JKSSB Sub Inspector (Executive) 2017 — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

General Knowledge & Current Affairs — Solved Questions

1. Q1: In the context of computing software, which of the following is not an operating system?
   Answer: D — Microsoft Office
   The correct answer is Microsoft Office. Key Points - An operating system (OS) manages computer hardware and software. - Android, iOS, and Windows are all operating systems. - Microsoft Office is a productivity application suite (Word, Excel
2. Q2: Consider the following statements about Particulate Matter (PM): (i) Mixture of solid particles and liquid droplets found in the air. (ii) Dust from construction sites and unpaved roads is a major sou
   Answer: D — (i), (ii) and (iii)
   The correct answer is (i), (ii) and (iii). Key Points - All three statements about Particulate Matter (PM) are correct. - PM is a mixture of solid particles and liquid droplets. - Construction sites and unpaved roads are major sources of PM
3. Q3: When is the World Environment Day observed?
   Answer: B — 5th June
   The correct answer is 5th June. Key Points - World Environment Day is observed every year on 5th June. - It was established by the UN in 1972 following the Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment. - The day promotes global awareness a
4. Q4: The Paris Agreement on climate change seeks to
   Answer: C — Keep the increase in global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels
   The correct answer is Keep the increase in global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels. Key Points - The Paris Agreement (COP21, December 2015) aims to limit the rise in global average temperature to well below
5. Q10: The McMahon Line is mentioned in the context of relations between India and
   Answer: D — China
   The correct answer is China. Key Points - The McMahon Line is a disputed boundary between India and China in the eastern Himalayas. - It was agreed upon in the 1914 Simla Convention between British India and Tibet. - China does not recogniz
6. Q18: The only Wild Ass sanctuary in India can be found at
   Answer: C — Rann of Kutch
   The correct answer is Rann of Kutch. Key Points - The Wild Ass Sanctuary in the Rann of Kutch, Gujarat, is the only natural habitat of the Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur), locally called Ghudkhur. - Established in 1972, it is the worl
7. Q19: Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is aimed at
   Answer: B — Providing LPG connections to all BPL households
   The correct answer is Providing LPG connections to all BPL households. Key Points - PM Ujjwala Yojana was launched in May 2016 to provide free LPG connections to women from Below Poverty Line (BPL) households. - It aimed to replace traditio
8. Q20: Apart from Costa Rica, the Olive Ridley turtles also nest along the coast of one of the states of the country which has recently issued a ban on fishing for six months to protect this endangered speci
   Answer: C — Odisha
   The correct answer is Odisha. Key Points - Odisha (specifically the Gahirmatha Beach and Rushikulya coast) is the largest nesting site for Olive Ridley turtles in the world, apart from Costa Rica. - The state issues fishing bans during the
9. Q31: In which state is the Manas National Park located?
   Answer: A — Assam
   The correct answer is Assam. Key Points - Manas National Park and Tiger Reserve is located in Assam, at the foothills of the Himalayas, on the India-Bhutan border. - It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and a Project Tiger Reserve. - It is ho
10. Q37: The SAARC Secretariat is located at:
    Answer: A — Kathmandu
    The correct answer is Kathmandu. Key Points - The SAARC Secretariat is headquartered in Kathmandu, Nepal. Established in 1985, SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) has 8 member states: India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal,
11. Q38: Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana has been launched for:
    Answer: C — Promoting financial inclusion in the country
    The correct answer is Promoting financial inclusion in the country. Key Points - PM Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), launched on 28 August 2014, is the world's largest financial inclusion program. - It provides universal access to banking services,
12. Q42: The area known as "Golan Heights" sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to:
    Answer: A — Middle East
    The correct answer is Middle East. Key Points - The Golan Heights is a strategic rocky plateau in the Middle East, captured by Israel from Syria during the 1967 Six-Day War. - It remains a disputed territory. - In 2019, the US recognized Is
13. Q43: The Government of India has established the NITI Aayog to replace the:
    Answer: B — Planning Commission
    The correct answer is Planning Commission. Key Points - NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was established on 1 January 2015 to replace the Planning Commission (set up in 1950). - Unlike the Planning Commission, NITI A
14. Q47: Which one of the following countries is known as the "Land of the Thousand Lakes"?
    Answer: B — Finland
    The correct answer is Finland. Key Points - Finland is known as the "Land of a Thousand Lakes" (actually over 188,000 lakes), making up about 10% of its total area. Its capital is Helsinki. - The Netherlands is known as the "
15. Q49: The Central Potato Research Institute is located at
    Answer: B — Shimla
    The correct answer is Shimla. Key Points - The Central Potato Research Institute (CPRI) is located in Shimla, Himachal Pradesh. - Established in 1949, it is the premier research institute in Asia for potato improvement. - Shimla was chosen
16. Q53: Which one among the following is responsible for the command, control and operational decisions of nuclear weapons in India?
    Answer: B — Nuclear Command Authority
