2: All ministers must be politicians. Statement 3: No politician is a graduate. Which of the following conclusions
   Answer: A — Some teachers are graduates.
   The correct answer is Some teachers are graduates.. Key Points - From All graduates are teachers, the class of graduates lies wholly inside the class of teachers. - Converting a universal affirmative gives a particular statement: if all gra
3. Q20: Consider the following statements: Statement 1: All scholars are microbiologists. Statement 2: Some microbiologists are scientists. Conclusions: a. All scholars are scientists. b. Some scholars are sc
   Answer: B — c and d only
   The correct answer is c and d only. Key Points - All scholars are microbiologists converts to some microbiologists are scholars — conclusion d follows. - Some microbiologists are scientists converts symmetrically to some scientists are micr
4. Q21: The following question consists of six statements a, b, c, d, e, and f followed by four groups of three statements each. Identify the group or groups in which the third statement logically follows fro
   Answer: B — a e b
   The correct answer is a e b. Key Points - Test each group by asking whether the third statement must be true given the first two. - Take group a e b: Every car is a bus and Many cars are trains. The cars that are trains are also buses, so t
5. Q22: If (i). 84 ÷ 21 = 9 ; (ii). 56 ÷ 32 = 6 ; (iii). 37 ÷ 41 = 5 The above operations are done using some logic. Using same logic find number replaces '?' in the following: 87 ÷ 15 = ?
   Answer: B — 9
   The correct answer is 9. Key Points - Treat each two-digit number as a pair of digits, then compute (sum of the first number's digits) − (sum of the second number's digits). - Check (i): 84 and 21 → (8 + 4) − (2 + 1) = 12 − 3 = 9 ✓ - Check
6. Q23: Arrange the following words in dictionary order: I. Resume II. Reside III. Resist IV. Resolution
   Answer: D — II, III, IV, I
   The correct answer is II, III, IV, I. Key Points - All four words share the prefix Res-, so ordering is decided by the fourth letter onwards. - Compare the fourth letters: Reside and Resist both have i; Resolution has o; Resume has u. Since
7. Q24: Four pairs of words are given below. In three of these pairs, the words bear a similar relationship. Identify the pair in which the relationship is different from the others.
   Answer: A — Cooker : Rice
   The correct answer is Cooker : Rice. Key Points - In three of the pairs the first word is the raw material and the second is the product made from it. - Cloth → garments, leather → footwear, and clay → earthen pots all fit this material-to-
8. Q25: Find the pair that exhibits the same relationship as the one given below: Horse : Stable :: ?
   Answer: C — Cow : Barn
   The correct answer is Cow : Barn. Key Points - The relation is animal : its dwelling — a stable is the building in which a horse is kept. - Cow : Barn matches exactly: a barn is the building in which cattle are housed. Additional Informatio
9. Q27: Find the pair that exhibits the same relationship as the one given below: 840 : 735 :: 630 : ?
   Answer: B — 525
   The correct answer is 525. Key Points - Compare the given pair: 840 → 735 is a fall of 105. - Applying the same fall: 630 − 105 = 525. - Equivalently, 735 = 840 × 7/8, and 630 × 7/8 = 551.25, which is not an option — so the intended relatio
10. Q28: Introducing Madhan, a woman said, "His wife is the only daughter of my mother". How is Madhan related to the woman?
    Answer: A — Husband
    The correct answer is Husband. Key Points - The speaker is a woman, and the only daughter of my mother is the speaker herself. - So Madhan's wife is the speaker — which makes Madhan her husband. Additional Information - The trap is to read
11. Q29: This morning five employees arrived at the office. The following information is known: P entered before Q, but after R. S entered before T, but after Q. In what order did they enter the office?
    Answer: B — R P Q S T
    The correct answer is R P Q S T. Key Points - P entered before Q, but after R gives the chain R → P → Q. - S entered before T, but after Q gives Q → S → T. - Joining on the shared element Q: R → P → Q → S → T. Additional Information - The o
12. Q30: Find the figure that correctly represents the water image of the given figure from the options provided below. MARKET
    Answer: B — MARKET (water image)
    The correct answer is Option B. Key Points - A water image is a reflection in a horizontal surface: the figure is flipped top-to-bottom, while the left-to-right order of the letters stays unchanged. - So M-A-R-K-E-T must still read M-A-R-K-
