UPPCS Prelims 2025 — General Studies Paper I — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

UPPCS Preliminary Examination 2025, General Studies Paper I, with the correct answer and a detailed explanation for every question. Covers History, Geography, Indian Polity, Economy, Environment & Ecology, General Science, Current Affairs and Uttar Pradesh specific topics.

UPPCS Combined State / Upper Subordinate Services — 2025 — GS Paper I

150 solved questions with answer key and detailed explanations — Subjects: Geography, Indian Polity, History, Economy, General Science, Environment & Ecology, Current Affairs, Uttar Pradesh, Art & Culture, International Relations — Negative marking: 0.33

Geography — Solved Questions

  1. Q1: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The interior part of Australia is desert and semi-desert. Reason (R): Northern Australia is
    Answer: C — (A) is true, but (R) is false
    The correct answer is (A) is true, but (R) is false. Key Points - Assertion is true. The interior of Australia — the "Outback" — is genuinely desert and semi-desert. The Great Victoria, Great Sandy, Gibson, Simpson and Tanami dese
  2. Q4: Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer by using the code given below the lists. List-I (Coal Field) A. Appalachian B. Lancashire C. Ruhr D. Kuzbass List-II (Country) 1. England 2. Ger
    Answer: A — A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
    The correct answer is A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3. Key Points - A. Appalachian — 4. USA. The Appalachian field along the Appalachian mountains is the leading coal region of the United States. - B. Lancashire — 1. England. The Lancashire coalfield in
  3. Q9: Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? (Coal Producing Area) — (State) 1. Maolong — Arunachal Pradesh 2. Raniganj — West Bengal 3. Ramgarh — Jharkhand 4. Talcher — Odisha Select the co
    Answer: B — Only 2, 3 and 4
    The correct answer is Only 2, 3 and 4. Key Points - 1. Maolong — Arunachal Pradesh is INCORRECT. Maolong (Mawlong) is a coal-bearing area of Meghalaya, in the Jaintia-Khasi hills belt. - 2. Raniganj — West Bengal is correct. Raniganj in the
  4. Q14: Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Refinery) A. Nayara B. Manali C. Numaligarh D. Tatipaka List-II (State) 1. Assam 2. Gujarat 3. And
    Answer: B — A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
    The correct answer is A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3. Key Points - A. Nayara — 2. Gujarat. The Nayara Energy refinery (formerly Essar Oil) is at Vadinar, Gujarat. - B. Manali — 4. Tamil Nadu. The Manali refinery of Chennai Petroleum Corporation Ltd is
  5. Q21: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): In the Himalayan mountains different types of vegetation are found. Reason (R): In Himalaya
    Answer: D — Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Key Points - Assertion is true. The Himalayas show a striking range of vegetation types within short horizontal distances — tropical deciduous at the
  6. Q23: Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched? (Tribe) — (Habitat) 1. Bushman — Kalahari Desert 2. Eskimo — Northern Canada 3. Pygmy — Congo Basin 4. Masai — West Africa Select the correct
    Answer: B — Only 4
    The correct answer is Only 4. Key Points - 4. Masai — West Africa is NOT correctly matched. The Masai (Maasai) are pastoral herders of East Africa, living in the grasslands of Kenya and Tanzania, not West Africa. - 1. Bushman — Kalahari Des
  7. Q27: The Gobi Desert is spread across which of the following countries? 1. Mongolia 2. China 3. Russia 4. Kazakhstan Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: A — Only 1 and 2
    The correct answer is Only 1 and 2. Key Points - The Gobi Desert spreads across southern Mongolia and northern China (largely Inner Mongolia), and no further. So only 1 and 2 are correct, giving option (a). - Russia and Kazakhstan lie to th
  8. Q31: With reference to hydroelectricity in North India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. There are huge possibilities of hydroelectricity in the Himalayan region. 2. Eastern Uttar Prade
    Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The Himalayan region has enormous hydroelectric potential — perennial snow-fed rivers, steep gradients and deep gorges provide the natural head required for power gene
  9. Q35: Arrange the following States of India in the ascending order on the basis of their area and select the correct answer from the code given below. 1. Haryana 2. Himachal Pradesh 3. Punjab 4. Uttarakhand
    Answer: D — 1, 3, 4, 2
    The correct answer is 1, 3, 4, 2. Key Points Arranging by area in ascending order: - 1. Haryana — about 44,212 sq km (smallest of the four) - 3. Punjab — about 50,362 sq km - 4. Uttarakhand — about 53,483 sq km - 2. Himachal Pradesh — about
  10. Q37: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (State) A. Tamil Nadu B. Rajasthan C. Nagaland D. Madhya Pradesh List-II (Highest Peak) 1. Dhupgarh
    Answer: D — A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
    The correct answer is A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1. Key Points - A. Tamil Nadu — 2. Doddabetta. At about 2,637 m, the highest peak of the Nilgiris and of Tamil Nadu. - B. Rajasthan — 3. Guru Shikhar. At about 1,722 m, the highest peak of the Aravalli
  11. Q44: With reference to 'Atal Tunnel', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. This tunnel is the world's longest highway tunnel. 2. This tunnel is built in the Pir Panjal range of Himalayas. S
    Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct as per the official key. The Atal Tunnel is recognised as the world's longest highway tunnel above 10,000 feet, at about 9.02 km and an altitude of roughly 3,000 m (10,
  12. Q50: Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Port) A. Paradeep B. Tuticorin C. Kakinada D. Alappuzha List-II (State) 1. Tamil Nadu 2. Kerala 3.
    Answer: B — A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
    The correct answer is A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2. Key Points - A. Paradeep — 3. Odisha. A major port on the Bay of Bengal at the mouth of the Mahanadi. - B. Tuticorin — 1. Tamil Nadu. Now called V. O. Chidambaranar Port. - C. Kakinada — 4. Andhra P
  13. Q55: Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched? (Pass) — (State/Union Territory) 1. Lipulekh — Ladakh 2. Nathu La — Sikkim 3. Bomdila — Arunachal Pradesh 4. Shipki La — Himachal Pradesh Sel
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - 1. Lipulekh — Ladakh is NOT correctly matched. The Lipulekh Pass lies in Uttarakhand (Pithoragarh district), at the India-Nepal-China trijunction. It is the traditional route for the Kailash-Mansar
  14. Q63: With reference to 'Brazil', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The equatorial rainforests of Brazil are called 'Selvas'. 2. The dark black colour fertile land here is called 'Terra R
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The equatorial rainforests of Brazil, in the Amazon basin, are called "Selvas". - Statement 2 is incorrect. Terra Roxa means "purple/red earth" in Portug
  15. Q68: Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched? (City) — (River) 1. Budapest — Danube 2. Cologne — Rhine 3. New Orleans — Missouri 4. Hyderabad (India) — Paleru Select the correct answer fr
    Answer: B — Only 3 and 4
    The correct answer is Only 3 and 4. Key Points - 3. New Orleans — Missouri is NOT correct. New Orleans stands on the Mississippi, near its mouth. The Missouri is a tributary of the Mississippi and flows nowhere near New Orleans. - 4. Hydera
  16. Q75: Which of the following is/are NOT a cold ocean current? 1. Agulhas current 2. Brazil current 3. Humboldt current 4. California current Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: D — 1 and 2
    The correct answer is 1 and 2. Key Points - 1. Agulhas current ✗ is NOT a cold current. It is a warm current flowing southward along the east coast of Africa in the Indian Ocean. - 2. Brazil current ✗ is NOT a cold current. It is a warm cur
  17. Q78: With reference to the 'Indian Ocean', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was called by the Ancient Greeks as Erythraean Sea. 2. It is spread on the either side of equator. Select
    Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The ancient Greeks called the Indian Ocean the "Erythraean Sea" — literally the "Red Sea" — a name recorded in the first-century navigational text
  18. Q88: Consider the following sources of world water supply and arrange them in descending order. 1. Oceans 2. Rivers 3. Polar ice and Glaciers 4. Ground water Select the correct answer from the code given b
    Answer: A — 1, 3, 4, 2
    The correct answer is 1, 3, 4, 2. Key Points Arranging the world's water by volume, in descending order: - 1. Oceans — about 97% of all water on Earth (saline). - 3. Polar ice and glaciers — about 2%, the largest store of fresh water. - 4.
  19. Q92: Which of the following pair is/are NOT correctly matched? (Dam) — (River) 1. Baglihar Dam — Chenab 2. Pandoh Dam — Ravi 3. Srisailam Dam — Tungabhadra Select the correct answer from the code given bel
    Answer: C — 2 and 3
    The correct answer is 2 and 3. Key Points - 2. Pandoh Dam — Ravi is NOT correct. The Pandoh Dam in Himachal Pradesh is on the Beas, and diverts its water to the Sutlej through the Beas-Sutlej Link. - 3. Srisailam Dam — Tungabhadra is NOT co
  20. Q94: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The Himalayas form source of several large perennial rivers. Reason (R): The higher ranges
    Answer: D — Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Key Points - Assertion is true. The Himalayas are the source of several great perennial rivers — the Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra systems and their t
  21. Q106: Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Nuclear Power Plant) A. Kudankulam B. Kakrapar C. Kaiga D. Rawatbhata List-II (State) 1. Karnataka
    Answer: C — A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
    The correct answer is A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3. Key Points - A. Kudankulam — 2. Tamil Nadu. Built with Russian collaboration; India's largest nuclear power station by capacity. - B. Kakrapar — 4. Gujarat. Site of India's indigenous 700 MWe PHWR.
  22. Q108: Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Iron-ore Mines) A. Gurumahisani B. Bailadila C. Noamundi D. Kudremukh List-II (State) 1. Jharkhand
    Answer: D — A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
    The correct answer is A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2. Key Points - A. Gurumahisani — 3. Odisha. In Mayurbhanj district. - B. Bailadila — 4. Chhattisgarh. In Dantewada district; its high-grade ore is largely exported to Japan through Visakhapatnam. - C.
  23. Q116: Which of the following rivers fall into the Arabian Sea? 1. Periyar 2. Pennar 3. Palar Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: A — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - 1. Periyar ✓ is a west-flowing river of Kerala and drains into the Arabian Sea. It is the longest river of Kerala. - 2. Pennar ✗ flows east across Andhra Pradesh into the Bay of Bengal. - 3. Palar
  24. Q138: Suez Canal connects which of the following? 1. Atlantic Ocean 2. Red Sea 3. Mediterranean Sea 4. Indian Ocean Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: C — 2 and 3
    The correct answer is 2 and 3. Key Points - The Suez Canal connects the Mediterranean Sea (3) in the north with the Red Sea (2) in the south, through the Gulf of Suez. - Hence option (c). - The Atlantic Ocean and Indian Ocean are not direct
  25. Q150: Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? (Railway Zone) — (Headquarter) 1. Northern Railway — New Delhi 2. North Eastern Railway — Gorakhpur 3. South Eastern Railway — Cuttack Select the
    Answer: A — Only 1 and 2
    The correct answer is Only 1 and 2. Key Points - 1. Northern Railway — New Delhi ✓. The largest railway zone by route length. - 2. North Eastern Railway — Gorakhpur ✓. Gorakhpur also has one of the longest railway platforms in the world. -