    The correct answer is Nuclear Command Authority. Key Points - The Nuclear Command Authority (NCA) is India's apex body responsible for command, control, and operational decisions related to nuclear weapons. - It was established in January 2
17. Q55: The Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School of the Indian Army is located at
    Answer: C — Vairengte
    The correct answer is Vairengte. Key Points - The Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School (CIJWS) of the Indian Army is located at Vairengte in Mizoram (on the Mizoram-Assam border). - It is one of the finest counter-insurgency trainin
18. Q56: INS Kalvari which was commissioned into the Indian Navy in December 2017 is a/an:
    Answer: D — Submarine
    The correct answer is Submarine. Key Points - INS Kalvari is the first Scorpene-class submarine of the Indian Navy, commissioned on 14 December 2017. - Built at Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), Mumbai, under Project-75, it is named
19. Q59: Consider the following statements about Grand Slam tennis tournaments: (i) There are four Grand Slam annual tennis tournaments. (ii) The first Grand Slam of a year is the US Open. (iii) The Australian
    Answer: C — (i) only
    The correct answer is (i) only. Key Points - Only statement (i) is correct — there are exactly four Grand Slams annually. - Statement (ii) is wrong: the first Grand Slam of the year is the Australian Open (January), not the US Open (August–
20. Q69: The headquarters of Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific is located at
    Answer: C — Bangkok
    The correct answer is Bangkok. Key Points - The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) is headquartered in Bangkok, Thailand. - It is the largest UN regional development organization, serving 53 membe
21. Q79: Which one of the following is the largest source of electricity in India?
    Answer: B — Thermal power plants
    The correct answer is Thermal power plants. Key Points - Thermal (coal-based) power plants are the largest source of electricity in India, contributing about 70% of total electricity generation. - Coal is the primary fuel, followed by natur
22. Q83: The Simlipal Biosphere Reserve is located in:
    Answer: D — Odisha
    The correct answer is Odisha. Key Points - The Simlipal Biosphere Reserve is located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha. - It is one of India's largest national parks and a Project Tiger reserve. - It is home to the rare melanistic (black
23. Q88: Which of the following monuments was formerly known as "All India War Memorial"?
    Answer: A — India Gate
    The correct answer is India Gate. Key Points - India Gate in New Delhi was originally named "All India War Memorial." It was designed by Sir Edwin Lutyens and inaugurated in 1931. - It commemorates the 82,000 soldiers of the Briti
24. Q91: Navroz is a festival celebrated in India by the:
    Answer: D — Parsis
    The correct answer is Parsis. Key Points - Navroz (Nowruz) is the Persian New Year celebrated by the Parsi community (Zoroastrians) in India. - It falls on the first day of spring (around March 21 as per the Persian calendar) or in August a
25. Q111: The 2020 Summer Olympics will be held at:
    Answer: B — Tokyo
    The correct answer is Tokyo. Key Points - The 2020 Summer Olympics were held in Tokyo, Japan (July 23 – August 8, 2021, delayed by one year due to the COVID-19 pandemic). - Tokyo had previously hosted the Summer Olympics in 1964. - India wo
26. Q113: With which sport is Saikhom Mirabai Chanu associated?
    Answer: C — Weight lifting
    The correct answer is Weight lifting. Key Points - Saikhom Mirabai Chanu is an Indian weightlifter from Manipur. - In 2017, she became World Weightlifting Champion in the 48 kg category in Anaheim, USA. - She won a Silver medal at the Tokyo
27. Q114: Who captained the Indian team during the Women's Cricket World Cup, 2017?
    Answer: A — Mithali Dorai Raj
    The correct answer is Mithali Dorai Raj. Key Points - Mithali Raj (Mithali Dorai Raj) captained the Indian women's cricket team in the ICC Women's Cricket World Cup 2017 held in England. - India reached the final but lost to England by 9 ru
28. Q115: Kailash Satyarthi, who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2014, works in the field of:
    Answer: D — Child rights
    The correct answer is Child rights. Key Points - Kailash Satyarthi, founder of Bachpan Bachao Andolan (Save Childhood Movement, 1980), was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2014 jointly with Malala Yousafzai. - He has worked to free over 85,
29. Q116: The National Health Protection Scheme announced by the Finance Minister during the presentation of the budget for the fiscal year 2018-19 will
    Answer: B — Provide a Rs. 5 lakh insurance cover to 10 crore economically vulnerable families
    The correct answer is Provide a Rs. 5 lakh insurance cover to 10 crore economically vulnerable families. Key Points - The National Health Protection Scheme (now Ayushman Bharat – PM-JAY) provides health insurance cover of Rs. 5 lakh per fam
30. Q117: The National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro Science is located in:
    Answer: B — Bengaluru
    The correct answer is Bengaluru. Key Points - The National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro Sciences (NIMHANS) is located in Bengaluru, Karnataka. - It is a premier medical institution for mental health and neuroscience research, treatm
31. Q119: Consider the following statements about Bitcoin: (i) Bitcoin is a cryptocurrency. (ii) It is the first decentralized digital currency. (iii) The system works as a peer-to-peer network called the block
    Answer: D — (i), (ii) and (iii)
    The correct answer is (i), (ii) and (iii). Key Points - All three statements about Bitcoin are correct. - (i) Bitcoin is a cryptocurrency — a decentralized digital currency. - (ii) It is the first decentralized digital currency, created by

