RRB NTPC UG — 7 May 2026 (Shift 1) — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

RRB NTPC Undergraduate level CBT-1 held on 7 May 2026, Shift 1. 100 questions, 100 marks, 90 minutes, with 1/3 negative marking per wrong answer. Mathematics (30), General Awareness (40) and General Intelligence & Reasoning (30), with the correct answer marked for every question.

RRB NTPC — 2026 — UG Level, 7 May 2026, Shift 1

100 solved questions with answer key and detailed explanations — Subjects: Mathematics, General Awareness, General Intelligence & Reasoning — Negative marking: 0.33

Mathematics — Solved Questions

  1. Q1: A dealer sells a product at 15% profit. If he had bought it at 10% less and sold it for ₹126 less, he would have gained 20%. Find the cost price.
    Answer: B — ₹1,800
    The correct answer is ₹1,800. Shortcut Trick - Work in units instead of rupees and the arithmetic collapses to one division. - Assume the original CP = 100 units. Then the original SP = 115 units (15% profit). - New CP is 10% less, so CP₂ =
  2. Q2: Three numbers are in the ratio 4 : 13 : 9, and their LCM is 6084. Their HCF is:
    Answer: B — 13
    The correct answer is 13. Shortcut Trick - For numbers in the ratio a : b : c that share a common factor x, the numbers are ax, bx, cx — so the HCF is x and the LCM is x × LCM(a, b, c), provided a, b, c have no common factor. - Here 4 : 13
  3. Q3: The present age of a man is 4 years more than twice the present age of his son. After 6 years, the sum of their ages will be 58 years. What is the present age of the son?
    Answer: C — 14 years
    The correct answer is 14 years. Shortcut Trick - Test the options against the second condition — with four choices this is often faster than forming equations. - If the son is 14, the man is 2(14) + 4 = 32. After 6 years they are 20 and 38,
  4. Q4: What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹1,320 in 3 years at 20% per year rate of interest?
    Answer: B — 2,200
    The correct answer is ₹2,200. Shortcut Trick - At 20% per year for 3 years, simple interest totals 60% of the principal. - So 0.60 × P = 1320 P = 1320/0.6 = ₹2,200. Alternate Method - SI = P × R × T/100 - 1320 = P × 20 × 3/100 = 60P/100 = 0
  5. Q5: If a triangle has sides a, b, c, and fixed sum a+b+c=18, then the maximum possible area (in cm²) of the triangle is
    Answer: C — 9√3
    The correct answer is 9√3. Shortcut Trick - Among all triangles with a fixed perimeter, the one with the largest area is equilateral. This is a standard result and turns the question into a single formula. - Perimeter 18 gives a side of 18
  6. Q6: A fruit seller sold mangoes at ₹600 per box last month. This month, he first increased the price by 10% due to transportation costs and then offered a discount of 15% on the increased price. What is t
    Answer: C — ₹561
    The correct answer is ₹561. Shortcut Trick - Combine the two changes into a single multiplier instead of computing each step in rupees. - A 10% rise then a 15% discount gives 1.10 × 0.85 = 0.935. - Final price = 600 × 0.935 = ₹561. Alternat
  7. Q7: A train of length 180 meters is running at a speed of 72 km/h. How much time will it take to cross a bridge 350 meters long?
    Answer: A — 26.5 seconds
    The correct answer is 26.5 seconds. Shortcut Trick - To cross a bridge, a train must travel its own length plus the bridge's length. - Total distance = 180 + 350 = 530 m. - Convert speed: 72 km/h × 5/18 = 20 m/s. - Time = 530/20 = 26.5 seco
  8. Q8: The sum of two positive numbers is 27 and their product is 170. The positive difference between them is:
    Answer: A — 7
    The correct answer is 7. Shortcut Trick - Never solve the quadratic. Use the identity (a-b)^2 = (a+b)^2 - 4ab. - (a-b)^2 = 27^2 - 4(170) = 729 - 680 = 49 - a - b = √49 = 7 Alternate Method - The two numbers are the roots of x^2 - 27x + 170
  9. Q9: A streaming service charges ₹150 per month. If you buy an annual plan (12 months) with a 15% discount, what is your total savings (in ₹) compared to paying monthly for a year?
    Answer: D — 270
    The correct answer is 270. Shortcut Trick - The saving is the discount, so there is no need to compute the annual price at all. - Yearly cost at the monthly rate = 150 × 12 = ₹1,800. - Saving = 15\% of 1800 = ₹270. Alternate Method - Paying
  10. Q10: If the interest on a sum of ₹y at 10% per annum compounded annually for 2 years is ₹462, then the total amount payable at the end of the two-year period will be .
