UPSC CSE Prelims 2025 General Studies Paper I

Economy — Solved Questions

1. Q1: With reference to investments, consider the following: I. Bonds II. Hedge Funds III. Stocks IV. Venture Capital How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
   Answer: B — Only two
   The correct answer is Only two. Key Points - only two of the four instruments (Hedge Funds and Venture Capital) are Alternative Investment Funds. - An Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) is a privately pooled investment vehicle that collects
2. Q2: Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India? I. Buying and selling Government bonds II. Buying and selling foreign currency III. Pension fund management IV. Lending
   Answer: D — I, II and V
   The correct answer is I, II and V. Key Points - As the central bank, the Reserve Bank of India earns income through its monetary operations, its management of the foreign exchange reserves, and currency issuance. - Explanation: Through Open
3. Q4: Consider the following statements: I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR). II. In India, a company
   Answer: B — II only
   The correct answer is II only. Key Points - only Statement II is correct. - Explanation: Statement II is correct because BRSR (Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report) disclosures are largely non-financial, covering Environmental,
4. Q5: Consider the following statements: Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax. Statement II: In Ind
   Answer: D — Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
   The correct answer is Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct. Key Points - Statement I is not correct, but Statement II is correct. - Why Statement I is wrong: Income from allied activities such as poultry farming, wool rear
5. Q6: Consider the following statements: I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member. II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified. III.
   Answer: C — I and III only
   The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Explanation: Statement I is correct — India joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) as a member in June 2023. - The MSP is a US-led grouping that aims to build resilient, diversified
6. Q7: Consider the following statements: Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders. Statement II
   Answer: A — Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
   The correct answer is Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I. Key Points - both Statement II and Statement III are correct, and both explain Statement I. - Explanation: Statement I is correct: b
7. Q8: Consider the following statements: I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom. II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in
   Answer: A — I and II only
   The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Explanation: Statement I is correct — India accounts for a very large share of global equity option contracts by volume, on some measures around 78-80% of all equity options traded worldwide
8. Q10: Consider the following statements: I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government. II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts. III. Interest rec
   Answer: A — I and II only
   The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Government receipts are classified as revenue receipts (which neither create a liability nor reduce assets) and capital receipts (which either create a liability or reduce assets). - Explana
9. Q61: Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of
   Answer: D — I, II and III
   The correct answer is I, II and III. Key Points - Revenue deficit = Revenue Expenditure − Revenue Receipts = 80,000 − 60,000 = ₹20,000 crores (I correct). - Fiscal deficit = Total borrowings = ₹10,000 crores (II correct). - Primary deficit
10. Q63: Consider the following statements: Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter. Statem
    Answer: D — Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
    The correct answer is Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct. Key Points - The United States is the world's largest ethanol producer (~55% of global output), followed by Brazil (~27%) — so Statement I claiming Brazil produce
11. Q65: A country's fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross
    Answer: A — ₹48,500 crores
    The correct answer is ₹48,500 crores. Key Points - Primary deficit = Fiscal deficit − Interest payments. - However, the question asks for GROSS primary deficit given that the country is also receiving non-debt creating capital receipts (₹10
12. Q66: Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct? I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 20
    Answer: C — I, III and IV
    The correct answer is I, III and IV. Key Points - The 15th Finance Commission recommended 41% (not 45%) devolution of net Union tax proceeds to States — making Statement II incorrect. - Statements I (₹4,800 crore education grants 2022-26),
13. Q67: Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD): I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries. II. It works single-ha
    Answer: C — I and III only
    The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - IBRD (World Bank's lending arm) provides loans, guarantees, and advisory services to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries — Statement I correct. - IBRD does not work single-h
14. Q68: Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT: I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments. II. In RTGS, the customer
    Answer: A — I only
    The correct answer is I only. Key Points - RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) settles transactions on a real-time, one-by-one basis, while NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) settles in batches every half hour — Statement I correct. -
15. Q69: Consider the following countries: I. United Arab Emirates II. France III. Germany IV. Singapore V. Bangladesh How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international mercha
    Answer: B — Only three
    The correct answer is Only three. Key Points - As of 2024-25, UPI is accepted for international merchant payments (point-of-sale) in several countries. - From the list: UAE (I) — yes; France (II) — yes; Germany (III) — not yet fully launche
16. Q70: Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana': I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector. II. The Ministry of New and Renewable
    Answer: D — I, II and III
    The correct answer is I, II and III. Key Points - PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana aims to install 1 crore rooftop solar panels in the residential sector (I correct). - The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) leads training at grassr