History — Solved Questions

1. Q5: The Fourth Buddhist Council was held in Kashmir under the leadership of
   Answer: D — Kanishka
   The correct answer is Kanishka. Key Points - The Fourth Buddhist Council was held at Kundalvana, Kashmir, during the reign of Kushan Emperor Kanishka (1st–2nd century CE). - It was presided over by Vasumitra and Asvaghosha. - The Mahavibhas
2. Q11: Annie Besant formed the Home Rule League in India based on the pattern of Home Rule Movement in
   Answer: A — Ireland
   The correct answer is Ireland. Key Points - Annie Besant established the Home Rule League in India in 1916, modeled on the Irish Home Rule Movement. - Ireland's Home Rule movement, which sought self-governance within the British Empire, ins
3. Q12: Consider the following statements about Rabindranath Tagore: (i) He composed a number of patriotic songs during the Swadeshi movement. (ii) He returned his knighthood to condemn the brutal killing of
   Answer: D — (i) and (ii)
   The correct answer is (i) and (ii). Key Points - Statements (i) and (ii) are correct. - Tagore composed many patriotic songs during the Swadeshi movement and returned his knighthood in protest of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre (1919). - Stat
4. Q13: The famous historical book "Travels in the Mughal Empire" was written by
   Answer: B — Francois Bernier
   The correct answer is Francois Bernier. Key Points - Francois Bernier, a French physician, spent 12 years in Mughal India (1656–1668) and served as physician to Emperor Aurangzeb and Prince Dara Shikoh. - His book "Travels in the Mugha
5. Q21: Megasthenes visited India during the reign of
   Answer: B — Chandragupta Maurya
   The correct answer is Chandragupta Maurya. Key Points - Megasthenes was a Greek ethnographer and ambassador sent by Seleucus I Nicator to the court of Chandragupta Maurya (322–297 BCE), the founder of the Maurya Empire. - His work "Ind
6. Q22: The remains of the Vijayanagar empire can be found at
   Answer: C — Hampi
   The correct answer is Hampi. Key Points - Hampi, a UNESCO World Heritage Site in Karnataka, contains the ruins of the Vijayanagar Empire's capital Vijayanagara. - The empire flourished from the 14th to 17th centuries. - The site includes te
7. Q23: Initially an associate of Gandhi, he left the Congress, broke off with Gandhi and launched a radical social movement called the Self-Respect Movement. The reference here is to
   Answer: B — E.V.R. Naicker
   The correct answer is E.V.R. Naicker. Key Points - E.V. Ramasamy Periyar (E.V.R. Naicker), initially a Congress member and associate of Gandhi, later broke away and launched the Self-Respect Movement in 1925 in Tamil Nadu. - The movement ai
8. Q24: The movement that came to an abrupt end because of the Chauri Chaura incident was the
   Answer: C — Non-Cooperation movement
   The correct answer is Non-Cooperation movement. Key Points - The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22), launched by Gandhi, came to an abrupt end after the Chauri Chaura incident on 4 February 1922, where an angry mob set fire to a police stat
9. Q34: Who among the following was associated with the Mughal Court as a physician to Prince Dara Shikoh?
   Answer: B — Francois Bernier
   The correct answer is Francois Bernier. Key Points - Francois Bernier, the French physician and philosopher, served as personal physician to Prince Dara Shikoh (eldest son of Emperor Shah Jahan) and later to Emperor Aurangzeb. - His account
10. Q57: The Doctrine of Lapse was a policy that aimed to
    Answer: D — Extend the territorial boundaries of the English East India Company
    The correct answer is Extend the territorial boundaries of the English East India Company. Key Points - The Doctrine of Lapse, implemented by Lord Dalhousie (1848–56), allowed the British East India Company to annex any princely state where
11. Q58: The Permanent Settlement of 1799 introduced
    Answer: B — The Zamindari system
    The correct answer is The Zamindari system. Key Points - The Permanent Settlement of 1793 (not 1799) introduced the Zamindari system in Bengal under Lord Cornwallis. - Zamindars were recognized as permanent proprietors of land and were requ
12. Q64: Which of the following Indus Valley Civilization sites are located in India? (i) Mohenjo-daro (ii) Harappa (iii) Babar Kot (iv) Dholavira. Choose the correct answer from the following:
    Answer: C — (iii) and (iv) only
    The correct answer is (iii) and (iv) only. Key Points - Among the given options, only Babar Kot (Gujarat, India) and Dholavira (Kutch, Gujarat, India) are IVC sites located in India. - Mohenjo-daro and Harappa are located in present-day Pak
13. Q73: With reference to Simon Commission's recommendations, which one of the following statements is correct?
    Answer: A — It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the provinces
    The correct answer is It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the provinces. Key Points - The Simon Commission (1927) recommended replacing dyarchy with responsible government in the provinces. - It proposed
14. Q80: Who among the following was associated with the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association?
    Answer: D — Chandrashekhar Azad
    The correct answer is Chandrashekhar Azad. Key Points - Chandrashekhar Azad was the commander-in-chief of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), formed in 1928 after reorganizing the Hindustan Republican Army. - Azad, Bhagat
15. Q92: Of which significant event of the freedom struggle was the 100th anniversary recently commemorated?
    Answer: B — Champaran Satyagraha
    The correct answer is Champaran Satyagraha. Key Points - The 100th anniversary of the Champaran Satyagraha was commemorated in 2017. - The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was Gandhi's first civil disobedience movement in India, launched agains

