SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 12 Sep 2025 (Shift 3) — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

General Intelligence & Reasoning — Solved Questions

1. Q1: Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series: A E I, E I M, I M Q, M Q U, ?
   Answer: A — QUY
   The correct answer is QUY. Key Points - Each cluster overlaps the previous one: take its last two letters, then add the next letter +4 places on. - A E I → E I M → I M Q → M Q U, so the next keeps U and Q's successor pattern: Q, U, then U +
2. Q2: Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. ACE EIM IOU MUC ?
   Answer: C — QAK
   The correct answer is QAK. Key Points - Read the series column-wise, not cluster-wise: - 1st letters: A, E, I, M → +4 each → next is Q - 2nd letters: C, I, O, U → +6 each → next is A (U + 6 wraps past Z) - 3rd letters: E, M, U, C → +8 each
3. Q3: What comes next: 12, 30, 56, 90, 132, ?
   Answer: A — 182
   The correct answer is 182. Key Points - Take first differences: 30 − 12 = 18, 56 − 30 = 26, 90 − 56 = 34, 132 − 90 = 42. - Those differences rise by a constant 8, so the next difference is 50. - 132 + 50 = 182. - Equivalently each term is n
4. Q4: What will be come at the place of question mark? 1, 2, 5, 26, 677, ?
   Answer: A — 458330
   The correct answer is 458330. Key Points - Each term is the square of the previous term, plus 1. - 1² + 1 = 2, 2² + 1 = 5, 5² + 1 = 26, 26² + 1 = 677. - So the next term is 677² + 1 = 458,329 + 1 = 458,330. - Option D (458,329) is 677² with
5. Q5: Find the number that fits: 2, 5, 10, 17, ?
   Answer: A — 26
   The correct answer is 26. Key Points - Differences are 5 − 2 = 3, 10 − 5 = 5, 17 − 10 = 7 — consecutive odd numbers. - The next difference is 9, so 17 + 9 = 26. - Equivalently every term is n² + 1: 1²+1, 2²+1, 3²+1, 4²+1, 5²+1 = 26. - Spott
6. Q6: Instruction: Identify the assumptions that must hold for the statement to be valid, then choose the correct option. Statement: While the world is moving towards automation, it is essential to ensure t
   Answer: A — Only I and II are implicit
   The correct answer is Only I and II are implicit. Key Points - Assumption I is implicit. The statement urges ethical frameworks to evolve to prevent misuse, which only makes sense if automation can raise ethical problems in the first place.
7. Q7: The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word DEVELOP is arranged in alphabetical order?
   Answer: A — Two
   The correct answer is Two. Key Points - DEVELOP in order: D, E, V, E, L, O, P. - Sorted alphabetically: D, E, E, L, O, P, V. - Compare position by position: D = D and E = E hold; from the third letter on, V/E, E/L, L/O, O/P, P/V all differ.
8. Q8: Identify the address identical to the following: No. 45, First Avenue, Raja Annamalaipuram, Chennai, Tamil Nadu - 600028
   Answer: B — No. 45, First Avenue, Raja Annamalaipuram, Chennai, Tamil Nadu - 600028
   The correct answer is option B, which reproduces the address exactly. Key Points - Address matching turns on literal identity — every word, abbreviation and number must match character for character. - Each distractor changes something: - A
9. Q9: From the given options, find the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word: INTELLIGENCE
   Answer: A — CANCEL
   The correct answer is CANCEL. Key Points - The source word INTELLIGENCE contains: I, N, T, E, L, L, I, G, E, N, C, E — one C and no A. - CANCEL needs an A, which is absent, and two Cs, while only one is available. It cannot be formed. - The
10. Q10: Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a circle facing the center. C is second to the right of A. E is opposite C. F is to the immediate left of E. B is to the immediate right of
    Answer: D — F
    The correct answer is F. Key Points - All eight face the centre, so each person's right is anticlockwise and their left is clockwise. Fix this before placing anyone. - Number the seats 1-8 clockwise and put A at 1: - C is second to A's righ
11. Q11: In each of the following questions, a specific alphabetic coding pattern has been applied to the first word to form the second word. Identify the same coding logic and apply it to the third word to de
    Answer: B — HADPLQH
    The correct answer is HADPLQH. Key Points - The rule is a straight +3 shift on every letter: C→F, O→R, U→X, N→Q, T→W, R→U, Y→B (wrapping past Z). - Applying +3 to each letter in order: - E→H, X→A (X, Y, Z, A), A→D, M→P, I→L, N→Q, E→H - That
12. Q12: In each of the following questions, the second word is formed by rearranging the letters of the first word using a specific transformation, such as reversal or block shifting. Identify that transforma
    Answer: B — TOPNEP
    The correct answer is TOPNEP. Key Points - Split the six-letter word into two blocks of three: KIT, CAT.; - The coded word is CAT, TIK — the blocks are swapped, and the block that moves to the end is also reversed (KIT → TIK).; - Applying b
