JKSSB Field Assistant — 20 May 2026 — Solved PYQ with Answer Key

Environmental Knowledge (General) — Solved Questions

1. Q1: Which of the following international conferences is correctly matched with its primary outcome?
   Answer: B — Rio Earth Summit (1992) - adopted Agenda 21 and the Convention on Biological Diversity
   The correct answer is Rio Earth Summit (1992) - adopted Agenda 21 and the Convention on Biological Diversity. Key Points - The Rio Earth Summit of 1992, formally the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), produced
2. Q2: Which of the following is not a Multilateral Environmental Agreement (MEA) related to climate change?
   Answer: D — CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species)
   The correct answer is CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species). Key Points - The question asks which agreement is not climate-related. CITES, adopted in 1973 and in force from 1975, regulates international trade in wi
3. Q3: Which of the following correctly describes an abiotic component of the environment?
   Answer: B — Wind patterns influencing erosion and sediment transport
   The correct answer is Wind patterns influencing erosion and sediment transport. Key Points - Abiotic components are the non-living physical and chemical parts of an ecosystem: light, temperature, wind, water, air, soil minerals, pH and topo
4. Q4: Which of the following best describes a biotic environment?
   Answer: C — Plants, animals, and microorganisms
   The correct answer is Plants, animals, and microorganisms. Key Points - The biotic environment is the sum of all living organisms in a habitat together with their interactions — competition, predation, parasitism, mutualism and decompositio
5. Q5: Which of the following is not an example of a non-renewable resource?
   Answer: D — Solar energy
   The correct answer is Solar energy. Key Points - A non-renewable resource is one whose stock is fixed on a human timescale, so using it depletes it permanently. The question asks which option is not of that kind. - Solar energy is the stand
6. Q6: Over-exploitation of non-renewable resources primarily leads to:
   Answer: C — Depletion of resource stock and long-term environmental degradation
   The correct answer is Depletion of resource stock and long-term environmental degradation. Key Points - Over-exploitation of a non-renewable resource has two linked consequences, and the correct option names both: the stock itself shrinks b
7. Q7: Which of the following conditions is least likely to be caused by long-term exposure to air pollution in urban areas?
   Answer: C — Vitamin-D deficiency
   The correct answer is Vitamin-D deficiency. Key Points - The question asks which condition is least likely to be caused by long-term urban air pollution. The other three are established respiratory and cardiovascular outcomes of chronic exp
8. Q8: Which of the following pollutants is most strongly associated with methemoglobinemia (blue-baby syndrome) in infants?
   Answer: B — Nitrate (NO3^-) in drinking water
   The correct answer is Nitrate (NO3^-) in drinking water. Key Points - Methemoglobinemia, or blue-baby syndrome, is caused by nitrate in drinking water. In an infant's gut, nitrate is reduced to nitrite, which oxidises the iron in haemoglobi
9. Q9: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under:
   Answer: B — The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
   The correct answer is The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. Key Points - The National Green Tribunal was established by its own dedicated statute, the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, and began functioning on 18 October 2010. India becam
10. Q10: Which of the following environmental laws is not explicitly covered under the NGT Act for adjudicating disputes?