    Answer: C — ₹2,662
    The correct answer is ₹2,662. Shortcut Trick - For 2 years at r\%, compound interest is a fixed fraction of the principal: [(1+r)^2 - 1]. At 10% that is 1.21 - 1 = 0.21, i.e. 21% of P. - 0.21P = 462 P = ₹2,200. - Amount = principal + intere
  11. Q11: Find the diameter of a sphere of surface area 28962 cm 2 . (round off to the closest integer)
    Answer: D — 96 cm
    The correct answer is 96 cm. Shortcut Trick - Work straight to the diameter by substituting r = d/2 into S = 4π r^2, which gives S = π d^2. - d^2 = 28962/π = 28962/3.1416 9218 - d √9218 96.0, so the diameter is 96 cm. Alternate Method - 4π
  12. Q12: The value of a machine depreciates by 10% every year. What is the total percentage depreciation after 2 years?
    Answer: C — 19%
    The correct answer is 19%. Shortcut Trick - Two successive falls of 10% leave a multiplier of 0.9 × 0.9 = 0.81. - The machine retains 81% of its value, so the total depreciation is 100 - 81 = 19\%. Alternate Method - Take the initial value
  13. Q13: A shopkeeper offers the following schemes on toys of the same marked price. (A) Successive discounts of 16% and 29% on any number of toys bought. (B) Successive discounts of 4%, 34% and 37% on any num
    Answer: B — C
    The correct answer is C. Shortcut Trick - Compare schemes by the fraction of the marked price actually paid — the smallest discount is the least beneficial. - (A) 0.84 × 0.71 = 0.5964 40.36% off - (B) 0.96 × 0.66 × 0.63 = 0.3992 60.08% off
  14. Q14: Pipes X, Y, and Z together can fill a tank in 8 hours. If all three work together for 3 hours, and then pipe Z is closed, the remaining tank is filled by X and Y in 10 hours. In how many hours can pip
    Answer: B — 16
    The correct answer is 16. Shortcut Trick - Work in rates per hour rather than times. - All three together: 1/8 of the tank per hour, so in 3 hours they fill 3/8. - Remaining 5/8 takes X and Y ten hours their combined rate is 5/8/10 = 1/16.
  15. Q15: Two bells are rung at intervals of 1,764 seconds and 2,268 seconds, respectively. They are rung together at the start. After how much time will the two bells ring together again for the first time?
    Answer: A — 4 hours 24 minutes 36 seconds
    The correct answer is 4 hours 24 minutes 36 seconds. Shortcut Trick - Two events recurring at fixed intervals coincide again after the LCM of those intervals. - 1764 = 2^2 × 3^2 × 7^2 and 2268 = 2^2 × 3^4 × 7. - LCM takes the highest power
  16. Q16: Two taps can fill a cistern in 2 hours and 37 hours, respectively. A third tap can empty it in 37 hours. How long (in hours) will it take to fill half of the empty cistern if all the taps are opened t
    Answer: B — 1
    The correct answer is 1. Shortcut Trick - The second tap fills at 1/37 per hour and the third empties at 1/37 per hour — they cancel exactly. - Only the first tap has any net effect: 1/2 per hour, filling the cistern in 2 hours. - Half the
  17. Q17: The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 5. If 6 is subtracted from each, the resulting numbers are in the ratio 1 : 2. Find the difference between the two original numbers.
    Answer: D — 12
    The correct answer is 12. Shortcut Trick - The difference between the parts is 5 - 3 = 2 units, so the answer is simply 2 × (value of one unit). - Cross-multiplying the second condition: 2(3x - 6) = 1(5x - 6) x = 6. - Difference = 2x = 12.
  18. Q18: If a two-digit number has a digit sum of 9 and adding 27 reverses its digits, determine the unit digit of the number.
    Answer: D — 6
    The correct answer is 6. Shortcut Trick - Reversing a two-digit number changes it by 9 × (difference of digits). Since adding 27 reverses it, the difference of digits is 27/9 = 3, with the units digit larger. - With digit sum 9 and differen
  19. Q19: Simplify the following expression using the BODMAS rule: 3/4 + (5/6 × 9/10) - 2/3
    Answer: D — 5/6
    The correct answer is 5/6. Shortcut Trick - Under BODMAS the bracket goes first, and the multiplication inside it simplifies neatly: - 5/6 × 9/10 = 45/60 = 3/4 - The expression becomes 3/4 + 3/4 - 2/3 = 3/2 - 2/3. - 9 - 4/6 = 56 Alternate M
  20. Q20: The arithmetic mean of the first 15 numbers is 82. The mean is reduced by 6 when one of the numbers is removed. Find the number that is excluded?
    Answer: C — 166
    The correct answer is 166. Shortcut Trick - Removing a number drags the mean down by 6 across the 14 that remain, so the excluded value exceeds the new mean by its own share plus the deficit it leaves behind. - Excluded = new mean + 15 × (d
  21. Q21: The perimeter of a rhombus is 100 meters and one of its diagonals is 14 meters long. What is the length of the other diagonal?