Current Affairs — Solved Questions

  1. Q2: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): India is the second largest mobile gaming market in the world. Reason (R): There are more t
    Answer: D — Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Key Points - Assertion is true. India is the world's second largest mobile gaming market by number of users, behind only China, and the largest by ap
  2. Q20: With reference to Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar announced in June 2025, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Yuva Puraskar was announced in 23 Indian languages. 2. There is no Yuva Pur
    Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar announced in June 2025 was declared in 23 Indian languages. - Statement 2 is correct. No Yuva Puraskar was announced in Dogri that ye
  3. Q29: 'Adi Karmyogi Beta Version - A Responsive Governance Initiative' was launched by which of the following ministry in June 2025? 1. Ministry of AYUSH 2. Ministry of Women and Child Development 3. Minist
    Answer: B — Only 4
    The correct answer is Only 4. Key Points - 'Adi Karmyogi — A Responsive Governance Initiative' was launched in June 2025 by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, giving option (b). - It is a large-scale capacity-building and training programme ai
  4. Q38: Operation Brahma was launched by India in March 2025 to provide humanitarian aid to which of the following countries? 1. Bangladesh 2. Myanmar 3. Sri Lanka 4. Malaysia Select the correct answer from t
    Answer: A — Only 2
    The correct answer is Only 2. Key Points - Operation Brahma was launched by India in March 2025 to provide humanitarian assistance and disaster relief to Myanmar, following the severe earthquake there. - Only country 2 is correct, giving op
  5. Q52: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Pulitzer award categories) A. Fiction B. Music C. Biography D. Drama List-II (Awardee in 2025) 1.
    Answer: B — A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
    The correct answer is A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2. Key Points - A. Fiction — 4. Percival Everett, for the novel James. - B. Music — 3. Susie Ibarra, for Sky Islands. - C. Biography — 1. Jason Roberts, for Every Living Thing: The Great and Deadly Rac
  6. Q59: Global Wage Report 2024-25 was released by which of the following organisation? 1. International Labour Organisation 2. World Bank 3. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development Select the c
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - The Global Wage Report 2024-25 is released by the International Labour Organisation (ILO), giving option (d). - The World Bank and the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) d
  7. Q81: Who among the following Indian novelists and journalists is/are part of the five member jury for the 2026 International Booker Prize? 1. Natasha Brown 2. Kiran Desai 3. Nilanjana S. Roy 4. Rajni Chauh
    Answer: C — Only 3
    The correct answer is Only 3. Key Points - Nilanjana S. Roy, the Indian novelist, journalist and critic, is part of the five-member jury for the 2026 International Booker Prize. Only item 3 is correct, giving option (c). - Natasha Brown, Ki
  8. Q96: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Padma Vibhushan Field, 2025) A. Trade and Industry B. Literature and Education C. Medicine D. Art
    Answer: B — A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
    The correct answer is A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1. Key Points - A. Trade and Industry — 2. Shri Osamu Suzuki. The late chairman of Suzuki Motor Corporation, honoured posthumously for his role in transforming the Indian automobile industry through Ma
  9. Q97: Pushkar Kumbh Mela 2025 was held in May 2025 in which of the following State(s)? 1. Rajasthan 2. Uttar Pradesh 3. Uttarakhand Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: B — Only 3
    The correct answer is Only 3. Key Points - The Pushkar Kumbh Mela 2025 was held in May 2025 in Uttarakhand, giving option (b). - Do not be misled by item 1 — Pushkar is a well-known town in Rajasthan with its famous camel fair, but that is
  10. Q107: Who among the following had won the International Booker Prize in 2025? 1. Banu Mushtaq 2. Deepa Bhasthi 3. Sanjay Chauhan Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: A — 1 and 2
    The correct answer is 1 and 2. Key Points - The 2025 International Booker Prize was won by Heart Lamp, a collection of short stories by Banu Mushtaq (1), translated from Kannada into English by Deepa Bhasthi (2). - Both the author and the t
  11. Q110: Joint special forces exercise 'KHANJAR-XII' was held in March 2025 between India and which of the following countries? 1. Russia 2. Turkmenistan 3. Kyrgyzstan 4. Mongolia Select the correct answer fro
    Answer: C — Only 3
    The correct answer is Only 3. Key Points - The joint special forces exercise KHANJAR is held between India and Kyrgyzstan. Its twelfth edition (KHANJAR-XII) took place in March 2025. - Only country 3 is correct, giving option (c). - Russia,
  12. Q115: 'Swavalambini', a women entrepreneurship programme for the North-East, is launched by which of the following ministries? 1. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship 2. Ministry of Women and
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - 'Swavalambini', the women entrepreneurship programme for the North-East, was launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), giving option (d). - It is implemented throug
  13. Q126: 'BHARATPOL', an online portal for international police co-operation, has been developed by which of the following? 1. Central Bureau of Investigation 2. Research and Analysis Wing 3. Intelligence Bure
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - BHARATPOL, the online portal for international police co-operation, has been developed by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), giving option (d). - It was launched in January 2025 to give eve
  14. Q133: Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched? (Day) — (Date) 1. National Voters Day (India) — 25 January 2. Constitution Day (India) — 27 January 3. Human Rights Day (World) — 29 January
    Answer: C — 2 and 3
    The correct answer is 2 and 3. Key Points - 2. Constitution Day (India) — 27 January is NOT correct. Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) is 26 November, marking the adoption of the Constitution in 1949. It has been observed as such since 201
  15. Q136: With reference to the New Pamban Bridge, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited, which is a 'Navratna' public sector unit under the Ministr
    Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The New Pamban Bridge was constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL), a Navratna public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Railways. - Statement 2 is correct