Indian Polity — Solved Questions

1. Q3: With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information: (I) Directorate of Enforcement — Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 — works under Internal Security
   Answer: A — Only one
   The correct answer is Only one. Key Points - only one row is correctly matched. - Explanation: Row II is the only correct match — the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) enforces the Customs Act, 1962, and works under the Department o
2. Q51: With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into eff
   Answer: C — I and III only
   The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - An Ordinance has the same force and effect as a law passed by Parliament and can amend an existing Central Act (Statement I correct). - An Ordinance cannot abridge Fundamental Rights — cour
3. Q52: Consider the following pairs: State — Description (I) Arunachal Pradesh — The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks (II) Nagaland — The State came into existence on the b
   Answer: C — All the three
   The correct answer is All the three. Key Points - Arunachal Pradesh: Itanagar (capital named after the ancient Ita fort) and has two National Parks — Namdapha and Mouling (I correct). - Nagaland: established by the 13th Constitutional Amend
4. Q53: With reference to India, consider the following: I. The Inter-State Council II. The National Security Council III. Zonal Councils How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Co
   Answer: A — Only one
   The correct answer is Only one. Key Points - Of the three bodies: the Inter-State Council is established under Article 263 of the Constitution (constitutional provision — YES). - The National Security Council is an executive body created by
5. Q54: Consider the following statements: I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion. II. The President of India can, of h
   Answer: A — I only
   The correct answer is I only. Key Points - Article 163(1) of the Constitution explicitly states that the Governor shall act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers EXCEPT in so far as he is "required by or under this Constitu
6. Q55: Consider the following pairs: Provision in the Constitution of India — Stated under (I) Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State — The Directive Principles of the
   Answer: C — All the three
   The correct answer is All the three. Key Points - All three pairs are correctly matched: Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in public services is a Directive Principle under Article 50 (I correct). - Valuing and preserving rich heri
7. Q56: Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule — I. the State Government loses its executi
   Answer: D — Neither I nor II
   The correct answer is Neither I nor II. Key Points - Under the Fifth Schedule, declaring an area as Scheduled Area does NOT remove the State Government's executive power — the State retains executive authority (Statement I incorrect). - The
8. Q57: With reference to India, consider the following pairs: Organization — Union Ministry (I) The National Automotive Board — Ministry of Commerce and Industry (II) The Coir Board — Ministry of Heavy Indus
   Answer: D — None
   The correct answer is None. Key Points - The National Automotive Board is under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not Commerce (I incorrect). - The Coir Board is under the Ministry of MSME (Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises), not Heavy In
9. Q58: Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India: I. List I — Union List, in the Seventh Schedule II. Extent of the executive power of a State III. Conditions of the Governor's office F
   Answer: A — I and II only
   The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Under Article 368(2), constitutional amendments affecting federal structure require ratification by at least half the state legislatures. - Changes to the Seventh Schedule (including List I
10. Q59: With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her o
    Answer: D — I, II and III
    The correct answer is I, II and III. Key Points - Article 361 provides immunity to the President and Governor from court proceedings for official acts — Statement I correct. - Article 361(2) prohibits criminal proceedings against the Govern
11. Q60: Consider the following activities: I. Production of crude oil II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products IV. Production of natural gas How many o
    Answer: B — Only two
    The correct answer is Only two. Key Points - PNGRB (Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board) regulates the midstream and downstream petroleum sector. - Specifically, it regulates refining, storage, and distribution of petroleum (II) and
12. Q86: Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India: I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review. II. The Presiden
    Answer: A — I only
    The correct answer is I only. Key Points - The Supreme Court has held that the President's pardoning power under Article 72 can be subject to limited judicial review — courts can examine if the power was exercised arbitrarily, mala fide, or
13. Q87: Consider the following statements: I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People a
    Answer: C — I and III only
    The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Article 94 states the Speaker continues in office until the first meeting of the newly constituted Lok Sabha after dissolution — Statement I correct. - The Constitution does NOT mandate a S
14. Q88: Consider the following statements: I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision
    Answer: D — Neither I nor II
    The correct answer is Neither I nor II. Key Points - Under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), questions of disqualification are decided by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (or Chairman of Rajya Sabha) — NOT by the President based on the C
15. Q89: Consider the following statements: Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals
    Answer: D — Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
    The correct answer is Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct. Key Points - Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, State Governments have power to make rules for extraction and grant of leases for MINO
16. Q91: Consider the following statements: I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the a
    Answer: D — I, II and III
    The correct answer is I, II and III. Key Points - The question asks which statements are NOT correct. - Panchayats at the intermediate level are not mandatory in all States — smaller States may not have an intermediate tier (Statement I — N
17. Q93: Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize'? I. The President of India II. The Prime Minister of India III. The Chief Justice of India IV. The Lea
    Answer: C — II, III and IV
    The correct answer is II, III and IV. Key Points - The Gandhi Peace Prize Jury consists of: the Prime Minister of India (Chairperson), the Chief Justice of India, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and one eminent person. - The
18. Q98: Consider the following statements about Lokpal: I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India. II. The Chairperson or a Member
    Answer: A — III only
    The correct answer is III only. Key Points - The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 states: The Chairperson or a Member shall not be less than 45 years of age on the date of assuming office — Statement III is correct. - Statement I is incorrec