    Answer: A — 48 meters
    The correct answer is 48 meters. Shortcut Trick - A rhombus has four equal sides, so side = 100/4 = 25 m. - Its diagonals bisect each other at right angles, forming four right triangles with legs d1/2, d2/2 and hypotenuse 25. - 7^2 + (d2/2)
  22. Q22: Which of the ratios given below is the greatest among them?
    Answer: C — 7 : 11
    The correct answer is 7 : 11. Shortcut Trick - Convert each ratio to a decimal and compare directly — with four small ratios this is faster than any cross-multiplication scheme. - 5 : 8 = 0.625 - 3 : 5 = 0.600 - 7 : 11 = 0.636 - 4 : 7 0.571
  23. Q23: If 4sinθ + cscθ = 4, 0° < θ < 90°, then the value of sin 3θ + cos 3θ is
    Answer: C — 1
    The correct answer is 1. Shortcut Trick - The given equation is a perfect square in disguise. Writing s = sinθ: - 4s + 1/s = 4 4s^2 - 4s + 1 = 0 (2s - 1)^2 = 0 - So sinθ = 1/2, and since 0° < θ < 90°, θ = 30°. - Then 3θ = 90°, giving
  24. Q24: In a class, the average score of 8 boys is 56 and the average score of 4 girls is 80. What is the average score of all 12 students?
    Answer: D — 64
    The correct answer is 64. Shortcut Trick - Use weighted average: the boys outnumber the girls 2 : 1, so the combined mean sits twice as close to 56 as to 80. - The gap is 80 - 56 = 24; splitting it in the ratio 1 : 2 from the boys' side giv
  25. Q25: The 7-digit number 46A484B is divisible by 24. What is the minimum value of (A + B)?
    Answer: C — 1
    The correct answer is 1. Shortcut Trick - 24 = 8 × 3, so the number must satisfy both rules. - Divisible by 8 — only the last three digits matter: 84B. Testing, 840 and 848 both work, so B = 0 or B = 8. - Divisible by 3 — the digit sum 4+6+
  26. Q26: Simplify: \12/33 ÷ 12/2\ ÷ (3/7 × 14/9 + 3/11) + 2/8 ÷ 31/25 of 25/8
    Answer: A — 4/31
    The correct answer is 4/31. Shortcut Trick - Resolve the two groupings separately; each collapses to a small fraction. - Braces: 12/33 ÷ 12/2 = 12/33 × 2/12 = 2/33 - Parentheses: 3/7 × 14/9 + 3/11 = 2/3 + 3/11 = 22 + 9/33 = 31/33 - Dividing
  27. Q27: Sunil purchased a microwave oven for ₹7,000. He spent ₹400 on its transportation and ₹600 on repairs. He sold the oven for ₹9,800. What is his percentage profit on total investment?
    Answer: A — 22.5%
    The correct answer is 22.5%. Shortcut Trick - Profit percentage is always measured on total investment, not the purchase price alone. - Total cost = 7000 + 400 + 600 = ₹8,000; profit = 9800 - 8000 = ₹1,800. - 1800/8000 × 100 = 22.5\% Altern
  28. Q28: A and B invest in a business in the ratio 5 : 7. After 4 months, C joins the business with an investment equal to the amount invested by A. At the end of one year, the total profit is ₹92,000. Find th
    Answer: C — ₹62,000
    The correct answer is ₹62,000. Shortcut Trick - In a partnership, profit divides in the ratio of capital × time, not capital alone. - A: 5 × 12 = 60 - B: 7 × 12 = 84 - C: 5 × 8 = 40 (joins after 4 months, so 8 months, investing the same as
  29. Q29: Which of the following numbers is completely divisible by 6?
    Answer: B — 7,53,216
    The correct answer is 7,53,216. Shortcut Trick - 6 = 2 × 3, so the number must be even and have a digit sum divisible by 3. - Eliminate on the easier test first — parity: 5,47,821 ends in 1, so it fails immediately. - Of the remaining even
  30. Q30: A person walks from point P to Q at 5 km/hr and returns from Q to P along the same route jogging at 10 km/hr. If the total time taken is 3 hours, what is the distance between P and Q?
    Answer: A — 10 km
    The correct answer is 10 km. Shortcut Trick - For a there-and-back journey at u and v, the average speed is the harmonic mean 2uv/u+v = 2(5)(10)/15 = 100/15 = 20/3 km/h. - Total distance = 20/3 × 3 = 20 km, which is the round trip. - One wa

General Awareness — Solved Questions

  1. Q31: By which Amendment Act were the words ‘socialist’, ‘secular’, and ‘integrity’ added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
    Answer: A — 42nd Amendment Act
    The correct answer is 42nd Amendment Act. Key Points - The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 inserted the words 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' into the Preamble of the Constitution. - The Preamble's description of India changed from "So
  2. Q32: Who presided over the National Level Conclave of Ministers of States/UTs for Minority Welfare held on 13 September 2025, at Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi?
    Answer: C — Kiren Rijiju
    The correct answer is Kiren Rijiju. Key Points - Kiren Rijiju presided over the National Level Conclave of Ministers of States and Union Territories for Minority Welfare, held on 13 September 2025 at Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi. - He holds th
  3. Q33: Where does the Indian Prime Minister hoist the national flag on the occasion of Independence Day?
    Answer: B — Red Fort
    The correct answer is Red Fort. Key Points - The Prime Minister hoists the national flag at the Red Fort (Lal Qila), Delhi on Independence Day, 15 August, and addresses the nation from its ramparts. - The tradition dates to 15 August 1947,
  4. Q34: In which state of India did Pattachitra paintings originate?
    Answer: A — Odisha
    The correct answer is Odisha. Key Points - Pattachitra originated in Odisha, where it developed alongside the Jagannath cult at Puri and is traditionally practised by the chitrakara community, notably in the village of Raghurajpur. - The na
  5. Q35: Which factor most directly contributed to the emergence of the Sanyasi–Fakir rebellion in Bengal?
    Answer: D — Forced taxation and famine pushed dispossessed peasants into rebel groups.