History — Solved Questions

  1. Q3: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Babur wrote Tuzk-e-Babri in Chagatai Turki. Reason (R): Turki was the official language of
    Answer: C — (A) is true, but (R) is false
    The correct answer is (A) is true, but (R) is false. Key Points - Assertion is true. Babur wrote his memoirs, the Tuzuk-i-Baburi (also called Baburnama), in his mother tongue Chagatai Turki. - Reason is false. The official language of the M
  2. Q6: Which of the following events took place in the year 1911? 1. Partition of Bengal revoked 2. Transfer of capital from Calcutta to Delhi 3. Lucknow pact between Congress and Muslim League Select the co
    Answer: A — 1 and 2
    The correct answer is 1 and 2. Key Points - 1911 was the year of the Delhi Durbar, held to mark the coronation of George V. Two announcements were made there: - Annulment of the Partition of Bengal — the 1905 partition was revoked. ✓ - Tran
  3. Q7: Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order. 1. Poona Pact 2. End of Civil Disobedience Movement 3. Gandhi-Irwin Pact 4. Second Round Table Conference Select the corr
    Answer: D — 3, 4, 1, 2
    The correct answer is 3, 4, 1, 2. Key Points - 3. Gandhi-Irwin Pact — March 1931. Gandhi suspended the Civil Disobedience Movement and agreed to attend the Second Round Table Conference. - 4. Second Round Table Conference — September to Dec
  4. Q25: Consider the following revolts and arrange them in correct chronological order. 1. Pabna 2. Indigo 3. Kuka 4. Sanyasi Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: D — 4, 2, 3, 1
    The correct answer is 4, 2, 3, 1. Key Points - 4. Sanyasi Revolt — 1763 to 1800. A revolt of wandering ascetics and dispossessed peasants in Bengal after the famine of 1770; the earliest of the four. - 2. Indigo Revolt — 1859-60. Bengal's i
  5. Q26: Consider the following wars and arrange them in correct chronological order. 1. First Anglo-Mysore War 2. Second Anglo-French War 3. First Anglo-Sikh War 4. First Anglo-Afghan War Select the correct a
    Answer: A — 2, 1, 4, 3
    The correct answer is 2, 1, 4, 3. Key Points - 2. Second Anglo-French War — 1749-1754. The Second Carnatic War, fought between the English and French East India Companies over succession disputes in Hyderabad and the Carnatic. - 1. First An
  6. Q30: Arrange the following conquests of Alauddin Khalji in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below. 1. Ranthambore 2. Jaisalmer 3. Warangal 4. Chittor
    Answer: B — 2, 1, 4, 3
    The correct answer is 2, 1, 4, 3. Key Points - 2. Jaisalmer — c. 1299. An early Rajput conquest of Alauddin Khalji's reign. - 1. Ranthambore — 1301. Alauddin defeated Hammiradeva of the Chauhan line. - 4. Chittor — 1303. The siege of Chitto
  7. Q40: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Governor General / Viceroy) A. Lord Dalhousie B. Lord Curzon C. Lord William Bentinck D. Lord Corn
    Answer: D — A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
    The correct answer is A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1. Key Points - A. Lord Dalhousie — 4. Doctrine of Lapse. Under it Satara, Jhansi, Nagpur, Sambalpur and others were annexed; Dalhousie also annexed Awadh (1856) on grounds of misgovernance. - B. Lord
  8. Q41: Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order. 1. Cripps Mission 2. Cabinet Mission 3. Shimla Conference 4. Wavell Plan Select the correct answer from the code given be
    Answer: A — 1, 4, 3, 2
    The correct answer is 1, 4, 3, 2. Key Points - 1. Cripps Mission — March 1942. Sir Stafford Cripps offered dominion status after the war; Gandhi called it a "post-dated cheque". - 4. Wavell Plan — June 1945. Viceroy Lord Wavell pr
  9. Q49: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Buland Darwaja was constructed at Fatehpur Sikri by the Mughal emperor Akbar. Reason (R): A
    Answer: C — (A) is true, but (R) is false
    The correct answer is (A) is true, but (R) is false. Key Points - Assertion is true. The Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri was built by Akbar, and at about 54 m it is among the highest gateways in the world. - Reason is false. It was built i
  10. Q57: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Emperor) A. Babur B. Humayun C. Jahangir D. Shah Jahan List-II (City where Tomb is located) 1. Agr
    Answer: A — A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
    The correct answer is A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1. Key Points - A. Babur — 4. Kabul. Babur died at Agra in 1530 but, as he had wished, his remains were later taken to Kabul and buried in the Bagh-e-Babur. - B. Humayun — 3. Delhi. Humayun's Tomb in D
  11. Q67: With reference to the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle, 1748, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The first Carnatic war ended. 2. Madras was returned to the British. Select the correct answ
    Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle, 1748 ended the War of Austrian Succession in Europe and, with it, the First Carnatic War (1746-48) in India. - Statement 2 is correct. U
  12. Q79: Arrange the following events in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below. 1. Battle of Kannauj 2. Battle of Daurah 3. Battle of Samugarh 4. Battle of Chausa
    Answer: D — 2, 4, 1, 3
    The correct answer is 2, 4, 1, 3. Key Points - 2. Battle of Daurah — 1532. Humayun defeated Mahmud Lodi, an Afghan claimant, in his first major engagement. - 4. Battle of Chausa — 1539. Sher Shah Suri defeated Humayun near Buxar; Humayun es
  13. Q87: Which of the following archaeological sites related to Indus Valley civilization are situated in present day Uttar Pradesh? 1. Mandi 2. Rakhigarhi 3. Hulas Select the correct answer from the code give
    Answer: C — 1 and 3
    The correct answer is 1 and 3. Key Points - 1. Mandi ✓ — in Muzaffarnagar district, Uttar Pradesh; a Harappan site notable for a large hoard of gold and other ornaments. - 3. Hulas ✓ — in Saharanpur district, Uttar Pradesh; a Late Harappan
  14. Q95: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The territories of the Sultanate could be broadly divided into two parts, the Khalsa and th
    Answer: C — (A) is true, but (R) is false
    The correct answer is (A) is true, but (R) is false. Key Points - Assertion is true. The territory of the Delhi Sultanate was broadly divided into Khalisa and Iqta (jagir) lands. - Reason is false. It was the Khalisa — not the jagirs — that
  15. Q105: Four Buddhist Councils were held at the following places. Arrange them in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below. 1. Vaishali 2. Rajagriha 3. Kundalvana 4.
    Answer: C — 2, 1, 4, 3
    The correct answer is 2, 1, 4, 3. Key Points - 2. Rajagriha — First Council, about 483 BCE, soon after the Buddha's death, under Ajatashatru; presided over by Mahakassapa. The Sutta and Vinaya Pitakas were compiled. - 1. Vaishali — Second C
  16. Q114: Which of the following sites were obtained by the British East India Company under the Treaty of Sugauli in 1816? 1. Kathmandu 2. Shimla 3. Ranikhet 4. Nainital Select the correct answer from the code
    Answer: C — 2, 3 and 4
    The correct answer is 2, 3 and 4. Key Points - The Treaty of Sugauli (1816) ended the Anglo-Nepalese (Gurkha) War of 1814-16. Under it Nepal ceded to the British the territories of Kumaon and Garhwal and the Terai, along with Sikkim's claim
  17. Q121: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Ruler) A. Mahendravarman I B. Kadungon C. Amoghavarsha I D. Rajaraja I List-II (Dynasty) 1. Rashtr
    Answer: B — A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
    The correct answer is A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3. Key Points - A. Mahendravarman I — 2. Pallava. Ruled about 600-630 CE; a patron of rock-cut architecture and author of the satire Mattavilasa Prahasana. - B. Kadungon — 4. Pandya. Credited with revi
  18. Q127: Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order. 1. Acquisition of Awadh by the British 2. Ilbert Bill Controversy 3. Indigo Revolt 4. Second Anglo-Afghan War Select the
    Answer: A — 1, 3, 4, 2
    The correct answer is 1, 3, 4, 2. Key Points - 1. Acquisition of Awadh by the British — 1856. Annexed by Lord Dalhousie on the ground of misgovernance; the deposition of Wajid Ali Shah was a major cause of the 1857 Revolt. - 3. Indigo Revol
  19. Q135: Who among the following resigned from the Viceroy's Executive Council, saddened by the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre? 1. Chettur Sankaran Nair 2. Ishwari Prasad 3. Muhammad Shafi 4. Iqbal Narain Gurtu Sel
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Chettur Sankaran Nair resigned from the Viceroy's Executive Council in protest against the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre of 13 April 1919, giving option (d). - He was the only Indian member of the Vice
  20. Q149: Arrange the following in chronological order of their rule and select the correct answer from the code given below. 1. Bajirao I 2. Balaji Bajirao 3. Balaji Vishwanath 4. Madhav Rao I Select the corre
    Answer: C — 3, 1, 2, 4
    The correct answer is 3, 1, 2, 4. Key Points - 3. Balaji Vishwanath — 1713 to 1720. The first Peshwa of the Bhat family, appointed by Shahu. - 1. Bajirao I — 1720 to 1740. The greatest of the Peshwas, who carried Maratha power into north In