Environment & Ecology — Solved Questions

1. Q9: Consider the following statements: Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases. Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs. Statement III: Ci
   Answer: A — Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
   The correct answer is Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I. Key Points - both Statement II and Statement III are correct, and both explain Statement I. - A circular economy replaces the linear
2. Q30: Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission: I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal far
   Answer: C — Both I and II
   The correct answer is Both I and II. Key Points - The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM), launched in 2014, specifically focuses on small and marginal farmers who own the majority of low-producing indigenous cattle (Statement I correct). - Its o
3. Q31: Consider the following statements: Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions. Statement II: Silica-bearing cl
   Answer: B — Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
   The correct answer is Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I. Key Points - Cement accounts for approximately 8% of global CO2 emissions, well above 5% — Statement I is correct. - Cement pro
4. Q32: Consider the following statements: Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and Health'. Statement II: The CO
   Answer: C — Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
   The correct answer is Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I. Key Points - India indeed did not sign the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health — Statement I is correct. - However, the COP28 Climate
5. Q33: Consider the following statements: Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis. Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejectio
   Answer: B — Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
   The correct answer is Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I. Key Points - Scientific studies confirm Earth's rotational axis is shifting due to mass redistribution — Statement I is correct
6. Q34: Consider the following statements: Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change. Statemen
   Answer: A — Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
   The correct answer is Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I. Key Points - Article 6 of the Paris Agreement deals with voluntary cooperative approaches among countries to meet climate targets. -
7. Q35: Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?
   Answer: A — The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
   The correct answer is The Asian Development Bank (ADB). Key Points - The Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the "Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific" to catalyse private finance for nature-based solutions in t
8. Q36: With reference to 'Direct Air Capture', an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration. II. It can be a valuable approach
   Answer: C — I, II and III
   The correct answer is I, II and III. Key Points - Direct Air Capture (DAC) extracts CO2 directly from ambient air. - The captured CO2 can be: (I) stored underground for carbon sequestration; (II) used as feedstock in chemical synthesis incl
9. Q37: Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements: I. It is an omnivorous crustacean. II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas. III. In its
   Answer: D — II and III
   The correct answer is II and III. Key Points - The Gooty/Peacock tarantula (Poecilotheria metallica) is an arachnid (spider), not a crustacean, and is carnivorous — so Statement I is entirely wrong. - It is endemic to a small forest patch n
10. Q38: Consider the following statements: I. Carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO2/capita. II. In terms of CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific reg
    Answer: C — II and III only
    The correct answer is II and III only. Key Points - India's per-capita CO2 emissions from fuel combustion are approximately 1.9–2.0 tonnes/capita — well above 0.5 t, so Statement I is incorrect. - In the Asia-Pacific region, China ranks fir
11. Q39: Consider the following pairs: Plant — Description (I) Cassava — Woody shrub (II) Ginger — Herb with pseudostem (III) Malabar spinach — Herbaceous climber (IV) Mint — Annual shrub (V) Papaya — Woody sh
    Answer: B — Only three
    The correct answer is Only three. Key Points - Cassava (Manihot esculenta) is a woody shrub (I — correct). - Ginger has a rhizome and a pseudostem similar to banana (II — correct). - Malabar spinach (Basella alba) is a herbaceous climber (I
12. Q40: With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements: I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans. II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce ab
    Answer: B — II only
    The correct answer is II only. Key Points - Rain forests and oceans both produce oxygen, but marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria generate approximately 50% of Earth's oxygen — more than rainforests, so Statement I is incorrect.
13. Q64: The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-
    Answer: C — Both I and II
    The correct answer is Both I and II. Key Points - A wet-bulb temperature of 35°C is the theoretical maximum at which a healthy adult can survive outdoors, even in shade with maximum sweating, as the body can no longer shed heat through pers
14. Q90: Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
    Answer: A — The European Union
    The correct answer is The European Union. Key Points - The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) was enacted by the European Union in 2024 — the first law of its kind to legally mandate the restoration of degraded ecosystems across EU member states.