    The correct answer is Forced taxation and famine pushed dispossessed groups into revolt. Key Points - The Sanyasi–Fakir Rebellion (c. 1770–1820s) in Bengal followed the catastrophic Bengal Famine of 1770, which killed an estimated one-third
  6. Q36: During the electrolysis of water, hydrogen and oxygen are released in which ratio?
    Answer: D — 2:1
    The correct answer is 2:1. Key Points - Electrolysis of water splits it as 2H2O 2H2 + O2, so two volumes of hydrogen are released for one volume of oxygen — a ratio of 2 : 1. - The ratio comes straight from the formula of water itself: each
  7. Q37: Which of the following sites contains prehistoric paintings ranging from the Mesolithic to the historic period?
    Answer: D — Bhimbetka
    The correct answer is Bhimbetka. Key Points - The Bhimbetka rock shelters in the Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh contain rock paintings spanning from the Mesolithic period through to the historic era — a continuity of occupation running t
  8. Q38: The Vindhyachal Super Thermal Power Station is located in .
    Answer: A — Madhya Pradesh
    The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh. Key Points - The Vindhyachal Super Thermal Power Station is at Vindhyanagar in the Singrauli district of Madhya Pradesh, operated by NTPC. - With an installed capacity of 4,760 MW, it is the largest the
  9. Q39: When did Ladakh become a union territory of India?
    Answer: B — 2019
    The correct answer is 2019. Key Points - Ladakh became a Union Territory on 31 October 2019, when the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 came into force. - The former state of Jammu and Kashmir was reorganised into two Union Territo
  10. Q40: Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the Constitution of municipalities?
    Answer: D — Article 243Q
    The correct answer is Article 243Q. Key Points - Article 243Q provides for the constitution of Municipalities, requiring every state to establish three types: - a Nagar Panchayat for an area in transition from rural to urban, - a Municipal
  11. Q41: How does increasing the Amplitude of a sound wave affect the sound produced?
    Answer: A — The loudness increases
    The correct answer is The loudness increases. Key Points - Amplitude is the maximum displacement of particles from their rest position, and it determines the energy the wave carries. Greater amplitude means greater energy, which the ear per
  12. Q42: Which Indian actor was honored with the ‘Master Humor Award’ at the Macau International Comedy Festival 2025 held in China?
    Answer: B — Aamir Khan
    The correct answer is Aamir Khan. Key Points - Aamir Khan received the 'Master Humor Award' at the Macau International Comedy Festival 2025, held in China. - The award recognises a body of work in comedy, and Aamir Khan's filmography carrie
  13. Q43: Extended ASCII, an 8-bit evolution of the original 7-bit ASCII standard, supports international text by expanding the character set. How many total codes does it provide?
    Answer: D — 256 codes including accented characters
    The correct answer is 256 codes including accented characters. Key Points - The arithmetic settles it: 8 bits give 2^8 = 256 distinct codes. Extended ASCII therefore provides 256 characters, numbered 0 to 255. - Original ASCII was 7-bit, gi
  14. Q44: In the Windows 11 File System, a file named mydriver.sys is found in the C:32 folder. Based on its file extension and location, which of the following best describes the purpose and classification of
    Answer: B — It is a System Driver File that allows the operating system to communicate with a specific hardware component.
    The correct answer is It is a System Driver File that allows the operating system to communicate with hardware. Key Points - Two pieces of evidence point the same way: - the .sys extension, which denotes a system file, typically a device dr
  15. Q45: Which institution was founded by Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis?
    Answer: B — Indian Statistical Institute
    The correct answer is Indian Statistical Institute. Key Points - Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis founded the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) in Kolkata in 1931, and it was recognised as an Institute of National Importance by an Act of Parli
  16. Q46: Which of the following services is a core component of the tourism industry?
    Answer: B — Hospitality
    The correct answer is Hospitality. Key Points - Hospitality — accommodation, food and beverage, and related guest services — is a core component of tourism, because every traveller needs somewhere to stay and eat. The two industries are str
  17. Q47: What was the Dual Government system introduced after the Battle of Buxar?
    Answer: A — A system where the Company collected revenue, and Nawab handled administration
    The correct answer is A system where the Company collected revenue while the Nawab retained administrative responsibility. Key Points - The Dual Government or Dyarchy was introduced in Bengal by Robert Clive in 1765, after the Battle of Bux
  18. Q48: The Mansabdari System, introduced by Akbar in 1571, was mainly a system of .
    Answer: C — Military Administration
    The correct answer is Military Administration. Key Points - The Mansabdari system, introduced by Akbar in 1571, was fundamentally a system of military and administrative organisation, grading every officer of the empire by rank. - Each mans
  19. Q49: Which academic institution was responsible for designing the IRIS chip based on the SHAKTI microprocessor, India's push for self-reliance in semiconductor technology, in February 2025?