13. Q13: In each of the following questions, a group of three letter-number-symbol triplets is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.
    Answer: D — Q10 : P9@ : O8
    The correct answer is Q10 : P9@ : O8. Key Points - In the other three groups the letters step backwards by one while the digits step forwards by one: Z1, Y2, X3; W4, V5, U6; T7, S8, R9. - The odd group has letters going backwards (Q, P, O)
14. Q14: Instruction: In a certain coding system: 'dream focus build skill' is coded as 'trq, xnz, hmd, clv' 'focus logic dream' is coded as 'trq, jkp, xnz' 'trust logic build dream' is coded as 'xnj, clv, jkp
    Answer: A — clv, hmd, jkp, xnj
    The correct answer is clv, hmd, jkp, xnj. Key Points - Compare the statements pairwise and cancel what they share: - Lines 1 and 2 share dream and focus, whose codes must be the shared trq and xnz. - Lines 2 and 3 share dream and logic, and
15. Q15: If \(x + 2y = 14\) and \(x - y = 5\) , find x.
    Answer: C — 8
    The correct answer is 8. Key Points - From x + 2y = 14 and x − y = 5, subtract the second from the first: (x + 2y) − (x − y) = 14 − 5. - That gives 3y = 9, so y = 3. - Substituting back: x = 5 + y = 8. - Eliminate the variable the question
16. Q16: If \(6\ \\ 2 = 20\) and \(4\ \\ 3 = 19\) , then \(5\ \\ 2 = ?\)
    Answer: B — 17
    The correct answer is 17. Key Points - Test a rule against both given pairs before using it. Here a b = ab + a + b. - Check: 6 2 = 12 + 6 + 2 = 20 ✓ and 4 3 = 12 + 4 + 3 = 19 ✓. - Applying it: 5 2 = 10 + 5 + 2 = 17. - Note ab + a + b = (a +
17. Q17: If 'SAVE' is coded as '★35', and 'VASE' as '3★5', then what is the code for 'EVAS'?
    Answer: D — 53★
    The correct answer is 53★. Key Points - Match the two given codes letter by letter: SAVE → ★35 and VASE → 3★5 both put 3 with A and 5 with E. - That fixes S = ★, A = 3, V = , E = 5. - Encoding EVAS in order: E = 5, V = , A = 3, S = ★ → 53★.
18. Q18: If the ratio of two numbers is 3:5 and their sum is 64, find the numbers.
    Answer: A — 24, 40
    The correct answer is 24, 40. Key Points - Let the numbers be 3x and 5x, so 3x + 5x = 8x = 64 and x = 8. - The numbers are 3 × 8 = 24 and 5 × 8 = 40. - Check: 24 + 40 = 64 and 24 : 40 simplifies to 3 : 5 ✓. - With a ratio and a sum, divide
19. Q19: If \(5\ @\ 3 = 28\) and \(4\ @\ 2 = 18\) , then what is \(6\ @\ 4\) ?
    Answer: A — 40
    The correct answer is 40. Key Points - Look for a rule satisfying both pairs. Here a @ b = a² + b. - Check: 5 @ 3 = 25 + 3 = 28 ✓ and 4 @ 2 = 16 + 2 = 18 ✓. - Applying it: 6 @ 4 = 36 + 4 = 40. - When the outputs grow much faster than the in
20. Q20: Pointing to a girl, a man said, "She is the daughter of my mother's only son." How is the girl related to the man?
    Answer: A — Daughter
    The correct answer is Daughter. Key Points - Unpack the phrase from the inside out: "my mother's only son" — the speaker is male and his mother has only one son, so that son is the man himself. - The girl is therefore the daughter
21. Q21: If P is the maternal uncle of Q, how is Q related to P's sister?
    Answer: A — Niece/Nephew
    The marked answer is Niece/Nephew, but the question as printed is ambiguous. Key Points - P being the maternal uncle of Q means P is the brother of Q's mother. - If "P's sister" refers to that same sister, she is Q's mother, and Q
22. Q22: After interchanging + & × and 3 & 9, which of the following equations will hold true?
    Answer: A — (3+5)×9=48
    The correct answer is (3+5)×9=48. Key Points - Apply both swaps: + becomes ×, × becomes +, and every 3 becomes 9 while every 9 becomes 3. - Option A, (3 + 5) × 9 = 48, converts to (9 × 5) + 3 = 45 + 3 = 48 ✓. - The other options fail once c
23. Q23: If \(a\ \%\ b = 37\) , where \(a\ \%\ b = a + 2b\) , what is the value of a and b?
    Answer: B — 27, 5
    The correct answer is 27, 5. Key Points - The rule is given: a % b = a + 2b, and the result must be 37. - Testing the options: 27 + 2(5) = 27 + 10 = 37 ✓. - The others miss: 25 + 10 = 35, 16 + 20 = 36, 27 + 20 = 47. - When the operation is
24. Q24: If + = ×, − = +, × = ÷; then \(10 + 2 - 4 × 2 = ?\)
    Answer: C — 22
    The correct answer is 22. Key Points - Substitute the symbols as instructed: + → ×, − → +, × → ÷. - The expression 10 + 2 − 4 × 2 becomes 10 × 2 + 4 ÷ 2. - Apply BODMAS to the converted expression: 10 × 2 = 20 and 4 ÷ 2 = 2, then 20 + 2 = 2
25. Q25: In a tournament of 7 players, each player plays every other player once. How many matches are there?
    Answer: A — 21
    The correct answer is 21. Key Points - Every match is an unordered pair of players, so the count is C(7, 2). - C(7, 2) = (7 × 6) / 2 = 21. - Dividing by 2 matters: 7 × 6 = 42 counts each match twice (A vs B and B vs A), which is exactly opt