Indian Polity — Solved Questions

1. Q6: The Border Area Development Programme is a scheme of the
   Answer: A — Ministry of Home Affairs
   The correct answer is Ministry of Home Affairs. Key Points - The Border Area Development Programme (BADP) is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs. - It aims to meet the special developmental needs of people living in remote and inac
2. Q14: Which one among the following was not a feature of the provincial executive as envisaged by the Government of India Act, 1935?
   Answer: D — The Governor could be removed by a vote of no confidence to the Provincial legislature
   The correct answer is The Governor could be removed by a vote of no confidence to the Provincial legislature. Key Points - Under the Government of India Act, 1935, the Governor was not removable by a vote of no confidence in the Provincial
3. Q30: The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution of India were inspired by
   Answer: A — The French Revolution
   The correct answer is The French Revolution. Key Points - The ideals of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity in India's Preamble were inspired by the French Revolution of 1789. - The French motto "Liberté, Égalité, Fraternité" direct
4. Q35: An emergency under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution can be declared only during:
   Answer: D — War, external aggression or armed rebellion
   The correct answer is War, external aggression or armed rebellion. Key Points - Under Article 352 (as amended by the 44th Amendment, 1978), a National Emergency can be proclaimed only during war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. - T
5. Q36: The provision of the Indian Constitution that most clearly expresses the power of Judicial Review is:
   Answer: C — Article 32
   The correct answer is Article 32. Key Points - Article 32 grants the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights — a power that embodies judicial review. - Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 the "heart and soul&qu
6. Q40: Consider the following statements: (i) A Money Bill can be introduced in any of the Houses of Parliament. (ii) The determination whether a Bill is a Money Bill is made by the Union Cabinet. Which of t
   Answer: D — Neither (i) nor (ii)
   The correct answer is Neither (i) nor (ii). Key Points - Both statements are incorrect. - (i) A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, not in the Rajya Sabha. - (ii) The determination of whether a Bill is a Money Bill is made b
7. Q41: The Government of India Act, 1919, clearly defined:
   Answer: B — The jurisdictions of the Central and Provincial Governments
   The correct answer is The jurisdictions of the Central and Provincial Governments. Key Points - The Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) clearly demarcated the jurisdictions of the Central and Provincial Governments th
8. Q44: Consider the following: (i) The executive power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister. (ii) The Prime Minister of India must be an elected member of the Lok Sabha. Which of the above s
   Answer: D — Neither (i) nor (ii)
   The correct answer is Neither (i) nor (ii). Key Points - Both statements are incorrect. - (i) The executive power of the Union is vested in the President of India (Article 53), not the Prime Minister. - (ii) The PM need not be a member of t
9. Q45: The provisions of the Fifth and Sixth Schedules of the Indian Constitution have been made in order to:
   Answer: A — Protect the interests of the Scheduled Tribes
   The correct answer is Protect the interests of the Scheduled Tribes. Key Points - The Fifth and Sixth Schedules of the Indian Constitution contain provisions for the administration and protection of tribal (Scheduled Tribes) areas. - The Fi
10. Q46: Which part of the Indian Constitution enshrines the idea of a Welfare State?
    Answer: C — Directive Principles of State Policy
    The correct answer is Directive Principles of State Policy. Key Points - The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV, Articles 36–51) enshrine the idea of a Welfare State in India. - They direct the State to promote the welfare of peo
11. Q54: Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory o
    Answer: A — Article 14
    The correct answer is Article 14. Key Points - Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws to all persons (citizens and non-citizens) within the territory of India. - It is based on the
12. Q68: Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to protection of individuals being tried for offences?
    Answer: A — A confession can never be used as evidence against the accused
    The correct answer is A confession can never be used as evidence against the accused. Key Points - Statement A is incorrect — confessions CAN be used as evidence under certain conditions. - Under Indian Evidence Act, a confession made to a
13. Q70: Which one of the following writs is issued by the Supreme Court to secure the freedom of a person upon unlawful arrest?
    Answer: A — Habeas Corpus
    The correct answer is Habeas Corpus. Key Points - Habeas Corpus ("You shall have the body") is a writ issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts directing a person detaining another to produce the detainee before the court. - It p
14. Q89: Which of the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Constitution of India is/are correct? (i) The Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. (ii) The words "Secular" and &
    Answer: A — (i) only
    The correct answer is (i) only. Key Points - Statement (i) is correct — the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) declared the Preamble to be an integral part of the Constitution. - Statement (ii) is incorrect — "Secular
15. Q90: The Vice President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of
    Answer: A — Members of both the Houses of Parliament
    The correct answer is Members of both the Houses of Parliament. Key Points - The Vice President of India is elected by members of an Electoral College consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) — by secre
16. Q93: Normally, the Parliament can legislate on subjects enumerated in the
    Answer: A — Union List
    The correct answer is Union List. Key Points - Parliament can normally legislate on subjects in the Union List (List I), which includes defence, foreign affairs, currency, banking, railways, etc. Parliament can also legislate on the Concurr