    Answer: A — IIT Madras
    The correct answer is IIT Madras. Key Points - The IRIS chip, built on the indigenous SHAKTI processor core, was designed at IIT Madras, which has led India's open-source microprocessor effort. - The SHAKTI programme at IIT Madras develops
  20. Q50: Which football player was named the Professional Footballers’ Association (PFA) Player of the Year in August 2025, becoming the first player to win the award three times?
    Answer: C — Mohamed Salah
    The correct answer is Mohamed Salah. Key Points - Mohamed Salah was named PFA Players' Player of the Year in August 2025, becoming the first player to win the award three times. - The PFA award is distinctive because it is voted for by fell
  21. Q51: In November 2025, PM Modi chaired the 60th All India Conference of Directors General and Inspectors General of Police in which city of Chhattisgarh?
    Answer: B — Raipur
    The correct answer is Raipur. Key Points - The 60th All India Conference of Directors General and Inspectors General of Police was held at Raipur, the capital of Chhattisgarh, in November 2025, chaired by the Prime Minister. - Raipur has be
  22. Q52: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of tertiary services?
    Answer: A — Directly processes natural resources
    The correct answer is Directly processes natural resources. Key Points - Directly processing natural resources is the defining work of the primary and secondary sectors, not the tertiary. Extraction belongs to the primary sector (agricultur
  23. Q53: Which of the following belts of the Northern Plains consists of porous rocky soil where stream water seeps underground?
    Answer: B — Bhabar belt
    The correct answer is Bhabar belt. Key Points - The Bhabar is a narrow belt of porous, pebbly and rocky deposits lying immediately south of the Shivaliks, formed where rivers descending from the mountains suddenly lose speed and dump their
  24. Q54: Which wildlife sanctuary is set to host its inaugural female cheetah (Dheera) as part of a breeding/translocation initiative in 2025?
    Answer: B — Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary
    The correct answer is Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary. Key Points - Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh was prepared as the second home for cheetahs in India, hosting the female cheetah Dheera as part of the translocation and
  25. Q55: Which statement is True or False about the Windows 11 Operating System (OS)? (i) The OS loads program code directly onto the hard disk for execution, as the CPU can only execute code from permanent st
    Answer: D — (i) False, (ii) True
    The correct answer is (i) False, (ii) True. Key Points - Statement (i) is False. The operating system loads program code into RAM (main memory), not onto the hard disk. The CPU can only execute instructions from primary memory, and its reas
  26. Q56: Which of the following indicators is NOT a component of the Human Development Index (HDI)?
    Answer: A — Poverty line ratio
    The correct answer is Poverty line ratio. Key Points - The Human Development Index is built from exactly three dimensions, and the other three options are precisely those: - Health — measured by life expectancy at birth, - Education — measu
  27. Q57: Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin that helps in promotion of calcium absorption in the gut for bone health?
    Answer: A — Vitamin D
    The correct answer is Vitamin D. Key Points - Vitamin D is fat-soluble and its central role is to promote absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the gut, without which dietary calcium passes through largely unused. - The other options fa
  28. Q58: Which of the following was the first international agreement to establish legally binding emission reduction targets specifically for developed countries?
    Answer: A — Kyoto Protocol
    The correct answer is Kyoto Protocol. Key Points - The Kyoto Protocol, adopted in 1997, was the first international agreement to set legally binding emission-reduction targets, and it imposed them specifically on developed (Annex I) countri
  29. Q59: In which country was the International Conference on 'Reimagining Existence: Emerging Perspectives in World Literature and Language' held in March 2025?
    Answer: A — India
    The correct answer is India. Key Points - The International Conference on 'Reimagining Existence: Emerging Perspectives in World Literature and Language' was held in India in March 2025. - Conferences of this kind bring together scholars of
  30. Q60: Which of the following correctly differentiates system software from application software?
    Answer: C — System software manages hardware; application software performs user tasks
    The correct answer is System software manages hardware; application software performs user tasks. Key Points - The division is one of purpose: - System software manages and controls the hardware and system resources, providing the platform
  31. Q61: Under which Article of the Indian Constitution may the President of India proclaim President’s Rule when Constitutional machinery fails in a state?
    Answer: C — Article 356
    The correct answer is Article 356. Key Points - Article 356 empowers the President to proclaim President's Rule in a state where the constitutional machinery has failed, on the Governor's report or otherwise. - The neighbouring articles are
  32. Q62: Which of the following optical properties of light enables sunglasses to reduce glare from sunlight reflected off surfaces such as water or roads?
    Answer: D — Polarization
    The correct answer is Polarization. Key Points - Polarization is the property that lets sunglasses cut glare. Light reflected from a horizontal surface such as water or a road becomes largely horizontally polarized, and a polarizing filter
  33. Q63: Which type of natural vegetation covers the largest geographical area in India?
    Answer: C — Tropical Deciduous vegetation
    The correct answer is Tropical Deciduous vegetation. Key Points - Tropical deciduous forests, also called monsoon forests, cover the largest area of any natural vegetation type in India, spreading across most of the country's rainfall belt
  34. Q64: In which year did FEMA replace FERA?
    Answer: D — 1999
    The correct answer is 1999. Key Points - The Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999 replaced the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA), 1973, and came into force on 1 June 2000. - The change reflected the shift in economic policy aft
  35. Q65: With which country did the United Kingdom (UK) sign the Kensington Treaty, the first treaty between the two countries since the Second World War, in July 2025?