General Awareness — Solved Questions

1. Q26: Arrange the following classical dances in chronological order of earliest historical references (oldest to newest): 1. Bharatanatyam 2. Mohiniyattam 3. Kathak 4. Manipuri
   Answer: C — 1 - 3 - 4 - 2
   The correct answer is 1 - 3 - 4 - 2. Key Points - Bharatanatyam is the oldest, its grammar traceable to Bharata Muni's Natya Shastra and to the temple devadasi tradition of Tamil Nadu. - Kathak follows, growing from the kathakars (story-tel
2. Q27: Which of the following pairs is correctly matched with the shape of its roof?
   Answer: B — Phamsana — slabs rising to a point, straight incline
   The correct answer is Phamsana — slabs rising to a point, straight incline. Key Points - These are the three sub-types of the Nagara (North Indian) temple shikhara: - Latina (rekha-prasada) — a square base with a curvilinear tower curving i
3. Q28: The Pongtu Festival, celebrated by the Tutsa tribe of Arunachal Pradesh, is primarily observed to seek blessings from which deity before millet harvesting?
   Answer: B — Rangkhothak
   The correct answer is Rangkhothak. Key Points - Pongtu is celebrated by the Tutsa tribe of Arunachal Pradesh, offering prayers to Rangkhothak before the millet harvest for a good yield and protection from disease. - It illustrates the agrar
4. Q29: Fill in the blanks: In Teen Taal of Hindustani Classical Music, the Khali is marked on the matra.
   Answer: C — 9
   The correct answer is 9. Key Points - Teen Taal is the best-known taal of Hindustani classical music, with 16 matras in four equal vibhags of four. - Its clap pattern is X 2 0 3: Sam (the first and most emphatic beat) on matra 1, claps on 5
5. Q30: Why is the weight and circumference of a cricket ball strictly regulated in official matches?
   Answer: B — Variations affect bounce, swing, and fairness on standard pitches
   The correct answer is Variations affect bounce, swing, and fairness on standard pitches. Key Points - Under the Laws of Cricket a men's ball must weigh between 155.9 g and 163 g and measure 22.4 cm to 22.9 cm in circumference. - Mass and ci
6. Q31: Which Indian athlete won the first-ever Paralympic gold in archery at the Paris 2024 Paralympics?
   Answer: B — Harvinder Singh
   The correct answer is Harvinder Singh. Key Points - Harvinder Singh won India's first-ever Paralympic gold in archery at Paris 2024, in the men's individual recurve open. - He had earlier taken bronze at Tokyo 2020, India's first Paralympic
7. Q32: Which city hosted the Meeting of the BRICS Ministers of Foreign Affairs on 4 June 2018?
   Answer: A — Pretoria, South Africa
   The correct answer is Pretoria, South Africa. Key Points - The BRICS Ministers of Foreign Affairs met at Pretoria on 4 June 2018, in the run-up to the 10th BRICS Summit held that year at Johannesburg. - South Africa held the BRICS chair in
8. Q33: Which of the following best describes the theme of the book 'Hot Stage'?
   Answer: A — A collection of modern Indian plays on social issues
   The correct answer is A collection of modern Indian plays on social issues. Key Points - 'Hot Stage' is a drama collection, not a novel, memoir or travelogue — its pieces use the stage to examine contemporary Indian social questions. - The
9. Q34: Which of the following is not typically considered a weather element?
   Answer: C — Soil pH
   The correct answer is Soil pH. Key Points - Weather elements describe the state of the atmosphere at a place over a short period: temperature, humidity, wind, atmospheric pressure, cloudiness and precipitation. - Soil pH is a property of th
10. Q35: Which of the following about the 61st National Chess Championship is/are correct? 1.) GM Karthik Venkataraman won in Gurgaon and got ₹6 lakh. 2.) IM Neelash Saha finished 2nd but lost due to a tiebrea
    Answer: A — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. GM Karthik Venkataraman won the 61st National Senior Chess Championship, held at Gurugram, taking the winner's prize of ₹6 lakh. - Statement 2 is incorrect as worded — the r
11. Q36: What was launched on Electrical Safety Day 2025 by MoS Power and New & Renewable Energy, Shri Shripad Naik?
    Answer: B — Suraksha Shakti safety mascot
    The correct answer is Suraksha Shakti safety mascot. Key Points - The Suraksha Shakti mascot was launched on Electrical Safety Day 2025 by Shri Shripad Naik, Minister of State for Power and for New & Renewable Energy. - A mascot is used
12. Q37: Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): The Chotanagpur Plateau is considered an eastern extension of the Central Highlands. Reason (R):
    Answer: C — A is true, but R is false
    The correct answer is A is true, but R is false. Key Points - Assertion is true. The Chotanagpur Plateau, spread over Jharkhand, southern Bihar, western West Bengal and parts of Odisha and Chhattisgarh, is treated as the eastern extension o
13. Q38: In which year is the first module of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) scheduled for launch?
    Answer: A — 2028