J&K General Knowledge — Solved Questions

1. Q7: Among other things, excavations at Ambaran-Pamberwan sites near Akhnoor have proved that:
   Answer: D — It was associated with Buddhism
   The correct answer is It was associated with Buddhism. Key Points - Archaeological excavations at Ambaran-Pamberwan near Akhnoor (Jammu) revealed significant Buddhist remains, including stupas, monasteries, and artifacts. - The site is cons
2. Q27: How was the Wular Lake formed?
   Answer: D — It was formed due to tectonic activity
   The correct answer is It was formed due to tectonic activity. Key Points - Wular Lake, the largest freshwater lake in India, was formed due to tectonic activity in the Kashmir Valley. - It lies in the Kashmir Valley, Bandipora district. - T
3. Q71: Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is
   Answer: A — An infantry regiment of the Indian Army
   The correct answer is An infantry regiment of the Indian Army. Key Points - The Jammu and Kashmir Rifles (JAK Rifles) is a light infantry regiment of the Indian Army. - Raised in 1947, it played a pivotal role in the defence of Kashmir agai
4. Q112: The Zoji-la tunnel planned to be constructed under the Zoji-la pass will be:
   Answer: B — Asia's longest bi-directional tunnel
   The correct answer is Asia's longest bi-directional tunnel. Key Points - The Zoji-la Tunnel project (14.15 km) will be Asia's longest bidirectional highway tunnel, connecting Baltal (Sonmarg) to Minamarg in the Kargil district of Ladakh. -
5. Q118: Which of the following is not correct with respect to Kalhana's Rajtarangini?
   Answer: B — The book was written in the 15th century
   The correct answer is The book was written in the 15th century. Key Points - Statement B is incorrect — Kalhana's Rajtarangini was written in the 12th century (circa 1148–1150 CE), not the 15th century. - It was commissioned by King Jayasim
6. Q120: Sultan Zain-ul-Abedin, who ruled Kashmir during the 15th century, was also known as:
   Answer: A — Bud-shah
   The correct answer is Bud-shah. Key Points - Sultan Zain-ul-Abedin (1420–1470 CE) was the 8th Sultan of Kashmir and is widely regarded as the greatest ruler of the Shah Mir dynasty. - Known as "Bud-shah" (Great King) by his people

General Science — Solved Questions

1. Q8: Which one of the following is a renewable source of energy?
   Answer: B — Wind energy
   The correct answer is Wind energy. Key Points - Wind energy is a renewable source because wind is continuously replenished by nature. - Natural gas, petroleum, and nuclear energy (uranium) are non-renewable as they depend on finite resource
2. Q9: Light years is a measure of
   Answer: B — Distance
   The correct answer is Distance. Key Points - A light year is the distance light travels in one year in a vacuum, approximately 9.46 × 10¹² km. - Despite having "year" in its name, it is a unit of distance, not time. - It is used t
3. Q32: In blood, platelets are required for
   Answer: C — Initiating clotting of blood
   The correct answer is Initiating clotting of blood. Key Points - Platelets (thrombocytes) are small, colorless cell fragments in blood that play a crucial role in blood clotting (hemostasis). - When a blood vessel is injured, platelets aggr
4. Q33: Which attribute of a sound wave is related to the loudness of sound?
   Answer: A — Amplitude
   The correct answer is Amplitude. Key Points - The loudness (intensity) of a sound wave is determined by its amplitude — the maximum displacement of particles from their rest position. - Greater amplitude means more energy in the wave and lo
5. Q50: Which one of the following gases is not responsible for global warming?
   Answer: B — Oxygen
   The correct answer is Oxygen. Key Points - Oxygen (O₂) is not a greenhouse gas. - Greenhouse gases absorb and re-emit infrared radiation, warming the atmosphere. - Major greenhouse gases include water vapour (H₂O), carbon dioxide (CO₂), met
6. Q51: Which of the following statements regarding temperature of an object in Kelvin scale is/are correct? (i) It can be a negative, zero or positive quantity. (ii) It can either be a negative or a positive
   Answer: C — (iii) and (iv) only
   The correct answer is (iii) and (iv) only. Key Points - Temperature in Kelvin can never be negative (statement iii) and can be zero or a positive definite quantity (statement iv). - The Kelvin scale starts at absolute zero (0 K = −273.15°C)
7. Q52: Graphite is a good conductor of electricity. It is because of its
   Answer: D — hexagonal multilayer structure
   The correct answer is hexagonal multilayer structure. Key Points - Graphite conducts electricity due to its hexagonal multilayer structure. - In each layer, carbon atoms form hexagonal rings with three covalent bonds — the fourth electron f
8. Q60: After diagnosis of disease in the person, the doctor advises the patient iron and folic acid tablets. The person is suffering from
   Answer: B — Anaemia
   The correct answer is Anaemia. Key Points - Iron deficiency anaemia is treated with iron and folic acid supplements. - Anaemia is a condition where the blood lacks adequate healthy red blood cells or haemoglobin. - Osteoporosis is treated w
9. Q61: Bernoulli's principle is based on which one among the following laws?
   Answer: D — Conservation of energy
   The correct answer is Conservation of energy. Key Points - Bernoulli's principle states that an increase in the speed of a fluid occurs simultaneously with a decrease in pressure. - It is based on the Law of Conservation of Energy — the tot
10. Q62: The temperature of water at the bottom of a lake whose upper surface has frozen to ice would be around (in degrees Celsius)
    Answer: C — 4
    The correct answer is 4. Key Points - Water at the bottom of a frozen lake is approximately 4°C because water has maximum density at 4°C. When the surface water cools below 4°C, it becomes less dense and stays on top (eventually freezing),
11. Q65: The pressure exerted by a 760 mm column of mercury at 0°C is known as
    Answer: B — 1 atmosphere
    The correct answer is 1 atmosphere. Key Points - 1 atmosphere (atm) is defined as the pressure exerted by a 760 mm (76 cm) column of mercury at 0°C at sea level (standard gravity). - This is equivalent to 101,325 Pa (pascals). - A bar (100,
12. Q66: Which one of the following hormones is essential for the uptake of glucose by cells in the human body?
    Answer: C — Insulin
    The correct answer is Insulin. Key Points - Insulin, a hormone produced by the beta cells of the pancreas, is essential for the uptake and utilization of glucose by body cells. - Without insulin, glucose cannot enter cells and accumulates i
13. Q67: Altitude sickness is caused at high altitude due to
    Answer: B — Low partial pressure of oxygen
    The correct answer is Low partial pressure of oxygen. Key Points - Altitude sickness occurs at high altitudes because the partial pressure of oxygen decreases as altitude increases, even though the percentage of oxygen remains constant (~21
14. Q75: Circulatory system is made of
    Answer: C — Blood vessels, heart and blood
    The correct answer is Blood vessels, heart and blood. Key Points - The circulatory (cardiovascular) system consists of blood vessels (arteries, veins, capillaries), the heart, and blood. - The heart pumps blood through vessels to deliver ox
15. Q77: Ozone layer is part of the layer of
    Answer: B — Stratosphere
    The correct answer is Stratosphere. Key Points - The ozone layer (ozonosphere) is located in the stratosphere, approximately 15–35 km above Earth's surface. - It absorbs most of the Sun's harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation, protecting life
16. Q78: Which one among the following rocks is not a sedimentary rock?
    Answer: C — Slate
    The correct answer is Slate. Key Points - Slate is a fine-grained metamorphic rock formed from shale or mudstone under low-grade metamorphic conditions (heat and pressure). - Shale, limestone, and sandstone are sedimentary rocks formed by d
17. Q81: Which among the following is the hardest part of our body?
    Answer: D — Enamel of teeth
    The correct answer is Enamel of teeth. Key Points - The enamel of teeth is the hardest substance in the human body, harder than bone. - Tooth enamel is 96% hydroxyapatite (a crystalline calcium phosphate), making it extremely hard but also
18. Q84: Which one of the following does not have an allotrope?
    Answer: C — Nitrogen
    The correct answer is Nitrogen. Key Points - Nitrogen (N₂) does not have well-known natural allotropes under normal conditions. - Carbon has allotropes: diamond, graphite, fullerene, graphene. - Oxygen has allotropes: O₂ (dioxygen) and O₃ (
19. Q85: Consider the following statements: (i) Diamond is hard and graphite is soft. (ii) Diamond is soft and graphite is hard. (iii) Diamond is a bad conductor and graphite is a good conductor. (iv) Diamond
    Answer: A — (i) and (iii)
    The correct answer is (i) and (iii). Key Points - Statements (i) and (iii) are correct. - Diamond is the hardest natural substance (10 on Mohs scale) while graphite is soft (1–2 on Mohs scale). - Diamond is a bad conductor of electricity (a
20. Q86: Which one among the following statements about thermal conductivity is correct?
    Answer: B — Steel Water Wood
    The correct answer is Steel Water Wood. Key Points - Thermal conductivity order is Steel Water Wood. - Metals like steel have high thermal conductivity due to free electrons that transfer heat rapidly. - Water has moderate conductivity. - W
21. Q87: A body weighs 10 kgs on the equator. At the poles, it is likely to weigh
    Answer: C — More than 10 kgs
    The correct answer is More than 10 kgs. Key Points - A body weighs more at the poles than at the equator because: (1) Earth is slightly flattened at the poles, so the poles are closer to Earth's center, increasing gravitational pull. - (2)