    Answer: C — Germany
    The correct answer is Germany. Key Points - The United Kingdom signed the Kensington Treaty with Germany in July 2025, described as the first bilateral treaty between the two countries since the Second World War. - The significance lies in
  36. Q66: Which of the following baskets of the Buddhist Tipitaka contains monastic rules?
    Answer: D — Vinaya Pitaka
    The correct answer is Vinaya Pitaka. Key Points - The Tipitaka (Pali for "three baskets") is the Buddhist canon, and the Vinaya Pitaka contains the rules of monastic discipline governing the sangha — conduct, ordination, and the p
  37. Q67: Consider the following statements regarding the provincial administration in the Mughal period and select the correct option. Statement I: Each Suba was placed under a Subedar or provincial governor w
    Answer: C — Both statements I and II are correct.
    The correct answer is Both statements I and II are correct. Key Points - Statement I is correct. The empire was divided into Subas (provinces), each under a Subedar or provincial governor directly appointed by the Emperor — a deliberate che
  38. Q68: Which of the following Union Territories has a Legislative Assembly?
    Answer: C — National Capital Territory of Delhi
    The correct answer is National Capital Territory of Delhi. Key Points - Among the options, only the NCT of Delhi has a Legislative Assembly. It was granted one by the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991, which inserted Articles 239AA an
  39. Q69: Which Amendment restored the primacy of Fundamental Rights over Directive Principles?
    Answer: A — 44th Amendment
    The correct answer is 44th Amendment. Key Points - The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 was enacted by the Janata government to reverse the excesses of the Emergency and restored the primacy of Fundamental Rights over Directive Principles. - The 42
  40. Q70: Who among the following led the large-scale armed attack on the Chittagong armoury in April 1930?
    Answer: A — Surya Sen
    The correct answer is Surya Sen. Key Points - The Chittagong Armoury Raid of April 1930 was led by Surya Sen, a schoolteacher known to his followers as "Masterda". - His group, the Indian Republican Army, seized the police and aux

General Intelligence & Reasoning — Solved Questions

  1. Q71: Refer to the following series and answer the question. (Counting to be done from left to right only.) (all numbers are single digit numbers only.) (Left) 9 2 3 1 4 5 6 8 5 4 3 2 1 9 3 4 5 6 7 8 1 2 9
    Answer: B — More than three
    The correct answer is More than three. Key Points - Three conditions must hold together for a digit to count: it is even, the digit immediately before it is a perfect square, and the digit immediately after it is odd. - Single-digit perfect
  2. Q72: Amit starts from Point Y and drives 14 km towards South. He then turns left and drives 35 km, takes a left and drives 68 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 41 km. He takes a left turn, drives 54
    Answer: D — 59 km towards east
    The correct answer is 59 km towards east. Key Points - Track the position as coordinates, taking Y as the origin with east positive on the x-axis and north positive on the y-axis. Each "left" turn rotates the facing anticlockwise.
  3. Q73: What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? SQU TRV USW VTX ?
    Answer: B — WUY
    The correct answer is WUY. Key Points - Treat each letter position separately and look down the columns rather than across the terms — that is what makes the pattern obvious. - 1st letters: S → T → U → V → W (each +1) - 2nd letters: Q → R →
  4. Q74: If 2 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number 5973642, then what will be the sum of all the even digits in the new number thus formed?
    Answer: D — 18
    The correct answer is 18. Key Points - Apply the rule digit by digit to 5973642 — add 2 to each even digit, subtract 2 from each odd digit: - 5 (odd) → 3, 9 (odd) → 7, 7 (odd) → 5, 3 (odd) → 1 - 6 (even) → 8, 4 (even) → 6, 2 (even) → 4 - Th
  5. Q75: John ranked 16 th from the bottom and 29 th from the top in his class. How many students are there in his class?
    Answer: C — 44
    The correct answer is 44. Key Points - When one person's rank is given from both ends, that person is counted twice, so the total is: - Total = (rank from top) + (rank from bottom) - 1 - = 29 + 16 - 1 = 44 - The subtraction of 1 removes the