13. Q31: How many triangles can be identified in the given figure? A tall rectangle made of two stacked squares. The upper square carries both diagonals together with a vertical and a horizontal median, all fo
    Answer: A — 24
    The correct answer is 24. Key Points - The figure is a tall rectangle made of two stacked squares. The upper square carries both diagonals and both medians (one vertical, one horizontal); the lower square carries only its two diagonals. - U
14. Q32: In the given figures, the number at the top is obtained by applying a certain logic to the numbers at the bottom. Using the same logic, find the number that should replace the question mark. Three tri
    Answer: D — 27
    The correct answer is 27. Key Points - In each triangle, take the digit sum of each bottom number and write the two results side by side to form the number on top. - First triangle: 12 → 1 + 2 = 3, and 24 → 2 + 4 = 6, giving 36 ✓ - Second t
15. Q33: Select the set in which the relationship among the three numbers is the same as that in the given set (5, 12, 13).
    Answer: C — (3, 4, 5)
    The correct answer is (3, 4, 5). Key Points - In the given set, 5² + 12² = 25 + 144 = 169 = 13². The three numbers form a Pythagorean triple. - Test option C: 3² + 4² = 9 + 16 = 25 = 5². It is also a Pythagorean triple, so the relation matc
16. Q34: Three of the following four letter clusters follow a similar pattern, while one does not. Identify the letter cluster that is different from the rest.
    Answer: C — MOQT
    The correct answer is MOQT. Key Points - Convert each cluster to letter positions and look at the gaps. - ACEG → 1, 3, 5, 7: gaps of +2, +2, +2. - EGIK → 5, 7, 9, 11: gaps of +2, +2, +2. - IKMO → 9, 11, 13, 15: gaps of +2, +2, +2. - MOQT →
17. Q35: Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship among Teachers, Men, and Women?
    Answer: C — Three circles in a row, the middle one overlapping each of the outer two, while the outer two do not touch each other.
    The correct answer is Option C. Key Points - Men and Women are mutually exclusive categories — no individual belongs to both — so their circles must not overlap. - Teachers, however, includes both men and women, so the Teachers circle must
18. Q36: Two different positions of the same dice are shown below. If the number 6 is on the bottom face, then which number will appear on the top face? Two views of the same die. The first shows 2 on the top
    Answer: D — 5
    The correct answer is 5. Key Points - From the first cube, the face 5 is adjacent to 2 and 3. - From the second cube, the face 5 is adjacent to 4 and 1. - So 5 shares an edge with 1, 2, 3 and 4 — four different faces. - A cube face is adjac
19. Q37: Find the missing number. A circle divided into six equal sectors by three diameters. Reading clockwise from the upper left the sectors contain 5, 8, 11, 30, 72 and a question mark.
    Answer: C — 132
    The correct answer is 132. Key Points - The six sectors pair up across the centre, and in each pair the relation is n × (n + 1). - 5 is opposite 30: 5 × 6 = 30 ✓ - 8 is opposite 72: 8 × 9 = 72 ✓ - 11 is opposite the missing sector: 11 × 12
20. Q39: Find the next number in the given series: 43, 53, 61, 71, 79, 89, ?
    Answer: A — 101
    The correct answer is 101. Key Points - Every term is a prime number: 43, 53, 61, 71, 79, 89. - They are not consecutive primes but alternate ones. In the list of primes, 43 is the 14th, 53 the 16th, 61 the 18th, 71 the 20th, 79 the 22nd an
21. Q40: Find the next number in the given series: 2, 1; 24, 6, 720, 120, 40320, ?
    Answer: D — 5040
    The correct answer is 5040. Key Points - Every term is a factorial, taken in pairs of (higher, lower). - 2 = 2!, 1 = 1!; then 24 = 4!, 6 = 3!; then 720 = 6!, 120 = 5!; then 40320 = 8!, so the missing term is 7!. - 7! = 5040. Additional Info
22. Q41: Chandru is the brother of Bhanu and Divakar is the grandfather of Evan. Bhanu is the daughter-in-law of Divakar and Ajay is the father of Evan. How is Chandru related to Evan?
    Answer: B — Maternal Uncle
    The correct answer is Maternal Uncle. Key Points - Bhanu is the daughter-in-law of Divakar and Divakar is the grandfather of Evan, so Bhanu belongs to the middle generation. - Ajay is the father of Evan, and Bhanu — as Divakar's daughter-in
23. Q42: Six members, Princess, Queen, Raj, Subash, Tarik and Umra, are related as follows: Tarik is the brother of Princess's husband. Umra is the mother of Tarik. Queen is the daughter of Subash and Princess
    Answer: A — Father