Environment & Ecology — Solved Questions

  1. Q5: With reference to 'Ecosystem', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Green plants in terrestrial ecosystem capture about 1% of energy of the sunlight that falls on their leaves. 2. Arou
    Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. Green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem fix only about 1% of the photosynthetically active radiation falling on their leaves into chemical energy. The rest is reflecte
  2. Q10: With reference to 'Delhi Government's Bio-decomposer and Spray Programme', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Bio-decomposer solution is provided free of cost to farmers to help
    Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The Delhi Government sprayed the bio-decomposer solution free of cost on farmers' fields to convert paddy stubble into manure in situ, as an alternative to burning it.
  3. Q22: With reference to 'Carrying Capacity of Environment', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The rate of resource extraction should remain above the rate of resource generation. 2. Gener
    Answer: A — Only 2
    The correct answer is Only 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is incorrect. For an environment to stay within its carrying capacity, the rate of resource extraction must remain at or below the rate of resource regeneration — never above it. Extrac
  4. Q45: With reference to 'ozone layer', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Ozone layer shields the surface of the earth from the ultra-violet radiations from the sun. 2. Ozone depletion has
    Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The ozone layer, in the stratosphere at about 15-35 km, absorbs most of the sun's harmful ultraviolet (UV-B and UV-C) radiation, shielding life at the surface. - State
  5. Q51: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Sustainable development should take place without damaging the environment and development
    Answer: C — (A) is true, but (R) is false
    The correct answer is (A) is true, but (R) is false. Key Points - Assertion is true. This is the classic Brundtland definition of sustainable development — "development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the abili
  6. Q58: Which of the following Ramsar wetland site is/are NOT situated in Uttar Pradesh? 1. Sarsai Nawar Jheel 2. Samaspur Bird Sanctuary 3. Rudrasagar Lake 4. Sultanpur National Park Select the correct answe
    Answer: B — 3 and 4
    The correct answer is 3 and 4. Key Points - 3. Rudrasagar Lake ✗ is in Tripura, not Uttar Pradesh. - 4. Sultanpur National Park ✗ is in Gurugram, Haryana — not to be confused with Sultanpur district in Uttar Pradesh, which is the trap here.
  7. Q61: With reference to lichens, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Lichens are very good indicators of pollution. 2. Lichens grow well in polluted areas. Select the correct answer from th
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. Lichens are excellent bio-indicators of air pollution, particularly of sulphur dioxide. Because they absorb nutrients and water directly from the atmosphere, they accumulate
  8. Q62: Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched? (Day) — (Date) 1. International Ozone Day — 16 September 2. World Environment Day — 5 June 3. World Wildlife Day — 22 March Select the correc
    Answer: B — Only 3
    The correct answer is Only 3. Key Points - 3. World Wildlife Day — 22 March is NOT correct. World Wildlife Day is 3 March, marking the day the CITES convention was signed in 1973. 22 March is World Water Day. - 1. International Ozone Day —
  9. Q70: Which of the following prepared the Annual Groundwater Quality Report 2024? 1. Central Pollution Control Board 2. Central Water Commission 3. Central Groundwater Board Select the correct answer from t
    Answer: B — Only 3
    The correct answer is Only 3. Key Points - The Annual Groundwater Quality Report 2024 was prepared by the Central Ground Water Board (CGWB), giving option (b). - The CGWB works under the Ministry of Jal Shakti and is the nodal agency for gr
  10. Q90: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (National Park / Wildlife Sanctuary) A. Dachigam B. Keoladeo C. Kanha D. Periyar List-II (State/Unio
    Answer: D — A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
    The correct answer is A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3. Key Points - A. Dachigam — 4. Jammu and Kashmir. The last refuge of the Hangul (Kashmir stag), the state animal. - B. Keoladeo — 2. Rajasthan. At Bharatpur; a UNESCO World Heritage Site and Ramsar s
  11. Q93: With reference to Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Income (MISHTI), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was initiated in 2019. 2. It aims to restore Mangrove
    Answer: A — Only 2
    The correct answer is Only 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is incorrect. MISHTI — Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Incomes — was announced in the Union Budget 2023-24, not in 2019. - Statement 2 is correct. Its purpose is
  12. Q122: The Appiko Movement is associated with which of the following Indian States? 1. Uttarakhand 2. Uttar Pradesh 3. Kerala 4. Karnataka Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: B — Only 4
    The correct answer is Only 4. Key Points - The Appiko Movement is associated with Karnataka, giving option (b). - It began in 1983 in the Salkani forest of Sirsi taluk, Uttara Kannada district, in the Western Ghats, and was led by Pandurang
  13. Q139: With reference to Lifestyle for the Environment (LiFE), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was launched in June 2022. 2. Its idea was proposed at the COP 25 in Madrid, Spain. Sele
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The global Mission LiFE — Lifestyle for Environment — was launched in June 2022, on World Environment Day (5 June), by the Prime Minister of India together with the UN Secre
  14. Q143: With reference to 'Operation Olivia', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an initiative of the Indian Coast Guard to protect Olive Ridley turtles along the coast of Odisha. 2. O
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. Operation Olivia is an annual initiative of the Indian Coast Guard to protect Olive Ridley turtles along the coast of Odisha. - Statement 2 is incorrect. The operation is co
  15. Q144: Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched? (Biosphere Reserve) — (State) 1. Nokrek — Manipur 2. Manas — Assam 3. Agasthyamalai — Kerala Select the correct answer from the code given be
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - 1. Nokrek — Manipur is NOT correctly matched. The Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is in Meghalaya, in the Garo Hills. - 2. Manas — Assam ✓. - 3. Agasthyamalai — Kerala ✓ (it extends into Tamil Nadu as wel
  16. Q145: With reference to Global Environment Facility, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was established in 1991. 2. Only the developed countries are donors to it. Select the correct ans
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established in 1991, on the eve of the Rio Earth Summit. - Statement 2 is incorrect. Donors are not limited to developed countries.