Economy — Solved Questions

1. Q15: Which of the following statements about India's unorganized sector are true? (i) Labour is more in number than that in the organized sector. (ii) Job security and work regulation are better in unorgan
   Answer: C — (i) and (iii) only
   The correct answer is (i) and (iii) only. Key Points - Statements (i) and (iii) are correct about India's unorganized sector. - It employs over 90% of the workforce (more than the organized sector) and workers are generally not organized in
2. Q16: In India, mergers and acquisition of firms are regulated by
   Answer: B — Competition Commission of India
   The correct answer is Competition Commission of India. Key Points - The Competition Commission of India (CCI), established under the Competition Act, 2002, regulates mergers, acquisitions, and anti-competitive practices in India. - SEBI reg
3. Q17: Share of food in total consumption expenditure has been coming down as per capita income grew over time in the last sixty years because
   Answer: C — Growth in food expenditure has been lower than growth in per capita income
   The correct answer is Growth in food expenditure has been lower than growth in per capita income. Key Points - As per capita income rises, the share of food in total expenditure decreases — this is known as Engel's Law. - As incomes grow, c
4. Q72: Which sector currently contributes most to the Gross Domestic Product of India?
   Answer: C — Services
   The correct answer is Services. Key Points - The Services sector contributes approximately 55% to India's GDP, making it the largest sector. - It includes IT/ITES, banking, retail, hospitality, healthcare, and education. - Agriculture contr
5. Q74: Consider the following actions by the Government: (i) Cutting the tax rates (ii) Increasing the government spending (iii) Abolishing the subsidies. In the context of economic recession, which of the a
   Answer: A — (i) and (ii) only
   The correct answer is (i) and (ii) only. Key Points - A fiscal stimulus involves government actions to boost aggregate demand during a recession. - Cutting taxes (i) increases disposable income and consumer spending. - Increasing government