    The correct answer is Father. Key Points - Queen is the daughter of Subash and Princess, so Subash is Princess's husband. - Tarik is the brother of Princess's husband, so Tarik is Subash's brother. (Umra, being Tarik's mother, is therefore
24. Q43: S, A, T, Y, B and M are sitting in a row. A and B are at the ends. S and T are in the center. M is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of Y?
    Answer: D — Data insufficient
    The correct answer is Data insufficient. Key Points - Six seats in a row. A and B are at the ends, so they occupy seats 1 and 6. - S and T are in the centre, so they occupy seats 3 and 4 — but the question never says which of them takes whi
25. Q44: Aarav, Bala, Chandini, Devi, and Esther are sitting on a bench. Aarav is sitting next to Bala, while Chandini is sitting next to Devi. Devi is not sitting with Esther, who occupies the left end of the
    Answer: B — Between Bala and Chandini
    The correct answer is Between Bala and Chandini. Key Points - Five seats. Esther occupies the left end → seat 1. Chandini is second from the right → seat 4. - Aarav is next to Chandini, so Aarav is at seat 3 or seat 5. - Chandini is next to
26. Q45: A cube is painted blue on all its faces and then cut into 216 equal smaller cubes of identical size. How many of these smaller cubes have exactly one face painted blue?
    Answer: D — 96
    The correct answer is 96. Key Points - The cube is cut into 216 = 6³ smaller cubes, so each edge is divided into 6. - A small cube has exactly one painted face when it lies in the interior of a face — not touching any edge of the big cube.
27. Q46: What are the maximum possible number of pieces that can be cut from a large cube, by doing only 15 cuts?
    Answer: A — 216
    The correct answer is 216. Key Points - Cuts along a single axis are independent of cuts along the other two, so if the 15 cuts are split as x, y and z across the three perpendicular directions, the number of pieces is (x + 1)(y + 1)(z + 1)
28. Q47: In a class of 150 students, the number of girls is two-thirds the number of boys. Gowri is ranked 60th from the top, and there are 20 girls ahead of her in rank. How many boys are ranked below Gowri?
    Answer: C — 51
    The correct answer is 51. Key Points - Let the number of boys be b. Girls = (2/3)b, and b + (2/3)b = 150 → (5/3)b = 150 → b = 90 boys and 60 girls. - Gowri is 60th from the top, so 59 students rank above her. - Of those 59, 20 are girls, so
29. Q48: Rajam starts driving from her friend's house 13 km towards the south, then she turns right and drove 10 km, and then she turned left and drove 7 km. She finally turns left and drove 25 km to reach bea
    Answer: B — 25 km
    The correct answer is 25 km. Key Points - Track the turns. Facing south and turning right points west; then turning left from west points south; then turning left from south points east. - The legs are therefore: 13 km south, 10 km west, 7
30. Q49: The reflex angle between the hands of a clock at 9.55 is:
    Answer: B — 327.5°
    The correct answer is 327.5°. Key Points - The minute hand at 55 minutes is at 55 × 6° = 330° from the 12 o'clock mark. - The hour hand at 9:55 is at (9 × 30°) + (55 × 0.5°) = 270° + 27.5° = 297.5°. - The angle between them = 330° − 297.5°
31. Q50: Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the given pair: Cockpit : Pilot :: Bridge : ? Choose the correct answer:
    Answer: C — Captain
    The correct answer is Captain. Key Points - The relation is workplace : the person who commands from it. A pilot commands an aircraft from the cockpit. - On a ship, the equivalent command station is the bridge, and the officer who commands
32. Q51: Find the correct logic from the given equations and, based on the same logic, solve the following: If 5 © 4 = 41, 7 © 2 = 53, 11 © 3 = 130, then what is the value of 8 © 5? Choose the correct answer:
    Answer: D — 89
    The correct answer is 89. Key Points - The operator © combines the two numbers as a² + b². - Check: 5 © 4 = 25 + 16 = 41 ✓ - Check: 7 © 2 = 49 + 4 = 53 ✓ - Check: 11 © 3 = 121 + 9 = 130 ✓ - So 8 © 5 = 64 + 25 = 89. Additional Information -
33. Q52: If '+' means '−', '−' means '×', '÷' means '+', and '×' means '÷', then what will be the value of the following expression? 21 × 7 ÷ 4 − 5 + 3 = ? Choose the correct answer:
    Answer: B — 20
    The correct answer is 20. Key Points - Substitute each symbol by its stated meaning: '×' becomes ÷, '÷' becomes +, '−' becomes ×, '+' becomes −. - The expression 21 × 7 ÷ 4 − 5 + 3 therefore becomes 21 ÷ 7 + 4 × 5 − 3. - Apply BODMAS to the