Uttar Pradesh — Solved Questions

  1. Q8: As per the India State of Forest Report 2023, which of the following districts in Uttar Pradesh had forest over more than 20% of their total area? 1. Bahraich 2. Chandauli 3. Shravasti Select the corr
    Answer: C — 2 and 3
    The correct answer is 2 and 3. Key Points - The question tests the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023, released by the Forest Survey of India (FSI), Dehradun. - As per the official answer key, the Uttar Pradesh districts with forest c
  2. Q32: Which of the following districts is/are part of the Devipatan Division in Uttar Pradesh? 1. Basti 2. Bahraich 3. Balrampur Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: C — Only 2 and 3
    The correct answer is Only 2 and 3. Key Points - The Devipatan Division of Uttar Pradesh, with its headquarters at Gonda, consists of four districts: Gonda, Bahraich, Balrampur and Shravasti. - 2. Bahraich ✓ and 3. Balrampur ✓ belong to it.
  3. Q34: With reference to 'Uttar Pradesh', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer of potato in the country. 2. Government of India has approved for establis
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of potato in India, contributing roughly a third of national output. The main belt runs through Agra, Firozabad, Kannauj, Farrukhabad,
  4. Q84: Which of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with only one other district of Uttar Pradesh? 1. Lalitpur 2. Saharanpur 3. Sonbhadra Select the correct answer from the code give
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Lalitpur is the district of Uttar Pradesh that shares a boundary with only one other district of the state — Jhansi. All its remaining boundaries are with Madhya Pradesh, giving option (d). - Sahar
  5. Q111: Which of the following Departments prepares the National Indicator Framework Progress Report related to Sustainable Development Goals in Uttar Pradesh? 1. Department of Finance 2. Department of Educat
    Answer: B — Only 3
    The correct answer is Only 3. Key Points - The National Indicator Framework Progress Report relating to the Sustainable Development Goals in Uttar Pradesh is prepared by the Department of Planning, giving option (b). - The Department of Pla
  6. Q128: As per the One District One Product (ODOP) scheme of Uttar Pradesh, Moonj products are associated with which of the following districts? 1. Amethi 2. Sultanpur 3. Sant Kabir Nagar Select the correct a
    Answer: D — 1 and 2
    The correct answer is 1 and 2. Key Points - Under Uttar Pradesh's One District One Product (ODOP) scheme, Moonj products are associated with 1. Amethi and 2. Sultanpur, giving option (d). - Moonj is a wild grass used to weave baskets, trays