History — Solved Questions

1. Q11: Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy: I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East. II. He desired his countrymen to accept the ra
   Answer: C — Both I and II
   The correct answer is Both I and II. Key Points - both I and II are correct. - Explanation: Statement I is correct: Raja Ram Mohan Roy held deep respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East. - A scholar of Sanskrit, Persian
2. Q12: Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme: I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth II. Observance of strict non-violence III. Retention of titles and honours without
   Answer: C — Only three
   The correct answer is Only three. Key Points - Explanation: The Non-Cooperation Programme adopted at the Nagpur session in December 1920 included the boycott of law-courts and of foreign cloth (I), the observance of strict non-violence (II)
3. Q13: The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was
   Answer: B — a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
   The correct answer is a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes. Key Points - a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes. - Explanation: The Araghatta was an ancient Indian irrigation dev
4. Q14: Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara'?
   Answer: A — Mahendravarman I
   The correct answer is Mahendravarman I. Key Points - Explanation: Mahendravarman I (c. 600-630 CE), the Pallava ruler of Kanchipuram, bore many titles, among them Mattavilasa, Vichitrachitta (the curious-minded) and Gunabhara. - He was hims
5. Q15: Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of
   Answer: B — Chandragupta II
   The correct answer is Chandragupta II. Key Points - Explanation: Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese Buddhist pilgrim, travelled to India roughly between 399 and 414 CE, during the reign of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) of the Gupta dynasty. - H
6. Q16: Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?
   Answer: C — Rajendra I (Chola)
   The correct answer is Rajendra I (Chola). Key Points - Rajendra I of the Chola dynasty launched the famous naval expedition (~1025 CE) against the Srivijaya Empire, which controlled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java, and nearby islands. -
7. Q17: With reference to ancient India (600-322 BC), consider the following pairs: Territorial region — River flowing in the region (I) Asmaka — Godavari (II) Kamboja — Vipas (III) Avanti — Mahanadi (IV) Kos
   Answer: B — Only two
   The correct answer is Only two. Key Points - Asmaka (near Godavari, Deccan) and Kosala (Sarayu river, modern UP/Ayodhya) are correctly paired. - Kamboja was a north-western janapada near the Hindukush/Kabul river region, not the Vipas (Beas
8. Q18: The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in
   Answer: D — Lahore
   The correct answer is Lahore. Key Points - Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar established the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore in 1901 to provide systematic, institutional training in Hindustani classical music. - He later opened branch
9. Q19: Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the
   Answer: B — district-level administration
   The correct answer is district-level administration. Key Points - Ashokan edicts identify Pradeshika (equivalent to a district magistrate), Rajuka (officer dealing with land records and justice at the village/district level), and Yukta (cle
10. Q20: Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement: I. The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective. II. It was t
    Answer: C — Both I and II
    The correct answer is Both I and II. Key Points - At the Nagpur Congress (1920) which launched the Non-Cooperation Movement: Statement I is correct — Congress adopted the goal of "Swaraj by legitimate and peaceful means." Statemen
11. Q71: "Sedition has become my religion" was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of
    Answer: B — publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
    The correct answer is publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi. Key Points - "Sedition has become my religion" was Gandhi's famous statement made on 5 April 1930 at Dandi, when he picked up salt from the seashore and publicly violated
12. Q72: The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of
    Answer: C — bronze
    The correct answer is bronze. Key Points - The "Dancing Girl" figurine discovered at Mohenjo-daro (Indus Valley Civilisation, c. 2500 BCE) is made of bronze (copper-tin alloy), using the lost-wax (cire perdue) casting technique. -
13. Q73: Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?
    Answer: B — Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
    The correct answer is Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant. Key Points - After the Chauri Chaura incident (February 1922), about 172 people were arrested and tried for the killing of policemen. - Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant Malav
14. Q74: Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of 'Harijans' in
    Answer: A — The Poona Pact
    The correct answer is The Poona Pact. Key Points - The Poona Pact (September 1932) was an agreement between Gandhi and Ambedkar on reserved seats for depressed classes within a joint electorate, avoiding separate electorates. - Following th
15. Q75: Consider the following fruits: I. Papaya II. Pineapple III. Guava How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
    Answer: C — All the three
    The correct answer is All the three. Key Points - Papaya (Carica papaya), pineapple (Ananas comosus), and guava (Psidium guajava) all originated in the Americas (Central/South America). - Portuguese traders and explorers introduced all thre
16. Q78: Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'?
    Answer: A — 'Periyar' E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
    The correct answer is 'Periyar' E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker. Key Points - The Self-Respect Movement was founded by Periyar E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker in 1925 in Tamil Nadu. - It challenged Brahminical social order, caste hierarchy, and religious su