  6. Q76: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘×’ are interchanged? 603 + 9 × 18 − 6 ÷ 56 = ?
    Answer: D — 15
    The correct answer is 15. Key Points - Apply the interchanges: '+' ↔ '÷' and '−' ↔ '×'. Rewrite the expression symbol by symbol. - Original: 603 + 9 × 18 - 6 ÷ 56 - Becomes: 603 ÷ 9 - 18 × 6 + 56 - Now solve by BODMAS, division and multipli
  7. Q77: In a certain code language, ‘NORM’ is coded as ‘7341’ and ‘ROME’ is coded as ‘3748’. What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
    Answer: D — 8
    The correct answer is 8. Key Points - Compare the two codes by which letters and digits they share: - NORM → 7341 uses letters N, O, R, M - ROME → 3748 uses letters R, O, M, E - The common letters are O, R and M, and the common digits are 3
  8. Q78: Study the given diagram carefully and answer the question. The numbers in different sections indicate the number of persons working in an organisation. (NOTE: You have to take the given data to be tru
    Answer: B — 45
    The correct answer is 45. Key Points - The question asks for employees who also speak German — that is, everyone lying in the overlap of the Employees and German Speakers circles, whether or not they are also Male. - Two regions satisfy tha
  9. Q79: Each letter in the word LANGUID is arranged in the English alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical order between the letter which is second from the left and the one
    Answer: C — 4
    The correct answer is 4. Key Points - Arrange the letters of LANGUID alphabetically: A, D, G, I, L, N, U. - Identify the two letters the question asks for: - Second from the left = D - Fourth from the right — counting U, N, L, I — = I - Cou
  10. Q80: Seven people, Mayank, Nidhi, Palak, Rakesh, Surya, Tina and Vivek, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit to the right of Rakesh. Nidhi sits to the immediate left of Vivek and Vivek s
    Answer: C — None
    The correct answer is None. Key Points - Number the seats 1 to 7 from the left, everyone facing north, so left and right match the reader's view. - Only two people sit to the right of Rakesh → Rakesh is at 5. - Vivek sits third to the left
  11. Q81: AEHB is related to FJMG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, DHKE is related to IMPJ. To which of the following is GKNH related, following the same logic?
    Answer: A — LPSM
    The correct answer is LPSM. Key Points - Compare the given pairs letter by letter to find the rule: - AEHB → FJMG: A+5=F, E+5=J, H+5=M, B+5=G - DHKE → IMPJ: D+5=I, H+5=M, K+5=P, E+5=J - The rule is simply +5 to every letter, position by pos
  12. Q82: Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (Note:
    Answer: D — NK-RO
    The correct answer is NK-RO. Key Points - Test the shift applied to each letter of the pair: - RO-VT: R+4=V, O+5=T - LI-PN: L+4=P, I+5=N - PM-TR: P+4=T, M+5=R - NK-RO: N+4=R, K+4=O - Three pairs follow the pattern (+4, +5). NK-RO applies (+
  13. Q83: Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. A is kept second from the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between A and G. E is kept at one of t
    Answer: A — 1
    The correct answer is 1. Key Points - Number the positions 1 at the bottom to 7 at the top. - A is second from the bottom → A at 2. - Only three boxes between A and G → G at 6. - E is below A → the only position left below A is E at 1. - On
  14. Q84: Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which conclusion
    Answer: C — Only conclusion (II) follows
    The correct answer is Only conclusion (II) follows. Key Points - The statements are All cakes are biscuits and All pizzas are biscuits. Both cakes and pizzas sit inside the set of biscuits, but nothing links them to each other. - Conclusion
  15. Q85: Uvx ranked 14 th from the top and 79 th from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in his class?
    Answer: B — 92
    The correct answer is 92. Key Points - With a single person's rank given from both ends, that person is counted twice, so: - Total = (rank from top) + (rank from bottom) - 1 - = 14 + 79 - 1 = 92 Additional Information - The −1 removes the d
  16. Q86: In a certain code language, ‘chest shirt coal’ is coded as 'ym aw xu' and ‘coal lake pig’ is coded as ‘aw yh ky’. How is ‘coal’ coded in the given language?
    Answer: B — aw
    The correct answer is aw. Key Points - Compare the two statements for the word and the code they share: - chest shirt coal → ym aw xu - coal lake pig → aw yh ky - The only common word is coal, and the only common code is aw. - Therefore coa
  17. Q87: In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the son of B’, A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’, A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’ and A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’. Based on the above, how is S
    Answer: D — Brother's wife's brother
    The correct answer is Brother's wife's brother. Key Points - Decode S + D ÷ F × H − K one symbol at a time: - S + D → S is the son of D - D ÷ F → D is the father of F - F × H → F is the wife of H - H − K → H is the brother of K - Since D is
  18. Q88: KH 13 is related to ID 2 in a certain way. In the same way, LO 9 is related to JK −2. To which of the following is LJ 7 related, following the same logic?
    Answer: D — JF −4
    The correct answer is JF −4. Key Points - Compare each component of the given pairs separately: - KH 13 → ID 2: K−2=I, H−4=D, 13−11=2 - LO 9 → JK −2: L−2=J, O−4=K, 9−11=−2 - The rule is therefore first letter −2, second letter −4, number −1
  19. Q89: Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (Note:
    Answer: D — EC−ZA
    The correct answer is EC−ZA. Key Points - Test the shift applied to each letter across the dash: - RP−NL: R−4=N, P−4=L ✓ - LJ−HF: L−4=H, J−4=F ✓ - OM−KI: O−4=K, M−4=I ✓ - EC−ZA: E−4 would be A, not Z; and C−2=A, not C−4 - Three pairs apply
  20. Q90: Each vowel in the word TRAJECTORIES is changed to the second letter immediately following it in the English alphabetical order, and each consonant is changed to the second letter immediately preceding
    Answer: D — Four
    The correct answer is Four. Key Points - Transform TRAJECTORIES letter by letter — vowels move +2 forward, consonants −2 backward: - T→R, R→P, A→C, J→H, E→G, C→A, T→R, O→Q, R→P, I→K, E→G, S→Q - The new group is R P C H G A R Q P K G Q. - No
  21. Q91: R, E, A, D, I, N and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table. Only two people sit between N and R when counted from the left of R. G sits third to the left of A. D sits t
    Answer: A — D
    The correct answer is D. Key Points - Seven people face the centre, so each person's left is clockwise and right is anticlockwise. Fix A at a position and work round. - G sits third to the left of A → G three clockwise from A - D sits immed