    The correct answer is 2028. Key Points - The first module of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) — India's own space station — is scheduled for launch in 2028, with the full station targeted for completion by about 2035. - It is planned f
14. Q39: Which statement best reflects the role of non-metallic minerals in India?
    Answer: C — India has rich reserves vital for major industries.
    The correct answer is India has rich reserves vital for major industries. Key Points - Non-metallic minerals contain no extractable metal and are valued for their physical or chemical properties — limestone, mica, gypsum, dolomite, phosphat
15. Q40: A Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by each House within how many months?
    Answer: A — 1
    The correct answer is 1. Key Points - A Proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352 must be approved by each House of Parliament within one month of its issue. - The original Constitution allowed two months; the 44th Constitutional
16. Q41: Read the following statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option: Assertion (A): The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is widely recognized as the workhorse launch v
    Answer: A — Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. Key Points - Assertion is true. The PSLV is universally described as ISRO's workhorse launch vehicle. - Reason is true and explains it. PSLV earns that name
17. Q42: Which of the following is true regarding the Anglo-Indian representation in State Assemblies?
    Answer: C — The provision was abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment.
    The correct answer is The provision was abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment. Key Points - Article 333 allowed the Governor to nominate one Anglo-Indian member to a State Legislative Assembly, and Article 331 allowed the Presiden
18. Q43: Which of the following changes has Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Samhita (BNSS) brought to criminal procedure?
    Answer: B — Video-recorded confessions
    The correct answer is Video-recorded confessions. Key Points - The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, and came into force on 1 July 2024. - It embeds technology in procedure: audio
19. Q44: Which scheme supports financial services through postmen?
    Answer: B — IPPB
    The correct answer is IPPB. Key Points - India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) was launched on 1 September 2018 under the Department of Posts, with the Government of India holding 100% equity. - Its distinguishing feature is doorstep banking thro
20. Q45: Fill in the Blank: Kalbelia dance represents the movement of .
    Answer: B — Snakes
    The correct answer is Snakes. Key Points - Kalbelia is the folk dance of the Kalbelia community of Rajasthan, traditionally snake charmers, and its swirling black ghagra and sinuous body movements imitate a serpent. - It is performed by wom
21. Q46: According to the IMD World Competitiveness Ranking 2025, which dimension does the country Switzerland hold 1st position in for both 2024 and 2025?
    Answer: B — Infrastructure
    The correct answer is Infrastructure. Key Points - In the IMD World Competitiveness Ranking 2025, Switzerland held 1st place in the Infrastructure dimension in both 2024 and 2025. - The index is published annually by the IMD World Competiti
22. Q47: The 'Mangrove Cell' initiative in 2025 is primarily linked to which Indian state?
    Answer: C — Maharashtra
    The correct answer is Maharashtra. Key Points - The Mangrove Cell is a dedicated unit of the Maharashtra Forest Department, set up to protect and restore the state's mangroves — the first such specialised body created by an Indian state. -
23. Q48: Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option: Assertion (A): Iron and steel is considered a heavy industry. Reason (R): It requires lightweight raw materials like cotton and r
    Answer: C — A is true, but R is false
    The correct answer is A is true, but R is false. Key Points - Assertion is true. Iron and steel is the textbook heavy industry — it uses bulky raw materials, produces bulky output and is therefore called a basic industry, since its product
24. Q49: Consider the following statements about the MISHTI Scheme: 1. It aims at mangrove plantation using scientific methods. 2. It was announced under Budget 2023-24. 3. It includes commercial leasing of ma
    Answer: A — Only 1 and 2 are correct
    The correct answer is Only 1 and 2 are correct. Key Points - MISHTI stands for Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes. - Statement 1 is correct — it provides for mangrove plantation and restoration along the coast
25. Q50: Article 370, which granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir, was abrogated by which constitutional mechanism?
    Answer: A — Presidential Order under Article 370(3)
    The correct answer is Presidential Order under Article 370(3). Key Points - Article 370 was rendered inoperative on 5 August 2019 through Presidential Order C.O. 273, issued under the power in Article 370(3) to declare the article inoperati