Decision Making & Ethics — Solved Questions

1. Q11: A district hospital is facing an acute shortage of essential vaccines. An influential politician's family member demands priority access, while rural health workers are requesting the limited doses fo
   Answer: C — Allocate the available doses based on medical vulnerability and equity in public health outreach.
   The correct answer is Allocate the available doses based on medical vulnerability and equity in public health outreach.. Key Points - Scarce life-saving supplies in public health are allocated by clinical need and equity, never by influence
2. Q12: A major religious procession is planned in a communally sensitive area that has previously witnessed clashes over route disputes and loudspeaker use. This year, the event coincides with a large politi
   Answer: C — Restrict both events equally and arrange alternate routes and time slots in consultation with leaders
   The correct answer is Restrict both events equally and arrange alternate routes and time slots in consultation with leaders. Key Points - The core duty is to protect public order and safety while treating both gatherings even-handedly. - Re
3. Q13: You are a police officer on duty at a highway checkpoint when a minister's car is stopped for routine inspection. At the same time, you receive information that a child has gone missing nearby and imm
   Answer: C — Immediately deploy your team to search for the missing child while respectfully informing your senior about the situation.
   The correct answer is Immediately deploy your team to search for the missing child while respectfully informing your senior about the situation.. Key Points - A missing child is a threat to life and is time-critical; protection duty outrank
4. Q14: A local MLA has organized an unauthorized road blockade demanding compensation for farmers. The protest has drawn a large crowd, blocking a national highway and disrupting public traffic. The situatio
   Answer: A — Engage the MLA diplomatically to persuade withdrawal of the blockade, while preparing for legal action and arranging alternate routes for commuters.
   The correct answer is Engage the MLA diplomatically to persuade withdrawal of the blockade, while preparing for legal action and arranging alternate routes for commuters.. Key Points - The correct approach is graded: persuasion first, legal
5. Q15: In a city, a surge in vector-borne diseases coincides with increased garbage accumulation due to an ongoing strike by sanitation workers. The municipal corporation faces public criticism and rising pa
   Answer: B — Coordinate emergency waste disposal with private contractors while negotiating with workers.
   The correct answer is Coordinate emergency waste disposal with private contractors while negotiating with workers.. Key Points - This is a public health emergency: admissions are rising and the vector source is the uncleared waste. - The he
6. Q16: While evaluating bids for a government project, one of the participants privately offers you a "small favour" in exchange for favourable consideration, claiming that "such practices are
   Answer: B — Reject the offer and immediately report the attempt to higher authorities
   The correct answer is Reject the offer and immediately report the attempt to higher authorities. Key Points - A bribe attempt requires two responses: refusing it, and reporting it. - Refusal alone protects the individual official but leaves
7. Q17: A destitute widow has illegally occupied a piece of government land to build a small hut. An eviction notice is due for execution. What is the most appropriate course of action?
   Answer: B — Provide temporary shelter under welfare schemes and initiate legal regularization if permissible
   The correct answer is Provide temporary shelter under welfare schemes and initiate legal regularization if permissible. Key Points - The law must be applied, but compassionately: the occupation is unlawful, yet the occupant is destitute. -
8. Q18: As the District Education Officer, you receive credible information that some teachers in remote schools are marking attendance for their absent colleagues. These teachers are locally influential and
   Answer: C — Conduct surprise inspections, collect evidence, and initiate disciplinary action as per rules
   The correct answer is Conduct surprise inspections, collect evidence, and initiate disciplinary action as per rules. Key Points - Proxy attendance is misconduct and also a fraud on public funds, so it cannot be overlooked. - The correct seq