    Answer: B — Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
    The correct answer is Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Key Points - The NGT's jurisdiction is not general. It extends only to the enactments listed in Schedule I of the NGT Act, 2010, and the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 is not among the
11. Q11: Consider the following statements regarding abiotic and biotic components of the environment: I. Abiotic components are governed primarily by physical and chemical laws and do not reproduce. II. Bioti
    Answer: B — I and III only
    The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. Abiotic components — light, temperature, water, air, minerals — behave according to physical and chemical laws and have no capacity to reproduce or evolve. - Stateme
12. Q12: Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT) Act, 2010: I. NGT primarily hears civil disputes arising under specified environmental enactments. II. Orders of NGT are a
    Answer: A — I only
    The correct answer is I only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. The NGT is a civil forum. It hears disputes involving a substantial question relating to the environment arising under the seven enactments in Schedule I of the NGT Act, 201
13. Q13: Consider the following statements regarding non-renewable resources and health hazards: I. Coal and petroleum are non-renewable resources whose extraction often leads to land subsidence and acid mine
    Answer: A — I and II only
    The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. Coal and petroleum are non-renewable, and their extraction is associated with land subsidence where worked-out seams collapse, and with acid mine drainage, where pyri
14. Q14: Consider the following statements regarding pollution indices and environmental events: I. The Air Quality Index (AQI) in India is based on the concentration of multiple pollutants including PM2.5, PM
    Answer: B — I and III only
    The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. India's National Air Quality Index, launched in 2014, is computed from eight pollutants — PM2.5, PM10, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3 and Pb — so the four named in the statem
15. Q15: Match List-I (Pollution Type) with List-II (Associated Health Hazard / Effect) and select the correct code: List-I i. Air (PM2.5) ii. Water (Nitrates) iii. Land (Heavy Metals) iv. Noise List-II a. Met
    Answer: A — i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
    The correct answer is i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b. Key Points - Each pollution medium maps to its characteristic health outcome: - i. Air (PM2.5) - c. Respiratory diseases. Fine particulates penetrate to the alveoli, causing bronchitis, COPD and
16. Q16: Match List-I (Environmental Agreement) with List-II (Year / Description) and select the correct code: List-I i. Stockholm ii. Rio iii. Kyoto iv. Paris List-II a. 1997 targets b. 1992 Agenda 21 c. 1972
    Answer: A — i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
    The correct answer is i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d. Key Points - The four milestones of international environmental governance, in order: - i. Stockholm - c. 1972, first UN conference on the Human Environment, which created UNEP. - ii. Rio - b. 1
17. Q17: Match List-I (Resource Type) with List-II (Example) and select the correct code: List-I i. Non-renewable ii. Renewable iii. Abiotic iv. Biotic List-II a. Solar b. Petroleum c. Topography d. Forest Cho
    Answer: A — i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d. Key Points - Two independent classifications are being tested at once, and keeping them apart is the whole task: - i. Non-renewable - b. Petroleum, a fossil fuel with a fixed stock. - ii. Renewa
18. Q18: Match List-I (Pollution Index / Tool) with List-II (Purpose) and select the correct code: List-I i. AQI ii. WQI iii. BOD iv. PSI List-II a. Organic pollution in water b. Overall water quality c. Urban
    Answer: A — i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
    The correct answer is i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d. Key Points - Each index or parameter answers a different question: - i. AQI - c. Urban air quality. A composite index converting pollutant concentrations into one number and colour band. - ii. W
19. Q19: Arrange the following environmental events in chronological order (earliest first): I. Earth Summit (Rio Earth Summit) II. Stockholm Conference on Human Environment III. Adoption of the Kyoto Protocol
    Answer: B — II-I-III-IV
    The correct answer is II-I-III-IV. Key Points - Placing the four events by year gives the sequence directly: - II. Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment - 1972 - I. Earth Summit, Rio de Janeiro - 1992 - III. Kyoto Protocol adopted -
20. Q20: Arrange the following environment-related days in chronological order within a single calendar year (earliest first): I. World Health Day II. World Environment Day III. Earth Day IV. World Ozone Day C
    Answer: A — I-III-II-IV
    The correct answer is I-III-II-IV. Key Points - Ordering the four observances within a calendar year: - I. World Health Day - 7 April - III. Earth Day - 22 April - II. World Environment Day - 5 June - IV. World Ozone Day - 16 September - Th

Water & Waste Water Engineering — Solved Questions

1. Q21: The quantity of sewage generated in a town is generally estimated as approximately:
   Answer: C — 75-85% of per-capita water supplied
   The correct answer is 75-85% of per-capita water supplied. Key Points - Sewage generation is estimated as a fraction of water supplied, because nearly all water delivered to a household returns to the sewer after use. The accepted design fi
2. Q22: For proper design of sewerage components, the design period is normally taken as:
   Answer: C — 20-30 years for sewers and 15-25 years for treatment works
   The correct answer is 20-30 years for sewers and 15-25 years for treatment works. Key Points - The design period is the number of years for which a facility is expected to serve adequately before it must be expanded. - Sewers are designed f
3. Q23: In a conventional activated sludge process, the secondary clarifier is primarily used for:
   Answer: B — Settling and separation of biomass (sludge) from treated effluent
   The correct answer is Settling and separation of biomass (sludge) from treated effluent. Key Points - In the conventional activated sludge process, the aeration tank produces mixed liquor — treated wastewater with a dense suspension of micr
4. Q24: The Rotating Biological Contactor (RBC) is a type of:
   Answer: B — Attached-growth biological system
   The correct answer is Attached-growth biological system. Key Points - A Rotating Biological Contactor consists of closely spaced circular discs mounted on a horizontal shaft, rotating slowly through a tank of wastewater. Micro-organisms gro
5. Q25: Which of the following unit operations removes fine suspended solids and colloidal particles by chemical destabilization and formation of flocs?