Quantitative Aptitude — Solved Questions

1. Q51: If \(60\% of A = 0.3 of B = 16 of C\) , find \(A : B : C\) .
   Answer: A — 5 : 10 : 18
   The correct answer is 5 : 10 : 18. Key Points - Set all three equal to a common value k: 60% of A = 0.3 of B = (1/6) of C = k. - Solve each for its variable: - A = k / 0.6 = 5k/3 - B = k / 0.3 = 10k/3 - C = 6k = 18k/3 - Putting them over th
2. Q52: A car travels 0.875 km in 1 minute. How far does it travel in 1 hour 45 minutes?
   Answer: A — 91.875 km
   The correct answer is 91.875 km. Key Points - Convert the time to a single unit first: 1 hour 45 minutes = 60 + 45 = 105 minutes. - The rate is given per minute, so no speed conversion is needed: - Distance = 0.875 × 105 = 91.875 km - A qui
3. Q53: Simplify: \((1/7+√2) + (1/7-√2) - (14/49-2)\)
   Answer: A — 0
   The correct answer is 0. Key Points - Add the first two fractions by rationalising over a common denominator: - (7 − √2) + (7 + √2) = 14 in the numerator - (7 + √2)(7 − √2) = 7² − (√2)² = 49 − 2 = 47 in the denominator - So the first two te
4. Q54: The expenditure of a household on food, clothing, and entertainment is in the ratio 2 : 4 : 4. In the coming year, the cost of food is expected to fall by 10%, clothing to rise by 5%, and entertainmen
   Answer: C — 6% decrease
   The correct answer is 6% decrease. Key Points - Treat the ratio 2 : 4 : 4 as actual amounts totalling 10 units. - Apply each change to its own component: - Food: 2 × 0.90 = 1.8 (down 10%) - Clothing: 4 × 1.05 = 4.2 (up 5%) - Entertainment:
5. Q55: A and B invested ₹1,20,000 and ₹1,60,000 respectively. A remained for 10 months and B for 7 months. What is the total profit if B's share is ₹16,800?
   Answer: A — ₹34,800
   The correct answer is ₹34,800. Key Points - In a partnership with unequal durations, profit divides in the ratio of capital × time: - A: 1,20,000 × 10 = 12,00,000 - B: 1,60,000 × 7 = 11,20,000 - Simplify: 1200 : 1120 = 15 : 14. - B holds 14
6. Q56: Two individuals, A and B, have rented a field. A places 21 horses in the field for 6 months and 15 cows for 2 months. B adds 15 cows for 6 months and 40 sheep for 7.5 months. If 3 horses consume the s
   Answer: A — \(8/17\)
   The correct answer is 8/17. Key Points - Convert every animal into one common unit before comparing. Given 3 horses = 5 cows and 6 cows = 10 sheep (so 1 cow = 5/3 sheep): - 1 horse = 5/3 cows = 25/9 sheep - Now compute each partner's sheep-
7. Q57: Two individuals, A and B rent a pasture. A uses 16 cows for a duration of 3 months and 20 sheep for 4 months, and B uses 30 sheep for 6 months. If 4 cows are equivalent to 8 sheep, determine A's porti
   Answer: A — \(44/89\)
   The correct answer is 44/89. Key Points - Use the conversion given: 4 cows = 8 sheep, so 1 cow = 2 sheep. - Express both partners in sheep-months: - A: 16 cows × 3 months = 48 cow-months = 48 × 2 = 96; plus 20 sheep × 4 = 80 → 176 - B: 30 s
8. Q58: Three groups of students have average ages 18, 20, and 22 respectively. If the number of students in the three groups is in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5, what is the overall average age?
   Answer: B — 20.6
   The correct answer is 20.6. Key Points - The groups are different sizes, so a plain average of 18, 20 and 22 (which is 20) is wrong — the average must be weighted by the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. - Take the group sizes as 2, 3 and 5 students, totall
9. Q59: The average of 11 numbers is 68. If the average of the first five is 63 and the average of the last five is 72, find the 6th number.
   Answer: A — 73
   The correct answer is 73. Key Points - Convert every average into a total, since totals can be added and subtracted: - All 11 numbers: 11 × 68 = 748 - First five: 5 × 63 = 315 - Last five: 5 × 72 = 360 - The first five and last five togethe
10. Q60: What is the average of all integers between 300 and 450 that are exactly divisible by 13?
    Answer: B — 377
    The correct answer is 377. Key Points - Find the multiples of 13 in the range: the first above 300 is 13 × 24 = 312, and the last below 450 is 13 × 34 = 442. - These form an arithmetic progression with a common difference of 13. - For any A
11. Q61: Evaluate: \(1212\% of 560 km + 6623\% of 240 km\)
    Answer: B — 230 km
    The correct answer is 230 km. Key Points - Convert the mixed percentages to their fraction equivalents, which is far faster than decimals: - 12½% = 1/8, so 1/8 × 560 = 70 km - 66⅔% = 2/3, so 2/3 × 240 = 160 km - Adding: 70 + 160 = 230 km. -
12. Q62: A vendor sells shirts at ₹500 each, earning a 2% commission, and ties at ₹150 each, with a 12% commission. If he sells 3 shirts and 4 ties per day, what will be his total commission earned in 30 days?
    Answer: C — ₹3060
    The correct answer is ₹3060. Key Points - Work out one day's commission from each product separately: - Shirts: 3 × ₹500 = ₹1,500, at 2% → ₹30 - Ties: 4 × ₹150 = ₹600, at 12% → ₹72 - Daily commission = 30 + 72 = ₹102. - Over 30 days: 102 ×
13. Q63: A fruit seller sells apples at a loss of 5% on the cost price but uses a weight that is 20% less than the actual weight. Find his total profit percentage.
    Answer: D — 18.75%
    The correct answer is 18.75%. Key Points - Two effects run at once: a stated loss on price and a hidden gain from short weight. Take the cost price as ₹100 per kg. - The customer pays for 1 kg but receives only 0.8 kg (20% less), so the sel