Data Interpretation — Solved Questions

1. Q26: The following table shows the number of students in five different classes of a school: Class, Students; ---, ---; A, 50; B, 60; C, 70; D, 80; E, 90 What is the percentage of students in Class C with
   Answer: B — 20%
   The correct answer is 20%. Key Points - Add the five class strengths: 50 + 60 + 70 + 80 + 90 = 350 students in all. - Class C has 70 students. - Percentage = (70 ÷ 350) × 100 = 20%. Additional Information - The five values form an arithmeti
2. Q38: The table below shows the number of students (in hundreds) enrolled in five different colleges over four years. College, 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023; ---, ---, ---, ---, ---; A, 12, 15, 18, 21; B, 10, 12,
   Answer: A — 18.0
   The correct answer is 18.0. Key Points - Read the 2023 column: College D has 25 (hundred) students and College E has 16 (hundred). - In College D, 60% are female, so males = 40% of 25 = 10 hundred. - In College E, 50% are female, so males =

Basic Numeracy — Solved Questions

1. Q53: Which one of the following numbers must be subtracted from 5340 to obtain a perfect square?
   Answer: B — 11
   The correct answer is 11. Key Points - Find the largest perfect square not exceeding 5340. - 73² = 5329 and 74² = 5476, which overshoots. - So the amount to subtract is 5340 − 5329 = 11. Additional Information - To locate the square root qu
2. Q54: What is the remainder when 987654321 is divided by 99?
   Answer: D — 27
   The correct answer is 27. Key Points - A number is congruent modulo 99 to the sum of its digits taken in two-digit groups from the right. - Split 987654321 as 9 | 87 | 65 | 43 | 21. - Sum the groups: 21 + 43 + 65 + 87 + 9 = 225. - Reduce: 2
3. Q55: How many positive integers less than 20 are coprime to 20?
   Answer: C — 8
   The correct answer is 8. Key Points - Numbers coprime to 20 share no factor with it other than 1. Since 20 = 2² × 5, the coprimes are those divisible by neither 2 nor 5. - Use Euler's totient function: φ(20) = 20 × (1 − 1/2) × (1 − 1/5) = 2
4. Q56: The sum of the cubes of first 'n' natural numbers is 784. What is the square of the sum of those 'n' numbers?
   Answer: C — 784
   The correct answer is 784. Key Points - There is a standard identity: 1³ + 2³ + … + n³ = (1 + 2 + … + n)². - The sum of the cubes is given as 784, and by the identity this is already equal to the square of the sum. - So the square of the su
5. Q57: In a 30-day month beginning with a Sunday, a museum records an average of 720 visitors on Sundays, and the number of visitors on each of the other days is half of that number. What is the average numb
   Answer: A — 420
   The correct answer is 420. Key Points - A 30-day month beginning on a Sunday has Sundays on the 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd and 29th — 5 Sundays and 25 other days. - Visitors on Sundays = 5 × 720 = 3,600. - Visitors on other days = 25 × 360 = 9,00
6. Q58: While entering the test marks of a class, Arun's marks were entered as 98 instead of 68. As a result, the average marks of the class increased by 0.5. What is the number of pupils in the class?
   Answer: C — 60
   The correct answer is 60. Key Points - The recorded mark exceeded the true mark by 98 − 68 = 30. - That single excess of 30 raised the class average by 0.5. - Since an excess of E spread over n pupils raises the mean by E ÷ n, we need 30 ÷
7. Q59: The average monthly income of A and B is Rs. 4320, that of B and C is Rs. 5280, and that of A and C is Rs. 6020. What is the monthly income of A?
   Answer: B — 5060