Current Affairs — Solved Questions

1. Q21: Consider the following countries: I. Austria II. Bulgaria III. Croatia IV. Serbia V. Sweden VI. North Macedonia How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?
   Answer: B — Only four
   The correct answer is Only four. Key Points - From the list, NATO members are: Bulgaria (2004), Croatia (2009), Sweden (2024), and North Macedonia (2020) — four countries. - Austria is neutral and not a NATO member. - Serbia is not a NATO m
2. Q62: India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect
   Answer: A — India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
   The correct answer is India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran. Key Points - The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multimodal (ship-rail-road) route connecting India to Russia and Europe via Iran. - India is a foundi
3. Q92: Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC: I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025. II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka
   Answer: D — I only
   The correct answer is I only. Key Points - BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) has 7 member States — Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal, and Bhutan — Statement I corre
4. Q95: Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025: I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit
   Answer: A — I only
   The correct answer is I only. Key Points - The AI Action Summit held in Paris (Grand Palais) in February 2025 was co-hosted by France and India — Statement I is correct; it built on the Bletchley Park AI Safety Summit (UK, 2023) and the Seo
5. Q96: Consider the following pairs: (I) International Year of the Woman Farmer — 2026 (II) International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism — 2027 (III) International Year of Peace and Trust — 2025 (
   Answer: D — All the four
   The correct answer is All the four. Key Points - All four UN International Years are correctly paired: 2026 — International Year of the Woman Farmer; 2027 — International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism; 2025 — International Year
6. Q97: Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS: I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan. II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS. III. The theme of the 16t
   Answer: A — I and II
   The correct answer is I and II. Key Points - The 16th BRICS Summit was held in Kazan, Russia under Russia's chairmanship in October 2024 — Statement I correct. - Indonesia was invited as a "partner country," not a full member — St
7. Q99: Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup: I. The event was held in Delhi, India. II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Cha
   Answer: A — I only
   The correct answer is I only. Key Points - The first Kho Kho World Cup was held in New Delhi, India in January 2025 — Statement I is correct. - Both the Indian men's and women's teams won their respective finals. - However, the specific mat
8. Q100: Consider the following statements: I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.
   Answer: B — II only
   The correct answer is II only. Key Points - Statement I is incorrect on two counts: Gukesh Dommaraju won the individual World Chess Championship 2024 (not the Chess Olympiad), and his opponent was Ding Liren of China, not Russian Ian Nepomn