14. Q64: The profit made on an item sold for ₹2200 is equal to the loss incurred when it is sold for ₹1800. What will be the profit or loss percentage if the item is sold for ₹2050?
    Answer: C — Profit of 2.5%
    The correct answer is Profit of 2.5%. Key Points - If the profit at one price equals the loss at another, the cost price is exactly the average of the two prices: - CP = (2200 + 1800) / 2 = ₹2,000 - Verify: selling at 2,200 gives a ₹200 pro
15. Q65: A mobile phone retailer sells a phone for ₹P and earns a profit of 20%. For a special festive offer, he marks the same phone at ₹1.5P. At the offer, he provides a discount of 10%. What will be the per
    Answer: C — 0.62
    The correct answer is 0.62. Key Points - Start from the known profit to recover the cost price. Selling at ₹P yields 20% profit, so: - CP = P / 1.2 = 5P/6 (about 0.8333P) - Under the festive offer the marked price is 1.5P with a 10% discoun
16. Q66: A shopkeeper marked an item 25% above its cost price. During a sale, he offered a discount of 10%. What was his profit percentage?
    Answer: B — 12.50%
    The correct answer is 12.50%. Key Points - Take the cost price as ₹100 to keep the arithmetic clean. - Marked 25% above cost: MP = ₹125. - A 10% discount on the marked price: SP = 125 × 0.9 = ₹112.50. - Profit = 112.50 − 100 = ₹12.50, so pr
17. Q67: A shopkeeper marks his goods at 60% above the cost price. He allows a discount of 25% on the marked price. If he also gives an additional cash discount of ₹150, and still makes a profit of 14% on the
    Answer: B — ₹2500
    The correct answer is ₹2500. Key Points - Let the cost price be CP and build the selling price step by step: - Marked 60% above cost: MP = 1.6 CP - After a 25% discount: 1.6 CP × 0.75 = 1.2 CP - After the extra ₹150 cash discount: SP = 1.2
18. Q68: How many approximate kgs of sugar costing ₹45 per kg must be mixed with 25 kg of sugar costing ₹32 per kg so that a 15% gain may be obtained by selling the mixture at ₹43.70 per kg?
    Answer: C — 21 kg
    The correct answer is 21 kg. Key Points - Work backwards from the selling price to the mixture's cost. A 15% gain on selling at ₹43.70 means: - Cost of mixture = 43.70 / 1.15 = ₹38 per kg - Now apply alligation between ₹32 and ₹45 to reach
19. Q69: A right circular cone has a radius of 7 cm and height of 24 cm. What is the slant height?
    Answer: A — 25 cm
    The correct answer is 25 cm. Key Points - The radius, height and slant height of a right circular cone form a right triangle, so l² = r² + h². - Substituting: l² = 7² + 24² = 49 + 576 = 625, giving l = 25 cm. - (7, 24, 25) is a standard Pyt
20. Q70: A lent Rs. 5000 to B for a duration of 2 years and Rs. 3000 to C for a period of 4 years, both at the same simple interest rate. In total, he received Rs. 2200 as interest from both borrowers. What is
    Answer: A — 0.1
    The correct answer is 0.1. Key Points - Simple interest is P × R × T / 100, and the rate is common to both loans, so the two interests can be added: - From B: 5000 × 2 × R = 10,000 R - From C: 3000 × 4 × R = 12,000 R - Total: 22,000 R = 2,2
21. Q71: A triangular prism has base area of 25 cm². If height is increased by 20%, what is the new volume (original height was 10 cm)?
    Answer: C — 300 cm³
    The correct answer is 300 cm³. Key Points - The volume of any prism is base area × height, whatever the shape of the base. - Original volume = 25 × 10 = 250 cm³. - The height rises by 20%: 10 × 1.2 = 12 cm. - New volume = 25 × 12 = 300 cm³.
22. Q72: A circular disc's radius is decreased by 10%. What is the percentage decrease in its area?
    Answer: B — 19%
    The correct answer is 19%. Key Points - Area of a circle is πr², so area depends on the square of the radius. - A 10% decrease leaves the radius at 0.9r, so the new area is π(0.9r)² = 0.81 πr². - The area therefore falls to 81% of the origi
23. Q73: A builder has 100 m of fencing wire. He can use this wire to enclose a circular garden or a square garden. If he wants to maximize the enclosed area, what is the approximate ratio of the area of the l
    Answer: B — 1.27 : 1
    The correct answer is 1.27 : 1. Key Points - The same 100 m of wire becomes the perimeter of each figure. - Circle: 2πr = 100, so r = 100/2π ≈ 15.92 m, and area = πr² ≈ 795.8 m². - Square: 4a = 100, so a = 25 m, and area = 25² = 625 m². - R
24. Q74: A vertical cylindrical container is filled with oil. A solid hemispherical stone of radius 7 cm is immersed completely, and the oil level rises by 3 cm. What is the radius of the cylinder?
    Answer: C — 8.73 cm
    The correct answer is 8.73 cm. Key Points - A fully immersed solid displaces oil equal to its own volume, so the rise in level measures that volume. - Volume of the hemisphere = (2/3)πr³ = (2/3)π(7)³ = (2/3)π(343) ≈ 718.4 cm³. - The displac
25. Q75: A sector of a circle has a central angle of 120° and a radius of 7 cm. Another sector of the same circle has a central angle of \(2π3\) radians. What is the ratio of the area of the first sector to th
    Answer: C — 1 : 1
    The correct answer is 1 : 1. Key Points - Convert the second angle to degrees before comparing: 2π/3 radians = 120°, since π radians = 180°. - Both sectors therefore subtend 120° and belong to the same circle, so they have the same radius a