Indian Polity — Solved Questions

  1. Q11: With reference to creation of new All India Service, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. In the national interest, the Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution for creation of new All India
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 312, a new All India Service can be created only if the Rajya Sabha first passes a resolution declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national inter
  2. Q18: Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (State) A. Maharashtra B. Karnataka C. Bihar D. Tamil Nadu List-II (Number of seats in Rajya Sabha)
    Answer: D — A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
    The correct answer is A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2. Key Points - A. Maharashtra — 3. 19 seats. - B. Karnataka — 4. 12 seats. - C. Bihar — 1. 16 seats. - D. Tamil Nadu — 2. 18 seats. - Rajya Sabha seats are allotted to states in rough proportion to po
  3. Q24: Which of the following pairs of Part of Indian Constitution and its subject is/are NOT correctly matched? (Part of the Constitution) — (Subject) 1. Part IV A — Fundamental Duties 2. Part VI — The Stat
    Answer: B — Only 3
    The correct answer is Only 3. Key Points - 3. Part XI — The Municipalities is NOT correctly matched. Part XI of the Constitution deals with Relations between the Union and the States (legislative and administrative relations, Articles 245-2
  4. Q33: Consider the formation of the following States of India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last. 1. Punjab 2. Arunachal Pradesh 3. Nagaland 4. Sikkim Sel
    Answer: C — 3, 1, 4, 2
    The correct answer is 3, 1, 4, 2. Key Points - 3. Nagaland — 1963. Created as the 16th state under the State of Nagaland Act, 1962. - 1. Punjab — 1966. Reorganised under the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966, which carved out Haryana and tran
  5. Q39: With reference to Municipalities, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The eligible age to be a member of municipality is 25 years. 2. One-third of the total number of seats to be fill
    Answer: C — Only 2
    The correct answer is Only 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is incorrect. The minimum age to become a member of a municipality is 21 years, not 25. This is laid down in Article 243V, which applies the same qualifications as for a state legislatu
  6. Q42: With reference to Public Accounts Committee, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Public Accounts Committee submits its report to the Lok Sabha. 2. Public Accounts Committee consists o
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) submits its report to the Lok Sabha (the Speaker). - Statement 2 is incorrect. The PAC has 22 members — 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from
  7. Q47: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Public Interest Litigation in India is essential for the rule of law. Reason (R): Public In
    Answer: D — Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Key Points - Assertion is true. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is essential for the rule of law, because it ensures that state action remains answe
  8. Q54: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): India has a Parliamentary system of Government. Reason (R): In India, the executive is resp
    Answer: D — Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Key Points - Assertion is true. India has adopted the parliamentary system of government, at both the Centre and in the states. - Reason is true. In
  9. Q56: Which among the following words were inserted in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitution Amendment? 1. Socialist 2. Secular 3. Sovereign 4. Republic Select the correct answer
    Answer: D — 1 and 2
    The correct answer is 1 and 2. Key Points - The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 — the "Mini Constitution" — inserted three words into the Preamble: Socialist, Secular and Integrity. - 1. Socialist ✓ and 2. Secular ✓ were i
  10. Q66: Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Lok Sabha) A. 11th Lok Sabha B. 12th Lok Sabha C. 14th Lok Sabha D. 17th Lok Sabha List-II (Lok Sa
    Answer: A — A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
    The correct answer is A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1. Key Points - A. 11th Lok Sabha (1996-98) — 2. P. A. Sangma. - B. 12th Lok Sabha (1998-99) — 4. G. M. C. Balyogi. - C. 14th Lok Sabha (2004-09) — 3. Somnath Chatterjee. - D. 17th Lok Sabha (2019-24)
  11. Q71: Who among the following were the members of the Fazal Ali Commission? 1. K. T. Shah 2. K. M. Panikkar 3. P. Sitaramaiah 4. H. N. Kunjaru Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: B — 2 and 4
    The correct answer is 2 and 4. Key Points - The States Reorganisation Commission, popularly called the Fazl Ali Commission, was appointed in 1953 and had exactly three members: - Justice Fazl Ali — Chairman - 2. K. M. Panikkar ✓ - 4. H. N.
  12. Q72: Consider the following and arrange them in the correct chronological order. 1. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation 2. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission 3. Jal Jeevan M
    Answer: A — 2, 4, 1, 3
    The correct answer is 2, 4, 1, 3. Key Points - 2. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) — 2005. - 4. National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy — 2007. - 1. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) —
  13. Q82: Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Committees of Constituent Assembly) A. Union Constitution Committee B. Rules of Procedure Committe
    Answer: C — A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
    The correct answer is A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2. Key Points - A. Union Constitution Committee — 4. Jawaharlal Nehru. - B. Rules of Procedure Committee — 1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad. - C. Drafting Committee — 3. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar. - D. Fundamental Righ
  14. Q85: With reference to Panchayati Raj Institutions in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Tenure of Panchayati Raj Institutions shall be of 5 years. 2. In Panchayati Raj Institution
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 243E, every Panchayat has a term of five years unless dissolved earlier, and fresh elections must be completed before the expiry of that term or within six mon
  15. Q89: Which of the following is/are a Financial Committee of Parliament in India? 1. Public Accounts Committee 2. Estimate Committee 3. Committee on Public Undertakings Select the correct answer from the co
    Answer: B — All 1, 2 and 3
    The correct answer is All 1, 2 and 3. Key Points - Parliament has three financial committees, and all three are listed: - 1. Public Accounts Committee ✓ - 2. Estimates Committee ✓ - 3. Committee on Public Undertakings ✓ - Hence option (b).
  16. Q99: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The concept of National Integration involves political, economic, social, cultural and psyc
    Answer: A — Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). Key Points - Assertion is true. National integration is a multi-dimensional concept covering political, economic, social, cultural and psycholog
  17. Q102: Which of the following languages is/are NOT included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution? 1. Nepali 2. Dogri 3. Bodo 4. Bhojpuri Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: B — Only 4
    The correct answer is Only 4. Key Points - 4. Bhojpuri is NOT in the Eighth Schedule. Despite a very large number of speakers and a long-standing demand for inclusion, Bhojpuri has not been added. Hence option (b). - 1. Nepali ✓, 2. Dogri ✓
  18. Q104: Consider the tenure of the following Presidents of India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last. 1. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy 2. K. R. Narayanan 3. A. P. J.
    Answer: A — 1, 4, 2, 3
    The correct answer is 1, 4, 2, 3. Key Points - 1. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy — 1977 to 1982. - 4. R. Venkataraman — 1987 to 1992. - 2. K. R. Narayanan — 1997 to 2002. - 3. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam — 2002 to 2007. - The chronological order is 1 → 4 →
  19. Q113: Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Schedule) A. 7th Schedule B. 8th Schedule C. 9th Schedule D. 10th Schedule List-II (Subject) 1. La
    Answer: B — A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
    The correct answer is A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2. Key Points - A. 7th Schedule — 3. Union, State and Concurrent lists. The division of legislative powers. - B. 8th Schedule — 1. Languages. The 22 recognised languages. - C. 9th Schedule — 4. Validat
  20. Q119: With reference to the 'Vice-President of India', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. The Vice-President is a membe
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 64, the Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. - Statement 2 is incorrect. The Vice-President is NOT a member of the Rajya Sabha, or of
  21. Q124: Consider the following Election Reforms in India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last. 1. Voters photo identity card 2. Electronic voting machine 3. V
    Answer: A — 2, 1, 3, 4
    The correct answer is 2, 1, 3, 4. Key Points - 2. Electronic voting machine — first used in 1982, at Paravur in Kerala. - 1. Voters photo identity card (EPIC) — introduced in 1993, under Chief Election Commissioner T. N. Seshan. - 3. Voter
  22. Q129: Which of the following Programmes/Schemes is/are NOT included in meeting the objectives of National Education Policy 2020? 1. ULLAS 2. DIKSHA 3. Bharat Nirman Programme Select the correct answer from
    Answer: B — Only 3
    The correct answer is Only 3. Key Points - 3. Bharat Nirman Programme is NOT part of NEP 2020's objectives. It was a rural infrastructure programme launched in 2005, covering irrigation, roads, housing, water supply, electrification and tel
  23. Q141: With reference to the 'Joint Sitting of Parliament', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Article 109 of the Constitution of India provides for the Joint Sitting of Parliament. 2. A Jo
    Answer: B — Neither 1 nor 2
    The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is incorrect. It is Article 108, not Article 109, that provides for a joint sitting of the two Houses. Article 109 deals with the special procedure for Money Bills — and precis
  24. Q146: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Directive Principles are important for economic, social and political functions in a Modern
    Answer: D — Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Key Points - Assertion is true. The Directive Principles of State Policy are important for the economic, social and political functioning of a modern

Art & Culture — Solved Questions

  1. Q12: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Disciple) A. Kabir B. Amir Khusrau C. Surdas D. Mardana List-II (Guru) 1. Guru Nanak Dev 2. Swami
    Answer: C — A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
    The correct answer is A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1. Key Points - A. Kabir — 2. Swami Ramananda. Kabir is traditionally regarded as the disciple of Ramananda, the Vaishnava saint who carried the Bhakti movement to north India. - B. Amir Khusrau — 3. N
  2. Q48: Which one of the following books is NOT written by Kalidas? 1. Meghaduta 2. Raghuvamsam 3. Shringar Shatak Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: B — Only 3
    The correct answer is Only 3. Key Points - 3. Shringar Shatak is NOT written by Kalidasa. It is one of the three Shatakas of Bhartrihari, giving option (b). - 1. Meghaduta ✓ — Kalidasa's celebrated lyric poem (khandakavya) of a yaksha sendi
  3. Q74: Arrange the following saints in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below. 1. Nanak 2. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu 3. Namdev 4. Kabir
    Answer: C — 3, 4, 1, 2
    The correct answer is 3, 4, 1, 2. Key Points - 3. Namdev — c. 1270-1350. A Marathi saint-poet of the Varkari tradition; the earliest of the four. - 4. Kabir — c. 1440-1518. The Nirguna saint of Varanasi. - 1. Guru Nanak — 1469-1539. Founder
  4. Q86: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Writer) A. Trivikram Bhatta B. Somdev C. Jaidev D. Kshemendra List-II (Book) 1. Gita Govinda 2. Br
    Answer: A — A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
    The correct answer is A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2. Key Points - A. Trivikram Bhatta — 3. Nal Champu. Also called Damayanti Katha, an early example of the champu style, which mixes prose and verse. - B. Somdev — 4. Katha Sarit Sagar. The great Sanskr
  5. Q148: With reference to Jnanpith Award, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The 58th Jnanpith Award was conferred upon Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya Ji. 2. The 1st Jnanpith Awa
    Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The 58th Jnanpith Award was conferred on the Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya. - Statement 2 is correct. The first Jnanpith Award was given in 1965, to the M