Geography — Solved Questions

1. Q25: Mango shower is associated with which one of the following states?
   Answer: D — Kerala and Karnataka
   The correct answer is Kerala and Karnataka. Key Points - Mango shower refers to pre-monsoon rainfall that occurs in Kerala and Karnataka, which helps in the ripening of mangoes. - It is also known as "Blossom Shower" in the contex
2. Q26: Which one is the major river of Tamil Nadu?
   Answer: B — Kaveri
   The correct answer is Kaveri. Key Points - The Kaveri (Cauvery) is the most important river of Tamil Nadu, originating in Coorg, Karnataka. - It is called the "Dakshina Ganga" (Ganges of the South). - The river is crucial for irri
3. Q28: Duration of day and night in a country is influenced by its
   Answer: A — Latitudinal extent
   The correct answer is Latitudinal extent. Key Points - The duration of day and night varies with latitude. - At the equator (0°), days and nights are roughly equal throughout the year. - As latitude increases, seasonal variation in day leng
4. Q29: Which one of the following water bodies separates Sri Lanka from India?
   Answer: B — Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar
   The correct answer is Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar. Key Points - Sri Lanka is separated from mainland India by the Palk Strait (between Tamil Nadu and northern Sri Lanka) and the Gulf of Mannar (between Tamil Nadu and southern Sri Lanka).
5. Q39: Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and westernmost State?
   Answer: D — Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat
   The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat. Key Points - Arunachal Pradesh is India's easternmost state (longitude ~97°E), bordering China, Myanmar, and Bhutan. - Gujarat is the westernmost state (longitude ~68°E), on the Arabian S
6. Q48: Which of the following pairs of glaciers and locations is not correctly matched?
   Answer: A — Nubra Valley Glacier — Arunachal Pradesh
   The correct answer is Nubra Valley Glacier — Arunachal Pradesh. Key Points - The Nubra Valley Glacier is located in Ladakh (Union Territory), NOT in Arunachal Pradesh — making option A the incorrectly matched pair. - Milam Glacier (Uttarakh
7. Q63: Taungup Pass is a mountain corridor connecting India with
   Answer: D — Myanmar
   The correct answer is Myanmar. Key Points - Taungup Pass (also called Taungup Corridor) is a strategic mountain pass in the Arakan (Rakhine) region of Myanmar, connecting the Indian state of Mizoram with Myanmar. - It serves as an important
8. Q76: Alps Mountains and Himalayas are classic examples of the process of
   Answer: D — Folding
   The correct answer is Folding. Key Points - The Alps and Himalayas are classic examples of fold mountains formed by the process of folding. - Fold mountains are created when tectonic plates collide (convergent boundaries), causing the rock
9. Q82: The grassland region of North America is known as:
   Answer: D — Prairies
   The correct answer is Prairies. Key Points - The temperate grasslands of North America are called Prairies. - They stretch across the Great Plains of the USA and Canada. - Other grasslands: Pampas (South America), Savanna/Veldt (Africa), St