   Answer: C — Coagulation and flocculation
   The correct answer is Coagulation and flocculation. Key Points - Fine suspended solids and colloidal particles will not settle on their own. Colloids carry like negative surface charges that keep them mutually repelled and permanently in su
6. Q26: In a UASB (Upflow Anaerobic Sludge Blanket) reactor, the key feature is:
   Answer: A — Naturally formed granular sludge bed through which wastewater flows upward
   The correct answer is Naturally formed granular sludge bed through which wastewater flows upward. Key Points - The UASB reactor's defining feature is a blanket of dense, self-forming sludge granules at the bottom of the reactor. Wastewater
7. Q27: Which of the following industrial wastewaters is characterized by high BOD, high solids, and high alkalinity, and often requires neutralization and equalization before treatment?
   Answer: B — Tannery
   The correct answer is Tannery. Key Points - Tannery wastewater matches all three descriptors in the question. It carries high BOD from flesh, hair and protein residues, high solids from lime, hair and fine leather particles, and high alkali
8. Q28: In a Sequencing Batch Reactor (SBR), the operational sequence within each cycle is:
   Answer: A — Fill Aerate Settle Decant Idle
   The correct answer is Fill → Aerate → Settle → Decant → Idle. Key Points - A Sequencing Batch Reactor carries out the whole activated sludge process in one tank, separated in time rather than in space. Its cycle runs in a fixed logical orde
9. Q29: Which of the following pumps is most commonly used for pumping raw sewage containing suspended solids?
   Answer: D — Centrifugal pump with open impeller
   The correct answer is Centrifugal pump with open impeller. Key Points - Raw sewage carries rags, grit, plastics and other suspended solids, so the governing requirement for a sewage pump is that it must pass solids without clogging. - The c
10. Q30: Pumping stations for sewage are generally located:
    Answer: B — At depression points, along the sewer line, and at the sewage treatment plant head
    The correct answer is At depression points, along the sewer line, and at the sewage treatment plant. Key Points - Sewers run by gravity, so pumping is introduced only where gravity flow cannot be sustained. That gives three characteristic l
11. Q31: Consider the following statements about sewage discharge and design periods: I. Per-capita sewage generated is generally taken as about 75-85% of per-capita water supplied. II. The average daily sewag
    Answer: B — I and III only
    The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. Per-capita sewage generation is conventionally taken as 75-85% of per-capita water supplied, the balance being consumptive losses. - Statement II is incorrect, and i
12. Q32: Consider the following statements regarding unit operations in water and wastewater treatment: I. Coagulation neutralizes the surface charge of colloids, while flocculation promotes their aggregation.
    Answer: B — I and III only
    The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Statement I is correct and states the division of labour exactly: coagulation chemically destabilises colloids by neutralising their surface charge, and flocculation is the gentle mixing th
13. Q33: Consider the following statements regarding biological treatment systems: I. Trickling filters are attached-growth systems in which wastewater trickles over a media bed. II. Sequencing Batch Reactor (
    Answer: A — I and II only
    The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. A trickling filter is an attached-growth system: wastewater is distributed over a bed of stone or plastic media on which a biofilm grows, and treatment occurs as the
14. Q34: Consider the following statements regarding nitrification and denitrification: I. Nitrification converts ammonium (NH4^+) to nitrate (NO3^-) under aerobic conditions. II. Denitrification converts nitr
    Answer: A — I and II only
    The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. Nitrification is an aerobic, two-stage bacterial oxidation: Nitrosomonas converts ammonium NH4^+ to nitrite NO2^-, and Nitrobacter converts nitrite to nitrate NO3^-.