   The correct answer is 5060. Key Points - Convert each average into a sum of two incomes: A + B = 2 × 4320 = 8,640; B + C = 2 × 5280 = 10,560; A + C = 2 × 6020 = 12,040. - Add all three: 2(A + B + C) = 8,640 + 10,560 + 12,040 = 31,240, so A
8. Q60: What is the remainder when 53¹⁴⁷ − 27¹⁴⁷ is divided by 26?
   Answer: A — 0
   The correct answer is 0. Key Points - There is a standard divisibility result: aⁿ − bⁿ is always divisible by (a − b) for every positive integer n. - Here a = 53 and b = 27, so a − b = 26. - Since 53¹⁴⁷ − 27¹⁴⁷ is divisible by 26, the remai
9. Q61: In how many different ways can 840 be expressed as a product of two positive factors?
   Answer: B — 16
   The correct answer is 16. Key Points - Factorise: 840 = 2³ × 3 × 5 × 7. - The number of divisors = (3 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1) = 4 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 32. - Each unordered pair of factors uses up two divisors, so the number of ways = 32 ÷ 2 = 16
10. Q62: What is the largest possible decimal number that can be written explicitly using standard roman numeral symbols?
    Answer: B — 3999
    The correct answer is 3999. Key Points - The standard Roman symbols are I (1), V (5), X (10), L (50), C (100), D (500) and M (1000). - Using ordinary rules, no more than three M's may be written consecutively, capping the thousands at 3000.
11. Q63: In a school, there are three sections A, B, and C having 120, 144, and 192 students respectively. These students are to be divided into groups of equal strength, such that each group consists of stude
    Answer: C — 19
    The correct answer is 19. Key Points - Each group must be of equal size and drawn from a single section, so the group size must divide 120, 144 and 192 — and to minimise the number of groups, take the largest such size, the HCF. - 120 = 2³
12. Q64: The sides of a right-angled triangular park are in the ratio 5 : 12 : 13. If the sum of all sides is 120 meters. What is the area of the park?
    Answer: B — 480 m²
    The correct answer is 480 m². Key Points - The sides are in the ratio 5 : 12 : 13, a total of 30 parts. - The perimeter is 120 m, so one part = 120 ÷ 30 = 4 m, giving sides of 20 m, 48 m and 52 m. - Since 5-12-13 is a Pythagorean triple, th
13. Q65: Three fair dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers obtained on the three dice is 16?
    Answer: A — 1/36
    The correct answer is 1/36. Key Points - Three dice give 6³ = 216 equally likely outcomes. - A total of 16 arises in only two number combinations: (6, 6, 4) and (6, 5, 5). - Each has one repeated value, so each yields 3!/2! = 3 arrangements
14. Q66: A question paper consists of four questions, each having two possible answers, YES or NO. In how many different ways can a student answer at least one question?
    Answer: D — 80
    The correct answer is 80. Key Points - For each question a student may answer YES, answer NO, or leave it unattempted — 3 possibilities per question. - With four independent questions that gives 3⁴ = 81 total patterns. - Exactly one of thes
15. Q67: If 1³ + 2³ + 3³ + ......... + x³ = 441, Find the value of x:
    Answer: B — 6
    The correct answer is 6. Key Points - Use the identity 1³ + 2³ + … + x³ = [x(x + 1)/2]². - So [x(x + 1)/2]² = 441, giving x(x + 1)/2 = √441 = 21. - Then x(x + 1) = 42, and since 6 × 7 = 42, we get x = 6. Additional Information - Check direc
16. Q68: The perimeter of a rectangle is 68 cm, and its diagonal measures 26 cm. What is the area of the rectangle?
    Answer: C — 240
    The correct answer is 240. Key Points - Perimeter 68 cm gives 2(l + w) = 68, so l + w = 34. - The diagonal is 26 cm, so by Pythagoras l² + w² = 676. - Square the first relation: (l + w)² = 1156, i.e. l² + w² + 2lw = 1156. - Substitute: 676