Geography — Solved Questions

1. Q22: Consider the following countries: I. Bolivia II. Brazil III. Colombia IV. Ecuador V. Paraguay VI. Venezuela Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
   Answer: C — Only four
   The correct answer is Only four. Key Points - The Andes mountain range runs along the western coast of South America. - It passes through Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile, and Argentina. - From the list: Bolivia (I) — yes;
2. Q23: Consider the following water bodies: I. Lake Tanganyika II. Lake Tonlé Sap III. Patos Lagoon Through how many of them does the equator pass?
   Answer: D — None
   The correct answer is None. Key Points - Lake Tanganyika lies between 3°S and 8°S — entirely south of the equator, which does not pass through it. - Lake Tonlé Sap is in Cambodia at about 12°N — the equator does not pass through it. - Patos
3. Q24: Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23: I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world. II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in In
   Answer: D — I, II and III
   The correct answer is I, II and III. Key Points - India is the world's largest producer (accounting for ~75% of global output) and exporter of turmeric. - More than 30 (actually over 50) varieties of turmeric are grown in India. - Telangana
4. Q25: Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift? I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa. II. The gold deposits of Ghana a
   Answer: C — I, II and III
   The correct answer is I, II and III. Key Points - All three are classical evidences of continental drift: the geological rock belt continuity between Brazil and West Africa (I), the hypothesis that Ghana's gold deposits share origin with th
5. Q26: Consider the following statements: Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions. Statement II: Subtropica
   Answer: C — Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
   The correct answer is Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct. Key Points - Subtropical and temperate regions have more industrial activity, agricultural land, and dry winds — hence more dust in the atmosphere than equatorial
6. Q27: Consider the following statements: Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans. Statement
   Answer: A — Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
   The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I. Key Points - In January (Northern Hemisphere winter), land masses cool faster than oceans. - Colder land pulls isotherms equatorward,
7. Q28: Consider the following statements: Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable roc
   Answer: B — Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
   The correct answer is Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I. Key Points - Chalk is both porous and permeable — water can pass through it (Statement II correctly explains Statement I for ch
8. Q29: Consider the following statements: I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface. II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintain
   Answer: C — I, II and III
   The correct answer is I, II and III. Key Points - Without the atmosphere's greenhouse effect, Earth's average surface temperature would be well below freezing (around -18°C) — Statement I correct. - The atmosphere absorbs and re-radiates lo
9. Q76: Consider the following countries: I. United Kingdom II. Denmark III. New Zealand IV. Australia V. Brazil How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
   Answer: B — Only four
   The correct answer is Only four. Key Points - Countries with more than four time zones (including overseas territories): UK has ~12 zones (with its overseas territories); Denmark has ~6 zones (including Greenland's 4 zones + Faroe Islands);
10. Q77: Consider the following statements: I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would b
    Answer: A — I only
    The correct answer is I only. Key Points - Anadyr (Russia) and Nome (Alaska, USA) are separated by the International Date Line. - Anadyr is on the Russian (western) side at UTC+12, while Nome is on the Alaskan (eastern) side at UTC-9. They
11. Q79: Consider the following pairs: Country — Resource-rich in (I) Botswana — Diamond (II) Chile — Lithium (III) Indonesia — Nickel In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
    Answer: C — All the three
    The correct answer is All the three. Key Points - All three pairs are correctly matched: Botswana is the world's second-largest diamond producer and the largest by value (Jwaneng and Orapa mines); Chile has the world's largest lithium reser
12. Q80: Consider the following pairs: Region — Country (I) Mallorca — Italy (II) Normandy — Spain (III) Sardinia — France In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
    Answer: D — None
    The correct answer is None. Key Points - All three region-country pairs are incorrect: Mallorca is a Spanish island (Balearic Islands), not Italian (I wrong). - Normandy is a region in northern France, not Spain (II wrong). - Sardinia is an