English Comprehension — Solved Questions

1. Q76: Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: NEBULOUS
   Answer: A — Vague
   The correct answer is Vague. Key Points - Nebulous means hazy, unclear, ill-defined — used of ideas or plans that lack sharp outline. - It comes from the Latin nebula, "mist or cloud", the same root as nebula, the cloud of gas and
2. Q77: Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: Erudite
   Answer: B — Uninformed
   The correct answer is Uninformed. Key Points - Erudite means deeply learned, having wide scholarly knowledge acquired from study. - Its opposite is therefore uninformed — lacking knowledge. - Scholarly, learned and intellectual are all syno
3. Q78: Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: Fly off the handle
   Answer: C — To become suddenly angry
   The correct answer is To become suddenly angry. Key Points - Fly off the handle means to lose one's temper abruptly, usually out of proportion to the provocation. - The image is literal in origin: an axe head flying off its loose wooden han
4. Q79: Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: Encomium
   Answer: C — Castigation
   The correct answer is Castigation. Key Points - An encomium is a formal expression of high praise — a speech or piece of writing in warm tribute. - Castigation means severe rebuke or harsh criticism, so it is the opposite. - Panegyric, prai
5. Q80: Spot the correct spelling of a chromosomal "three copies" term.
   Answer: C — Trisomy
   The correct answer is Trisomy. Key Points - Trisomy is the condition of having three copies of a chromosome instead of the usual two. - The spelling follows its parts: tri- (three) + -somy, from Greek soma, "body" — one s, and the
6. Q81: Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A state of disuse or inactivity'.
   Answer: D — Desuetude
   The correct answer is Desuetude. Key Points - Desuetude means a state of disuse or inactivity, most often said of a law, custom or practice that has fallen out of use without being formally abolished. - The distractors are close but distinc
7. Q82: Select the correct option: So delicate the negotiations that a single leak could derail them.
   Answer: B — were
   The correct answer is were. Key Points - The sentence uses inversion for emphasis: "So delicate were the negotiations that…" — when a complement like so delicate is fronted, the verb comes before the subject. - The subject is nego
8. Q83: Select the correct option: Her interpretation was than insightful; it bordered on the revelatory.
   Answer: B — more
   The correct answer is more. Key Points - The clause after the semicolon — "it bordered on the revelatory" — escalates the description, so the interpretation was something beyond merely insightful. - Only more … than produces that
9. Q84: Select the correct option: The reforms, while ostensibly motivated by economic exigencies, were in effect a veiled attempt to dissent under the guise of austerity.
   Answer: A — quell
   The correct answer is quell. Key Points - The sentence describes a veiled attempt aimed at dissent, so the missing verb must mean to suppress or put down. - Quell means exactly that — to subdue or suppress opposition, as in quell a rebellio
10. Q85: Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The more senior the position was (1) / the more urgent became the need (2) / for discretion, decorum, and (3) / refraining from premature disclosu
    Answer: D — (4)
    The correct answer is part (4). Key Points - The sentence lists what the need is "for": discretion, decorum, and refraining from premature disclosure. - The first two items are nouns, so the third must be a noun too. Refraining is
11. Q86: Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The report's emphasis on techno-optimism, while commendable, (1) / overlook the structural inequities (2) / that persist in data accessibility and
    Answer: B — (2)
    The correct answer is part (2). Key Points - The subject of the sentence is "The report's emphasis" — the head noun is emphasis, which is singular. - The verb in part (2) is overlook, a plural form; it must be overlooks to agree w
12. Q87: Change the following from active to passive: Why did the editor overlook the substantial stylistic anomalies?
    Answer: D — Why were the substantial stylistic anomalies overlooked by the editor?
    The correct answer is Why were the substantial stylistic anomalies overlooked by the editor? Key Points - The active sentence is in the simple past ("did … overlook"), so the passive must also be simple past: was/were + past parti
13. Q88: Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The historian referenced a bailey in Norman military architecture.
    Answer: A — The shepherd gathered his sheep in the bailey.
    The correct answer is The shepherd gathered his sheep in the bailey. Key Points - A homonym reuses the same spelling with a different sense, so the answer is the option that shifts the meaning rather than repeating it. - In the prompt, bail
14. Q89: Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: It has been alleged that confidential data was being leaked by insiders within the firm.
    Answer: C — Insiders have allegedly been leaking confidential data within the firm.