Economy — Solved Questions

  1. Q13: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Investment in human capital yields returns in the future. Reason (R): Education and health
    Answer: D — Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Key Points - Assertion is true. Investment in human capital — spending on education, training and health — yields returns in the future in the form o
  2. Q15: Which of the following is/are NOT a dimension of food security? 1. Availability 2. Accessibility 3. Affordability 4. Accountability Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: B — Only 4
    The correct answer is Only 4. Key Points - The recognised dimensions of food security are Availability, Accessibility (or Access), Affordability, Utilisation and Stability. - Accountability is NOT a dimension of food security — it belongs t
  3. Q19: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Poverty line differs across time and countries. Reason (R): The basic needs of people vary
    Answer: D — Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Key Points - Assertion is true. The poverty line is not a fixed universal figure — it differs across countries and changes over time within the same
  4. Q60: The Global Financial Stability Report is released by which among the following? 1. International Monetary Fund 2. World Economic Forum 3. World Bank Select the correct answer from the code given below
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - The Global Financial Stability Report (GFSR) is released by the International Monetary Fund (IMF), giving option (d). - It assesses the stability of global financial markets and emerging-market fin
  5. Q64: Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Finance Commission) A. Eleventh B. Twelfth C. Thirteenth D. Fourteenth List-II (Chairman) 1. Dr. C
    Answer: A — A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
    The correct answer is A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2. Key Points - A. Eleventh Finance Commission — 3. Prof. A. M. Khusro (report for 2000-2005). - B. Twelfth Finance Commission — 1. Dr. C. Rangarajan (2005-2010). - C. Thirteenth Finance Commission — 4
  6. Q65: Which among the following is/are NOT a social indicator of poverty? 1. Illiteracy 2. Safe drinking water 3. Job opportunities 4. Size of the house Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: B — Only 4
    The correct answer is Only 4. Key Points - Social indicators of poverty measure deprivation in access to basic services and capabilities — typically illiteracy, lack of safe drinking water, lack of access to healthcare and sanitation, and l
  7. Q76: With reference to 'Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was developed and introduced in 2010. 2. It measures extreme poverty and includes those liv
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) was developed and introduced in 2010 by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) together with the UNDP, and first
  8. Q83: Consider the following and arrange them in correct chronological order. 1. Jawahar Rojgar Yojana 2. Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas 3. Integrated Rural Development Programme 4. Nation
    Answer: D — 3, 4, 2, 1
    The correct answer is 3, 4, 2, 1. Key Points - 3. Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) — 1978-79. Aimed at providing income-generating assets to rural families below the poverty line. - 4. National Rural Employment Programme (NREP)
  9. Q101: Consider the following Committees relating to poverty and arrange their formation in correct chronological order. 1. Lakdawala Committee 2. Rangarajan Committee 3. Tendulkar Committee 4. Dandekar and
    Answer: D — 4, 1, 3, 2
    The correct answer is 4, 1, 3, 2. Key Points - 4. Dandekar and Rath Committee — 1971. The first systematic estimate, based on a calorie norm. - 1. Lakdawala Committee — 1993. Recommended state-specific poverty lines and separate rural and u
  10. Q118: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Food security is necessary even in surplus food production years. Reason (R): Starvation ca
    Answer: D — Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Key Points - Assertion is true. Food security is necessary even in years of surplus production — a national surplus does not guarantee that every hou
  11. Q120: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): India's success is critical for the global success of the Sustainable Development Goals. Re
    Answer: D — Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Key Points - Assertion is true. India's success is critical to whether the Sustainable Development Goals are achieved globally. - Reason is true. Ind
  12. Q123: Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana comes under which of the following? 1. Ministry of Corporate Affairs 2. Ministry of Rural Development 3. Ministry of Finance Select the correct answer from the code given b
    Answer: B — Only 3
    The correct answer is Only 3. Key Points - The Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) comes under the Ministry of Finance, giving option (b). - MUDRA — Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency — is a financial institution, so the scheme nat
  13. Q132: With reference to the 'Human Development Index', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The UNDP published its first Human Development Report in 1990, which had a Human Development Index
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The UNDP published its first Human Development Report in 1990, and it introduced the Human Development Index. - Statement 2 is incorrect. The team that developed the HDI was
  14. Q134: Consider the following and arrange them in correct chronological order. 1. Food for Work Programme 2. Community Development Programme 3. Training for Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM) 4. Drough
    Answer: B — 2, 4, 1, 3
    The correct answer is 2, 4, 1, 3. Key Points - 2. Community Development Programme — 1952. India's first major rural development initiative, launched on 2 October 1952. - 4. Drought Prone Area Programme (DPAP) — 1973. For ecological balance
  15. Q137: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Consumers can bargain below Maximum Retail Price (MRP). Reason (R): MRP is a price a seller
    Answer: C — (A) is true, but (R) is false
    The correct answer is (A) is true, but (R) is false. Key Points - Assertion is true. Consumers can bargain below the Maximum Retail Price. The MRP is a ceiling, and nothing prevents a seller from selling below it — discounts and sales are e
  16. Q140: With reference to World Bank and International Monetary Fund, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The World Bank and International Monetary Fund were set up together and are popularly
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. The World Bank and the International Monetary Fund were set up together at the Bretton Woods Conference of 1944 and are popularly called the "Bretton Woods Twins".
  17. Q142: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (Sustainable Development Goals) A. Goal 1 B. Goal 3 C. Goal 4 D. Goal 6 List-II (Area of Goal) 1. Cl
    Answer: B — A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
    The correct answer is A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1. Key Points - A. Goal 1 — 3. To end poverty in all its forms everywhere. - B. Goal 3 — 4. Good health and well-being. - C. Goal 4 — 2. Quality education. - D. Goal 6 — 1. Clean water and sanitation.
  18. Q147: Who among the following introduced the concept of entitlements in food security? 1. M. S. Swaminathan 2. Atul Pranay 3. Samali Srikant 4. Amartya Sen Select the correct answer from the code given belo
    Answer: B — Only 4
    The correct answer is Only 4. Key Points - Amartya Sen introduced the concept of entitlements in the analysis of food security and famine, giving option (b). - His argument is that famine results not from an absolute shortage of food but fr