  22. Q92: P is the daughter of Q. Q is the wife of S. T is the mother of X. T is the sister of S. How is T related to P?
    Answer: B — Father's sister
    The correct answer is Father's sister. Key Points - Build the family from the statements: - P is the daughter of Q - Q is the wife of S → so S is P's father and Q is P's mother - T is the sister of S → T is P's father's sister - The fact th
  23. Q93: ​Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The
    Answer: C — URY
    The correct answer is URY. Key Points - Examine the gaps within each three-letter cluster: - MJP: M−3=J, J+6=P ✓ - JGM: J−3=G, G+6=M ✓ - QNT: Q−3=N, N+6=T ✓ - URY: U−3=R ✓, but R+7=Y, not +6 - Three clusters follow the pattern (−3, +6). URY
  24. Q94: Which of the following options should come in place of the ‘?’ in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? G 5, M 12, S 19, Y 26, ?
    Answer: D — E 33
    The correct answer is E 33. Key Points - Treat the letters and numbers as two separate sequences. - Letters: G(7) → M(13) → S(19) → Y(25), each +6. The next is 25 + 6 = 31, which exceeds 26, so wrap around: 31 - 26 = 5 = E. - Numbers: 5 → 1
  25. Q95: Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? MCK 10, PFN 13, SIQ 16, VLT 19, ?
    Answer: A — YOW 22
    The correct answer is YOW 22. Key Points - Split the cluster into four independent sequences and advance each: - 1st letters: M → P → S → V → Y (each +3) - 2nd letters: C → F → I → L → O (each +3) - 3rd letters: K → N → Q → T → W (each +3)
  26. Q96: If + means -, - means ×, × means ÷, and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 92 - 8 ÷ 311 + 715 × 11 = ?
    Answer: C — 982
    The correct answer is 982. Key Points - Apply the substitutions: + → −, − → ×, × → ÷, ÷ → +. Rewrite the expression completely before computing. - Original: 92 - 8 ÷ 311 + 715 × 11 - Becomes: 92 × 8 + 311 - 715 ÷ 11 - Solve by BODMAS: - 92
  27. Q97: Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers
    Answer: D — 4 - 9 - 36
    The correct answer is 4 - 9 - 36. Key Points - Find the rule from the given sets: - 8 - 3 - 24 → 8 × 3 = 24 - 5 - 8 - 40 → 5 × 8 = 40 - The rule is simply first × second = third. - Testing the options: - 4 - 8 - 43 → 4 × 8 = 32 43 - 14 - 6
  28. Q98: GECD is related to CAYZ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, AYWX is related to WUST. To which of the following is USQR related, following the same logic?
    Answer: D — QOMN
    The correct answer is QOMN. Key Points - Compare the given pairs letter by letter: - GECD → CAYZ: G−4=C, E−4=A, C−4=Y (wrapping past A), D−4=Z - AYWX → WUST: A−4=W (wrapping), Y−4=U, W−4=S, X−4=T - The rule is −4 applied to every letter, tr
  29. Q99: What should come in place of the ‘?’ in the given series? 5 14 41 122 ?
    Answer: A — 365
    The correct answer is 365. Key Points - The gaps grow too fast for a simple addition, so test a multiplicative rule with a constant: - 5 × 3 - 1 = 14 ✓ - 14 × 3 - 1 = 41 ✓ - 41 × 3 - 1 = 122 ✓ - The rule is × 3 - 1, so the missing term is 1
  30. Q100: What should come in place of the ‘?’ in the given series? 13 19 31 55 103 ?
    Answer: A — 199
    The correct answer is 199. Key Points - Take the differences between consecutive terms: - 19 - 13 = 6, 31 - 19 = 12, 55 - 31 = 24, 103 - 55 = 48 - The differences double each time: 6, 12, 24, 48, so the next is 96. - The missing term is 103

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are there in the RRB NTPC UG — 7 May 2026 (Shift 1)?
The RRB NTPC UG — 7 May 2026 (Shift 1) has 100 questions. Every question is solved here with the correct answer and a detailed explanation.
When was the RRB NTPC UG — 7 May 2026 (Shift 1) held?
The RRB NTPC UG — 7 May 2026 (Shift 1) was held on 7 May 2026.
Is there negative marking in RRB NTPC 2026?
Yes. RRB NTPC deducts 0.33 marks for every wrong answer, so accuracy matters as much as attempting more questions.
Is the RRB NTPC 2026 answer key with explanations available for free?
Yes. Every question in this paper includes the correct answer and a detailed, step-by-step explanation, free of cost and without login.
Can I attempt the RRB NTPC UG — 7 May 2026 (Shift 1) online?
Yes. You can attempt the full paper online in a timed, exam-like interface, and get your score with solutions immediately after submitting.