    The correct answer is Insiders have allegedly been leaking confidential data within the firm. Key Points - Two passives must be unwound: the reporting frame "It has been alleged that…" and the inner clause "data was being lea
15. Q90: What is the central idea of groupthink as discussed in the passage?
    Answer: B — Valuing consensus over critique
    The correct answer is Valuing consensus over critique. Key Points - The passage defines groupthink as the state in which the desire for unanimity overrides the motivation to appraise alternative viewpoints critically. - That is precisely &q
16. Q91: According to the passage, what evolutionary trait contributes to social conformity?
    Answer: C — Instinct for tribal survival
    The correct answer is Instinct for tribal survival. Key Points - The passage traces conformity to an evolutionary inclination toward tribal belonging, noting that deviation was historically tied to survival risk. - Being cast out of the gro
17. Q92: Which event is cited as a real-world consequence of groupthink?
    Answer: B — Challenger disaster
    The correct answer is Challenger disaster. Key Points - The passage names two textbook cases of decisions marred by groupthink: the Bay of Pigs invasion and the Challenger space shuttle disaster. - Only the Challenger appears among the opti
18. Q93: How does digital media reinforce conformity, according to the passage?
    Answer: C — Through curated echo chambers
    The correct answer is Through curated echo chambers. Key Points - The passage states that algorithms reinforce conformity by curating information bubbles that validate existing biases while filtering out divergent thought. - "Curated e
19. Q94: What is suggested as a solution to groupthink and conformity?
    Answer: C — Encouraging constructive dissent
    The correct answer is Encouraging constructive dissent. Key Points - The passage proposes institutionalising dissent as the remedy, arguing that constructive disagreement acts as an intellectual safeguard against tunnel vision. - It adds th
20. Q95: Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: She insisted me to take the medicine .
    Answer: A — that I take the medicine
    The correct answer is that I take the medicine. Key Points - Insist is never followed by an object plus an infinitive. The correct pattern is insist + that + subject + base verb, or insist on + -ing. - So "insisted me to take" is
21. Q96: Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: No one knows where is he hiding .
    Answer: C — where he is hiding
    The correct answer is where he is hiding. Key Points - An embedded question — a question inside a larger statement — takes statement word order, not question word order. - So after "No one knows", the clause must run subject + ver
22. Q97: A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. He said, "I am not feeling wel
    Answer: B — He said that he was not feeling well.
    The correct answer is He said that he was not feeling well. Key Points - The reporting verb said is in the past, so the reported clause moves one tense back: present continuous am not feeling becomes past continuous was not feeling. - The p
23. Q98: A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. The manager told the staff that dea
    Answer: A — "Deadlines must be followed strictly," said the manager.
    The correct answer is "Deadlines must be followed strictly," said the manager. Key Points - Converting indirect to direct speech reverses the usual changes: remove that, restore the speaker's exact words inside quotation marks, an
24. Q99: Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage: 1. The team analyzed the survey data. 2. Insights were used to improve the customer experience. 3. A targeted marketing ca
    Answer: D — 4-1-3-2
    The correct answer is 4-1-3-2. Key Points - Follow the natural sequence of a data project, which is chronological: - 4 — the data was collected through various channels (nothing can precede collection) - 1 — the team analyzed the survey dat
25. Q100: Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. These factors include the amount of sunlight received, the composition of the atmosphere, and the Earth's orbit. 2. The long-term var
    Answer: A — 2, 1, 4, 3
    The correct answer is 2, 1, 4, 3. Key Points - Sentence 2 is the opener: it introduces the topic in general terms — long-term climate variation shaped by natural and anthropogenic factors — and uses no back-reference. - Sentence 1 follows d

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are there in the SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 12 Sep 2025 (Shift 3)?

The SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 12 Sep 2025 (Shift 3) has 100 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

When was the SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 12 Sep 2025 (Shift 3) held?

The SSC CGL 2025 Tier I — 12 Sep 2025 (Shift 3) was held on 12 September 2025.

Is there negative marking in SSC CGL 2025?

Yes. SSC CGL deducts 0.5 marks for every wrong answer, so accuracy matters as much as attempting more questions.

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