General Science — Solved Questions

  1. Q16: With reference to 'Silver articles', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Silver articles turn black after some time when exposed to air. 2. It happens due to coating of silver sulphid
    Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. Silver articles lose their shine and turn black on prolonged exposure to air. This is tarnishing, a form of corrosion. - Statement 2 is correct. The black coating is s
  2. Q17: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Mission) A. Chandrayaan-3 B. Aditya L1 C. INSAT-3DS D. RLV-LEX-01 List-II (Date of Launch) 1. 02 S
    Answer: B — A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
    The correct answer is A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4. Key Points - A. Chandrayaan-3 — 3. 14 July 2023. Launched by LVM3-M4; the Vikram lander touched down near the lunar south pole on 23 August 2023, making India the fourth country to soft-land on the
  3. Q28: Which of the following two are the major constituent of Bio-gas? 1. Methane 2. Butane 3. Carbon dioxide 4. Carbon monoxide Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: A — 1 and 3
    The correct answer is 1 and 3. Key Points - Biogas is produced by the anaerobic decomposition of organic matter, and its two major constituents are: - Methane (CH₄) — roughly 50-75%, the component that burns and gives the fuel value. - Carb
  4. Q36: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Generally an alloy of lead and tin is used as a material of the fuse wire. Reason (R): Allo
    Answer: C — (A) is true, but (R) is false
    The correct answer is (A) is true, but (R) is false. Key Points - Assertion is true. A fuse wire is normally made of an alloy of lead and tin, chosen precisely because it melts easily. - Reason is false. The lead-tin alloy has a LOW melting
  5. Q43: Which of the following gasses is/are lighter than air? 1. Hydrogen chloride 2. Sulfur dioxide 3. Helium Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: B — Only 3
    The correct answer is Only 3. Key Points - A gas is lighter than air if its molar mass is less than about 29 g/mol, the average molar mass of air. - 3. Helium — molar mass 4. Far lighter than air. ✓ - 1. Hydrogen chloride — molar mass 36.5.
  6. Q53: Which of the following enzymes is/are released in stomach for protein digestion? 1. Chymotrypsin 2. Trypsin 3. Pepsin Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    Answer: B — Only 3
    The correct answer is Only 3. Key Points - 3. Pepsin ✓ is the protein-digesting enzyme released in the stomach. It is secreted by the chief (peptic) cells of the gastric glands in the inactive form pepsinogen, and is activated by hydrochlor
  7. Q69: With reference to 'Baking Soda', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is Sodium hydrogen carbonate. 2. It is used in fire extinguishers. Select the correct answer from the code give
    Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. Baking soda is sodium hydrogen carbonate, NaHCO₃ — also called sodium bicarbonate. - Statement 2 is correct. It is used in soda-acid fire extinguishers. On reacting wi
  8. Q73: With reference to 'earthworms', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Earthworms improves soil fertility and are known as farmer's friends. 2. Earthworm has two pair of hearts. Select t
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. Earthworms are rightly called the "farmer's friend". Their burrowing aerates the soil and improves drainage, and their castings enrich it with nitrogen, phosphorus
  9. Q77: Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched? (Acid) — (Acid found in) 1. Lactic acid — Curd 2. Tartaric acid — Grapes 3. Acetic acid — Potato Select the correct answer from the code give
    Answer: B — Only 3
    The correct answer is Only 3. Key Points - 3. Acetic acid — Potato is NOT correctly matched. Acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is found in vinegar, not potato. Dilute acetic acid of about 5-8% is vinegar. - 1. Lactic acid — Curd ✓. Produced when Lactob
  10. Q80: Which of the following statements with reference to 'blood' is/are correct? 1. Blood is composed of plasma and different types of cells. 2. The presence of haemoglobin makes blood appear red. Select t
    Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. Blood is a fluid connective tissue made of plasma (about 55%) and formed elements (about 45%) — erythrocytes (RBC), leucocytes (WBC) and thrombocytes (platelets). - St
  11. Q98: Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Dolphins and whales breathe through blowholes. 2. Earthworms breathe through their skin. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: C — Both 1 and 2
    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. Dolphins and whales are mammals, not fish. They breathe air through blowholes — nostrils that have migrated to the top of the head — and must surface to do so. - State
  12. Q100: Consider the following elements found in a typical 70 kg man and arrange them in correct increasing order. 1. Sodium 2. Potassium 3. Copper 4. Iron Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: C — 3, 4, 1, 2
    The correct answer is 3, 4, 1, 2. Key Points Arranging by quantity present in a typical 70 kg human body, in increasing order: - 3. Copper — roughly 0.1 g. A trace element, present in the smallest amount of the four. - 4. Iron — roughly 4 g
  13. Q103: With reference to 'acids and bases', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Acidic solutions have pH more than 7. 2. Basic solutions have pH less than 7. Select the correct answer from t
    Answer: B — Neither 1 nor 2
    The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is incorrect. Acidic solutions have pH LESS than 7, not more. - Statement 2 is incorrect. Basic (alkaline) solutions have pH MORE than 7, not less. - The two statements have si
  14. Q112: With reference to 'Isotopes', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Atoms with identical atomic numbers but different atomic mass numbers are known as isotopes. 2. Protium, Deuterium an
    Answer: D — Only 1
    The correct answer is Only 1. Key Points - Statement 1 is correct. Isotopes are atoms of the same element having the same atomic number (same number of protons) but different mass numbers (different numbers of neutrons). - Statement 2 is in
  15. Q117: Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations in decreasing order of their frequencies. 1. Gamma rays 2. Ultraviolet rays 3. Radio waves 4. X-rays Select the correct answer from the code given belo
    Answer: C — 1, 4, 2, 3
    The correct answer is 1, 4, 2, 3. Key Points Arranging by decreasing frequency: - 1. Gamma rays — the highest frequency and shortest wavelength. - 4. X-rays - 2. Ultraviolet rays - 3. Radio waves — the lowest frequency and longest wavelengt
  16. Q125: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Evaporation of sweat from human skin dissipates body heat. Reason (R): High humidity on a h
    Answer: A — Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). Key Points - Assertion is true. The evaporation of sweat from the skin absorbs latent heat of vaporisation from the body, and so cools it. - Rea
  17. Q131: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Voices of men and women are different. Reason (R): Length and thickness of vocal cords is d
    Answer: D — Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Key Points - Assertion is true. The voices of men and women differ noticeably in pitch. - Reason is true. The length and thickness of the vocal cords

International Relations — Solved Questions

  1. Q46: Which of the following countries is/are NOT a member of the Gulf Cooperation Council? 1. Bahrain 2. Iran 3. Iraq 4. Qatar Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: A — 2 and 3
    The correct answer is 2 and 3. Key Points - The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) has six members: Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, Kuwait, Qatar, Bahrain and Oman. - 2. Iran ✗ and 3. Iraq ✗ are NOT members — both were deliberately excluded
  2. Q91: Which of the following countries is/are NOT a member of the 'Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Co-operation (BIMSTEC)'? 1. Thailand 2. Nepal 3. Bhutan 4. Indonesia Sel
    Answer: B — Only 4
    The correct answer is Only 4. Key Points - BIMSTEC has seven members: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand. - 4. Indonesia ✗ is NOT a member, giving option (b). - 1. Thailand ✓, 2. Nepal ✓ and 3. Bhutan ✓ are al
  3. Q109: With reference to the 'International Solar Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is the first treaty-based inter-governmental organisation headquartered in India, with 38
    Answer: A — Only 2
    The correct answer is Only 2. Key Points - Statement 1 is incorrect as marked in the official key — the membership figure of 38 does not reflect the Alliance's strength, which has grown to about 100 signatory countries. The ISA is the first
  4. Q130: Iron Dome missile defence system belongs to which of the following countries? 1. France 2. United States of America 3. Israel Select the correct answer from the code given below:
    Answer: B — Only 3
    The correct answer is Only 3. Key Points - The Iron Dome missile defence system belongs to Israel, giving option (b). - Developed by Rafael Advanced Defense Systems and Israel Aerospace Industries, with United States funding and support, it

Frequently Asked Questions

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The UPPCS Prelims 2025 — General Studies Paper I has 150 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.
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The UPPCS Prelims 2025 — General Studies Paper I was held on 12 October 2025.
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