15. Q35: Match List-I (Unit Process) with List-II (Primary Purpose) and select the correct code: List-I i. Equalization ii. Aeration iii. Adsorption iv. Disinfection List-II a. Pathogen removal b. Reduction of
    Answer: A — i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a. Key Points - Each unit process exists to solve one specific problem: - i. Equalization - b. Reduction of variations. A holding basin evens out swings in flow, strength and pH so that downstream
16. Q36: Match List-I (Biological System) with List-II (Type of Growth / Configuration) and select the correct code: List-I i. Activated Sludge ii. Trickling Filter iii. RBC iv. UASB List-II a. Attached (rotat
    Answer: A — i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
    The correct answer is i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d. Key Points - The four systems classify by where the biomass sits and whether oxygen is present: - i. Activated Sludge - c. Suspended growth. Biomass floats freely as floc in the mixed liquor. -
17. Q37: Match List-I (Industrial Effluent) with List-II (Characteristics / Major Issues) and select the correct code: List-I i. Textile ii. Tannery iii. Dairy iv. Distillery List-II a. Salinity/Anaerobic b. N
    Answer: A — i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
    The correct answer is i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a. Key Points - Each industry leaves a signature on its effluent: - i. Textile - c. Colour and dyes, with high TDS and variable pH from dyeing and bleaching. - ii. Tannery - d. Chromium and sulphid
18. Q38: Match List-I (Pump Type) with List-II (Typical Use) and select the correct code: List-I i. Centrifugal ii. Reciprocating iii. Diaphragm iv. Pneumatic List-II a. Viscous sludge b. Raw sewage c. Small-s
    Answer: A — i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c. Key Points - Each pump type is matched to the fluid it handles well: - i. Centrifugal - b. Raw sewage. Open or non-clog impellers pass solids, and the pump moves large volumes at moderate head.
19. Q39: Arrange the following steps in a conventional biological wastewater treatment train in correct order (flow direction): I. Secondary clarifier II. Aeration tank III. Primary clarifier IV. Coagulation f
    Answer: B — III-IV-II-I
    The correct answer is III-IV-II-I. Key Points - The sequence follows the direction of flow through the works: - III. Primary clarifier first, removing settleable solids and a share of the BOD by plain gravity settling. - IV. Coagulation, fl
20. Q40: Arrange the following biological treatment configurations in the order of increasing level of process control / sophistication (simplest first): I. Wastewater stabilization ponds II. Trickling filter
    Answer: A — I-II-III-IV
    The correct answer is I-II-III-IV. Key Points - Ranking the configurations by how much control and mechanical intervention each demands: - I. Wastewater stabilization ponds — simplest. Treatment is by natural algal-bacterial symbiosis in sh
21. Q41: Which of the following is primarily a physical characteristic of water or sewage?
    Answer: D — Turbidity
    The correct answer is Turbidity. Key Points - Water and sewage characteristics divide into three families, and the question tests that division: - Physical — turbidity, colour, odour, taste, temperature, total solids. - Chemical — pH, COD,
22. Q42: High BOD in wastewater indicates:
    Answer: B — High concentration of biodegradable organic matter
    The correct answer is High concentration of biodegradable organic matter. Key Points - Biochemical Oxygen Demand measures the oxygen consumed by micro-organisms while they decompose organic matter in a sample. A high BOD therefore means the
23. Q43: Which of the following parameters measures both biodegradable and non-biodegradable organic matter in wastewater?
    Answer: B — COD
    The correct answer is COD. Key Points - Chemical Oxygen Demand uses a strong chemical oxidant — potassium dichromate in hot, acidic conditions — which attacks almost all organic matter present, whether or not micro-organisms can digest it.
24. Q44: Coliform bacteria are used as indicator organisms because they:
    Answer: B — Are present in human/animal faeces and are easy to detect
    The correct answer is Are present in human/animal faeces and are easy to detect. Key Points - Coliforms are used as indicator organisms, not because they are themselves dangerous, but because they signal the possible presence of faecal cont
25. Q45: The most common parameter used to assess the efficiency of a primary sedimentation tank is:
    Answer: A — Removal of Suspended Solids (SS)
    The correct answer is Removal of Suspended Solids (SS). Key Points - A primary sedimentation tank works by gravity settling. Its function is to remove settleable suspended solids, so its efficiency is properly judged by the percentage of SS
26. Q46: For a given industrial wastewater sample, BOD is usually less than COD because:
    Answer: B — COD measures more organic compounds (including non-biodegradable) than BOD
    The correct answer is COD measures more organic compounds (including non-biodegradable ones). Key Points - COD exceeds BOD because the two tests oxidise different fractions of the same sample. COD uses a powerful chemical oxidant that break
27. Q47: The self-purification of a natural stream after discharge of sewage is retarded by:
    Answer: A — Low dissolved oxygen and high organic load
    The correct answer is Low dissolved oxygen and high organic load. Key Points - Self-purification is a stream's natural capacity to recover from an organic discharge, and it is fundamentally an aerobic process — micro-organisms need dissolve