17. Q69: In a 10 km marathon race, A beats B by 1000 meters, and B beats C by 1250 meters. By how many meters does A beat C in the same race?
    Answer: A — 2125 m
    The correct answer is 2125 m. Key Points - In a 10,000 m race, when A finishes, B has covered 10,000 − 1,000 = 9,000 m. - Separately, when B finishes 10,000 m, C has covered 10,000 − 1,250 = 8,750 m, so C runs at 8,750/10,000 = 0.875 times
18. Q70: The speed of a boat in upstream is 52 km/h, while its downstream speed is 50/3 m/s. What is the speed of the stream?
    Answer: D — 4 km/h
    The correct answer is 4 km/h. Key Points - Convert the downstream speed to km/h: 50/3 m/s × 18/5 = 60 km/h. - Upstream speed = boat − stream = 52 km/h; downstream speed = boat + stream = 60 km/h. - Stream speed = (downstream − upstream) ÷ 2
19. Q71: A man travels 48 km at a speed of 12 km/h, 72 km at a speed of 18 km/h and 120 km at a speed of 10 km/h. What is his average speed for the entire journey?
    Answer: A — 12 km/hr
    The correct answer is 12 km/hr. Key Points - Average speed is total distance ÷ total time, never the plain average of the speeds. - Times: 48 ÷ 12 = 4 h; 72 ÷ 18 = 4 h; 120 ÷ 10 = 12 h. - Total distance = 48 + 72 + 120 = 240 km; total time
20. Q72: Twenty workers can complete a piece of work in 80 days. They worked together for 56 days, and then work stopped for 16 days due to bad weather. How many more men should be employed immediately after t
    Answer: B — 40 men
    The correct answer is 40 men. Key Points - Total work = 20 workers × 80 days = 1,600 man-days. - In the first 56 days they complete 20 × 56 = 1,120 man-days, leaving 1,600 − 1,120 = 480 man-days. - After the 16-day stoppage, the days remain
21. Q73: A certain sum of money becomes 8 times itself in 15 years at compound interest. In how many years will it become 16 times itself at the same rate of interest?
    Answer: A — 20 years
    The correct answer is 20 years. Key Points - Under compound interest the amount multiplies by a fixed factor in each fixed period. - The sum becomes 8 times in 15 years, and 8 = 2³, so the sum doubles every 5 years. - To become 16 times we
22. Q74: Find the simple interest due on Rs. 12500 for 219 days at 10% per annum.
    Answer: D — Rs. 750
    The correct answer is Rs. 750. Key Points - Simple interest = P × R × T ÷ 100, with the time expressed in years. - Here T = 219 days = 219/365 years = 0.6 years. - SI = 12,500 × 10 × 0.6 ÷ 100 = Rs. 750. Additional Information - The fractio
23. Q75: Two equal vessels contain mixtures of liquids A and B in the ratios 7 : 3 and 4 : 1 respectively. If the quantities of these two mixtures are mixed together in a third vessel, what will be the resulti
    Answer: B — 3 : 1
    The correct answer is 3 : 1. Key Points - Work with equal volumes, taking 1 unit from each vessel and using a common denominator of 10. - Vessel 1 is A : B = 7 : 3, so it holds 7/10 of A and 3/10 of B. - Vessel 2 is A : B = 4 : 1 = 8 : 2, s

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are there in the JKCCE Prelims 2025 — General Studies Paper II (CSAT, Set B)?

The JKCCE Prelims 2025 — General Studies Paper II (CSAT, Set B) has 100 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

When was the JKCCE Prelims 2025 — General Studies Paper II (CSAT, Set B) held?

The JKCCE Prelims 2025 — General Studies Paper II (CSAT, Set B) was held on 7 December 2025.

Is there negative marking in JKPSC Combined Competitive Examination (JKCCE) 2025?

Yes. JKPSC Combined Competitive Examination (JKCCE) deducts 0.67 marks for every wrong answer, so accuracy matters as much as attempting more questions.

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