Quantitative Aptitude — Solved Questions

1. Q94: What is the missing number of the series 7, X, 21, 31, 43?
   Answer: C — 13
   The correct answer is 13. Key Points - The series is 7, 13, 21, 31, 43. The differences between consecutive terms are: 13−7=6, 21−13=8, 31−21=10, 43−31=12. The differences increase by 2 each time, forming an arithmetic progression (6, 8, 10
2. Q95: An automobile owner reduced his monthly fuel consumption when the price went up. Price (Rs./Litre): 40, 50, 60, 75 — Monthly consumption (Litres): 60, 48, 40, 32. If the price goes up to Rs. 80 a litr
   Answer: A — 30
   The correct answer is 30. Key Points - The product of Price × Consumption is constant: 40×60 = 50×48 = 60×40 = 75×32 = 2400. - This shows an inverse relationship. - At Rs. 80 per litre: Consumption = 2400 ÷ 80 = 30 litres. - This is an exam
3. Q96: In a test, a candidate attempted only 10 questions and secured 50% marks in each of the questions. If he obtained a total of 25% in the test and all the questions carried equal marks, how many questio
   Answer: D — 20
   The correct answer is 20. Key Points - The candidate attempted 10 questions, securing 50% marks in each. - Total marks scored = 10 × (50/100) × m = 5m (where m = marks per question). - This equals 25% of total marks. - Let total questions =
4. Q97: A father is nine times as old as his son and the mother is eight times as old as the son. The sum of the father's and the mother's age is 68 years. What is the age of the son?
   Answer: D — 4 years
   The correct answer is 4 years. Key Points - Let son's age = x. Then father = 9x and mother = 8x. - Father + Mother = 9x + 8x = 17x = 68 → x = 4. So the son is 4 years old, father is 36 years, and mother is 32 years. - Verification: 36 + 32
5. Q98: Each of A, B, C and D has Rs. 100. A pays Rs. 20 to B, who pays Rs. 10 to C, who gets Rs. 30 from D. In this context, which of the following statements are correct?
   Answer: A — C is the richest
   The correct answer is C is the richest. Key Points - Initial: A=100, B=100, C=100, D=100. - After transactions: A pays 20 to B → A=80, B=120. - B pays 10 to C → B=110, C=110. - C gets 30 from D → C=140, D=70. Final: A=80, B=110, C=140, D=70
6. Q99: Ram and Afzal start from the same point in opposite directions. After each 1 km, Ram always turns left and Afzal always turns right. Which of the following statements is correct?
   Answer: D — They never meet
   The correct answer is They never meet. Key Points - After each 1 km, Ram turns left and Afzal turns right. - Since they move in opposite directions, both end up turning in the same absolute direction after each km. - They trace parallel squ
7. Q100: Two equal glasses of the same type are respectively 1/3 and 1/4 full of milk. The glasses are then filled to the brim by adding water and the contents are mixed in a pot. What is the ratio of water to
   Answer: D — 17 : 7
   The correct answer is 17 : 7. Key Points - Let glass capacity = 12 units (LCM of 3 and 4). - Glass 1: milk = 4, water = 8. Glass 2: milk = 3, water = 9. Mixed: total milk = 4+3 = 7, total water = 8+9 = 17. Ratio water:milk = 17:7. This is a
8. Q101: A rectangular field has to be fenced on three sides leaving one side of 20 feet uncovered. If the area of the field is 680 sq. feet, how many feet of fencing will be required?
   Answer: C — 88
   The correct answer is 88. Key Points - The uncovered side = 20 feet. - Area = length × width = 680 sq. ft. - Width = 680 ÷ 20 = 34 feet. - Fencing required = two widths + one length (3 sides) = 34 + 34 + 20 = 88 feet.
9. Q102: A large field of 700 hectares is divided into two parts. The difference of the areas of the two parts is one-fifth of the average of the two areas. What is the area of the smaller part in hectares?
   Answer: B — 315 hectares
   The correct answer is 315 hectares. Key Points - Let the two parts be x and y. x + y = 700. Average = 350. - Difference = (1/5) × 350 = 70. So x − y = 70 and x + y = 700. - Solving: x = 385, y = 315. - The smaller part = 315 hectares.
10. Q103: Two stations P and Q are 110 km apart on a straight track. One train starts from P at 7 a.m. and travels towards Q at 20 kmph. Another train starts from Q at 8 a.m. and travels towards P at a speed of
    Answer: A — 10 a.m.
    The correct answer is 10 a.m.. Key Points - At 8 am, Train P (from P, speed 20 km/h) has traveled 20 km. - Remaining distance = 110 − 20 = 90 km. - From 8 am, relative speed = 20 + 25 = 45 km/h. Time to meet = 90 ÷ 45 = 2 hours after 8 am =
11. Q104: Rahul went to a shop and bought things worth Rs. 25 out of which 30 paise went on sales tax on taxable purchases. If the tax rate was 6%, then what was the total amount that Rahul paid for the taxable
    Answer: B — Rs. 5.30
    The correct answer is Rs. 5.30. Key Points - Sales tax = 30 paise = Rs. 0.30. Tax rate = 6%. - Taxable purchase amount = 0.30 ÷ 0.06 = Rs. 5. Total paid for taxable items = Rs. 5 + Rs. 0.30 = Rs. 5.30. The remaining Rs. 25 − Rs. 5.30 = Rs.
12. Q105: A fruit seller had some oranges. He sells 40% of oranges and still has 420 oranges. How many oranges did he have originally?
    Answer: B — 700
    The correct answer is 700. Key Points - The seller sells 40% and still has 420 oranges, meaning 420 represents the remaining 60% (100% − 40%). - Original quantity = 420 ÷ 0.60 = 700 oranges. - Verification: 40% of 700 = 280 sold, remaining
13. Q106: An accurate clock shows 8 o'clock in the morning. Through how many degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 o'clock in the afternoon?
    Answer: C — 180°
    The correct answer is 180°. Key Points - From 8 a.m. to 2 p.m. = 6 hours. - The hour hand completes one full rotation (360°) in 12 hours. - So in 6 hours, it rotates = (6/12) × 360° = 180°. - The hour hand moves at 0.5° per minute or 30° pe
14. Q107: The average of 20 non-zero numbers is zero. Of them, how many may be greater than zero, at the most?
    Answer: D — 19
    The correct answer is 19. Key Points - If the average of 20 non-zero numbers is zero, the sum of all numbers = 0. For this to happen with non-zero numbers, there must be at least one negative number. - The maximum number of positive numbers
15. Q108: The angle of elevation of a 5 m long ladder leaning against a wall is 45 degrees and the foot of the ladder is 3 m away from the wall. The height of the wall up to the point where the ladder is restin
    Answer: C — 4 m
    The correct answer is 4 m. Key Points - The ladder is 5 m long, foot is 3 m from the wall, angle of elevation = 45°. - Using Pythagoras: height² = 5² − 3² = 25 − 9 = 16 → height = 4 m. Note: the problem states angle = 45° but the geometry (
16. Q109: P is able to do a piece of work in 15 days and Q can do the same work in 20 days. If they can work together for 4 days, what is the fraction of work left?
    Answer: A — 8/15
    The correct answer is 8/15. Key Points - P's rate = 1/15 work/day. - Q's rate = 1/20 work/day. - Together per day = 1/15 + 1/20 = 4/60 + 3/60 = 7/60. In 4 days = 4 × 7/60 = 28/60 = 7/15. Work remaining = 1 − 7/15 = 8/15.
17. Q110: The sum of the present ages of a son and his father is 60 years. Six years ago, father's age was five times the age of the son. After 6 years, what will be the son's age?
    Answer: B — 20 years
    The correct answer is 20 years. Key Points - Let son's present age = s, father's = f. s + f = 60. Six years ago: f − 6 = 5(s − 6) → f − 6 = 5s − 30 → f = 5s − 24. Substituting: s + 5s − 24 = 60 → 6s = 84 → s = 14 years. - After 6 years, son

Frequently Asked Questions

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The JKSSB Sub Inspector (Executive) 2017 has 120 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.

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The JKSSB Sub Inspector (Executive) 2017 was held on 13 May 2017.

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