28. Q48: Which of the following is not a typical method of performance evaluation of a wastewater treatment plant?
    Answer: A — Comparing design discharge with personal opinion
    The correct answer is Comparing design discharge with personal opinion. Key Points - Performance evaluation must rest on measured, comparable evidence. The three legitimate methods listed are: - percentage removal of BOD, COD, SS and nutrie
29. Q49: Which of the following is most closely related to the odour of sewage under anaerobic conditions?
    Answer: B — Hydrogen sulfide (H2S)
    The correct answer is Hydrogen sulfide (H2S). Key Points - Under anaerobic conditions, sulphate-reducing bacteria reduce sulphate in sewage to hydrogen sulphide, the gas responsible for the characteristic rotten-egg smell of stale or septic
30. Q50: The most widely used test for measuring dissolved oxygen consumed by microorganisms in 5 days at 20°C is:
    Answer: B — BOD5 test
    The correct answer is BOD5 test. Key Points - The standard BOD₅ test measures the dissolved oxygen consumed by micro-organisms in 5 days at 20°C, incubated in the dark in a sealed bottle. The subscript denotes the incubation period, and the
31. Q51: Consider the following statements regarding physical characteristics of water and sewage: I. Turbidity is a measure of light-scattering due to suspended solids. II. Colour in water is mainly a biologi
    Answer: B — I and III only
    The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. Turbidity is measured by the scattering of light by suspended and colloidal particles, which is why it is determined nephelometrically and reported in NTU. - Stateme
32. Q52: Consider the following statements regarding chemical characteristics: I. COD usually gives a higher value than BOD for the same wastewater sample. II. High hardness in water is mainly due to dissolved
    Answer: A — I and II only
    The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. COD always exceeds BOD for the same sample, because a chemical oxidant attacks both biodegradable and non-biodegradable organics while micro-organisms consume only th
33. Q53: Consider the following statements regarding biological characteristics and performance evaluation: I. Presence of coliforms in treated effluent indicates possible faecal contamination. II. High Sludge
    Answer: A — I and II only
    The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. Coliforms in treated effluent indicate possible faecal contamination, which is precisely their role as indicator organisms. - Statement II is correct. A high Sludge V
34. Q54: Consider the following statements regarding self-purification and parameter interpretation: I. Satisfying oxygen demand in a stream promotes self-purification. II. High temperature always reduces the
    Answer: A — I and II only
    The correct answer per the official JKSSB final key is I and II only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. Self-purification proceeds as the stream's oxygen demand is satisfied — micro-organisms stabilise the organic load aerobically, and t
35. Q55: Match List-I (Parameter) with List-II (Type of Characteristic) and select the correct code: List-I i. Turbidity ii. BOD iii. Total coliforms iv. COD List-II a. Total organic matter b. Faecal contamina
    Answer: A — i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
    The correct answer is i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a. Key Points - Each parameter answers one question about the sample: - i. Turbidity - c. Suspended solids. Cloudiness caused by particles scattering light. - ii. BOD - d. Biodegradable organics. O
36. Q56: Match List-I (Performance Indicator) with List-II (Indication) and select the correct code: List-I i. BOD removal ii. SS removal iii. SVI iv. F/M ratio List-II a. Settling properties b. Organic-load e
    Answer: A — i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d. Key Points - Each indicator reports on a different aspect of plant performance: - i. BOD removal - b. Organic-load efficiency. How well the biological stage is stabilising organic matter. - ii.
37. Q57: Match List-I (Test / Process) with List-II (Main outcome measured) and select the correct code: List-I i. BOD5 ii. COD iii. DO measurement iv. SVI List-II a. Available Oxygen b. Aerobic biodegradable
    Answer: A — i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d. Key Points - Four routine determinations, each with a distinct outcome: - i. BOD5 - b. Aerobic biodegradable load. Oxygen consumed by micro-organisms over five days at 20°C. - ii. COD - c. Total
38. Q58: Match List-I (Factor) with List-II (Effect on self-purification) and select the correct code: List-I i. High DO ii. High organic load iii. Sunlight iv. Low temperature List-II a. Retards b. Promotes c
    Answer: A — i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d. Key Points - Each factor either helps or hinders a stream's recovery: - i. High DO - b. Promotes. Oxygen is what aerobic micro-organisms need to stabilise the waste. - ii. High organic load - a.