Science & Technology — Solved Questions

1. Q41: Consider the following types of vehicles: I. Full battery electric vehicles II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles How many of the above are considered as alternative
   Answer: C — All the three
   The correct answer is All the three. Key Points - Alternative powertrain vehicles are those using an energy source other than conventional internal combustion engines. - Full battery electric vehicles (BEVs), hydrogen fuel cell vehicles (FC
2. Q42: With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements: I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering. III. All types of U
   Answer: D — None
   The correct answer is None. Key Points - Not all UAVs can do vertical landing — fixed-wing UAVs require runway or catapult/arrested recovery (Statement I incorrect). - Not all UAVs can hover — fixed-wing drones cannot hover in place (Statem
3. Q43: In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements: I. Cobalt II. Graphite III. Lithium IV. Nickel How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
   Answer: C — Only three
   The correct answer is Only three. Key Points - EV battery cathodes typically contain Cobalt (NMC/NCA chemistry), Lithium (as lithium oxide/phosphate compounds), and Nickel (NMC/NCA chemistry). - Graphite is used in the ANODE, not the cathod
4. Q44: Consider the following: I. Cigarette butts II. Eyeglass lenses III. Car tyres How many of them contain plastic?
   Answer: C — All the three
   The correct answer is All the three. Key Points - Cigarette butts contain cellulose acetate fibres — a form of plastic that persists in the environment for decades. - Most eyeglass lenses today are made of polycarbonate or other optical-gra
5. Q45: Consider the following substances: I. Ethanol II. Nitroglycerine III. Urea Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
   Answer: B — Only two
   The correct answer is Only two. Key Points - Coal gasification produces syngas (CO + H2). - Ethanol can be produced from syngas via catalytic conversion or fermentation of CO. - Urea is produced by first converting syngas to ammonia (Haber
6. Q46: What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?
   Answer: B — These are explosives in military weapons
   The correct answer is These are explosives in military weapons. Key Points - CL-20 (HNIW — hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane), HMX (cyclotetramethylene-tetranitramine/octogen), and LLM-105 are all high-energy explosive compounds used in militar
7. Q47: Consider the following statements: I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing. II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS). III. Deep learning is a s
   Answer: C — I and III only
   The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Majorana 1 is a topological qubit chip developed by Microsoft (not Amazon) for quantum computing — so Statement I is correct but Statement II (attributing it to AWS) is incorrect. - Deep le
8. Q48: With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements: I. They are man-made proteins. II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bi
   Answer: D — I, II and III
   The correct answer is I, II and III. Key Points - Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are laboratory-engineered proteins (man-made) — Statement I correct. - They bind to specific antigens and can stimulate or modulate immune responses — Statement
9. Q49: Consider the following statements: I. No virus can survive in ocean waters. II. No virus can infect bacteria. III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells. How many of
   Answer: D — None
   The correct answer is None. Key Points - Viruses can and do survive in ocean waters — marine viruses are among the most abundant entities on Earth (Statement I wrong). - Bacteriophages are viruses that specifically infect bacteria and are e
10. Q50: Consider the following statements: Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries. Stat
    Answer: A — Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    The correct answer is Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I. Key Points - Activated carbon's large surface area allows it to adsorb a wide range of organic and inorganic pollutants including he
11. Q81: Consider the following statements: Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors. Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosp
    Answer: A — Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
    The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I. Key Points - Rare earth elements like europium, terbium, and yttrium are used in phosphors — materials that emit light when excited b
12. Q82: Consider the following statements: I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a 'future ready' railway system by 2028. II. 'Kavach' is an Automatic Train Protection system d
    Answer: A — I and II only
    The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - The question asks which statements are NOT correct. - The National Rail Plan (NRP) targets a "future ready" railway system by 2030, not 2028 — Statement I is NOT correct. - Kavach
13. Q83: Consider the following space missions: I. Axiom-4 II. SpaDeX III. Gaganyaan How many of the space missions given above encourage and support microgravity research?
    Answer: B — Only two
    The correct answer is Only two. Key Points - Axiom-4 is a commercial ISS mission (space station) that includes microgravity science experiments — YES. - SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) is primarily an ISRO technology demonstration for doc
14. Q84: With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs: Aircraft type — Description (I) Dornier-228 — Maritime patrol aircraft (II) IL-76 — Supersonic combat aircraft (III) C-17 Globemaster I
    Answer: B — Only two
    The correct answer is Only two. Key Points - Dornier 228 is used by the Indian Coast Guard and Navy for maritime surveillance and patrol — correctly described as a maritime patrol aircraft (I correct). - IL-76 is a Soviet/Russian heavy stra
15. Q85: Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of
    Answer: A — silver iodide and potassium iodide
    The correct answer is silver iodide and potassium iodide. Key Points - Cloud seeding for artificial rainfall (and to reduce air pollution by washing it out) uses silver iodide (AgI) as the primary nucleating agent because its crystal struct
16. Q94: GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN? I. It is designed t
    Answer: D — I and II only
    The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - GAGAN (GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) is a Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) developed jointly by ISRO and Airports Authority of India. - It provides additional accuracy, avail

Frequently Asked Questions

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The Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2025 — General Studies Paper I has 100 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

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The Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2025 — General Studies Paper I was held on 25 May 2025.

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