39. Q59: Arrange the following parameters in the order of increasing complexity (simplest first): I. COD II. Turbidity III. BOD IV. Total nitrogen and phosphorus Choose the correct sequence:
    Answer: B — II-III-I-IV
    The correct answer per the official JKSSB final key is II-III-I-IV. Key Points - Ranking the determinations by the apparatus and skill each demands, simplest first: - II. Turbidity — an optical reading on a nephelometer, taking seconds and
40. Q60: Arrange the following steps in performance evaluation in logical order: I. Compare effluent quality with standards II. Collect and analyse samples III. Calculate removal efficiencies (%) IV. Identify
    Answer: A — II-III-I-IV
    The correct answer is II-III-I-IV. Key Points - Performance evaluation follows a fixed logical order, because each step depends on the one before it: - II. Collect and analyse samples — nothing can be assessed without data. - III. Calculate
41. Q61: Which of the following best defines Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)?
    Answer: B — A process of identifying, predicting, and evaluating environmental impacts of a proposed project and designing mitigation
    The correct answer is A process of identifying, predicting, and evaluating environmental impacts of a proposed project. Key Points - EIA is a planning and decision-support process, carried out before a project is approved. Its three functio
42. Q62: An Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is prepared:
    Answer: B — As a detailed written report summarizing the results of EIA, normally submitted with EIA notification
    The correct answer is As a detailed written report summarizing the results of the EIA study. Key Points - The Environmental Impact Statement is the document that reports the EIA. It sets out the project description, the baseline environment
43. Q63: The Environment Management Plan (EMP) essentially:
    Answer: B — Specifies mitigation, monitoring, and contingency measures to manage environmental impacts during construction and operation
    The correct answer is Specifies mitigation, monitoring, and contingency measures to manage environmental impacts during construction and operation. Key Points - The EMP is the implementation arm of the EIA. Where the EIA predicts what will

Environmental Impact Assessment — Solved Questions

1. Q64: Which of the following impacts is not typically considered in an EIA?
   Answer: C — General economic inflation rates
   The correct answer is General economic inflation rates. Key Points - An EIA assesses impacts attributable to the project on the environment and on the people around it. The other three options are all classic EIA components: - air quality c
2. Q65: Which stage of EIA specifically involves collection of baseline environmental data (air, water, soil, biota, socio-economic)?
   Answer: B — Environmental inventory/baseline study
   The correct answer is Environmental inventory/baseline study. Key Points - The environmental inventory or baseline study is the stage that collects data on existing conditions — air quality, water quality, soil, flora and fauna, noise and s
3. Q66: In rapid EIA, the level of prediction and analysis is generally:
   Answer: A — Less detailed and more qualitative, often used for less-sensitive or small-scale
   The correct answer is Less detailed and more qualitative, often used for limited data or preliminary assessment. Key Points - A Rapid EIA is the abbreviated form. It is based on one season's baseline data (excluding the monsoon) and relies
4. Q67: Public participation in EIA is most explicitly sought during:
   Answer: B — Public hearing and scoping stages
   The correct answer is Public hearing and scoping stages. Key Points - Public participation enters the EIA process at two defined points: at scoping, where the concerns of affected people help shape what the study must examine, and at the pu
5. Q68: GIS is most helpful in EIA for:
   Answer: A — Mapping project area, overlaying layers (land use, hydrology, ecology,
   The correct answer is Mapping project area, overlaying layers (land use, hydrology, settlements) for impact prediction. Key Points - The particular strength of a Geographic Information System is spatial overlay. Land use, drainage, forest c
6. Q69: Remote sensing in EIA is particularly useful for:
   Answer: B — Monitoring land-use/land-cover changes, vegetation status, and water bodies
   The correct answer is Monitoring land-use/land-cover changes, vegetation status and water bodies over time. Key Points - Remote sensing acquires information about the earth's surface from satellite or airborne sensors without physical conta
7. Q70: Which of the following is not a typical component of an Environment Management Plan (EMP)?
   Answer: A — Financial statements of the promoter
   The correct answer is Financial statements of the promoter. Key Points - An EMP is an environmental document. Its standard components are all represented among the rejected options: - mitigation measures for noise and air pollution, - a mon
8. Q71: Consider the following statements regarding EIA basics: 1. EIA aims to predict environmental impacts at an early stage in project planning and design. II. EIA is only a technical document with no lega
   Answer: B — I and III only
   The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. EIA is anticipatory: it predicts impacts at an early stage of project planning and design, when the project can still be modified cheaply. That is the whole point of
9. Q72: Consider the following statements regarding EIS and EMP: I. The Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is essentially a written compilation of EIA findings. II. The Environment Management Plan (EMP) is
   Answer: B — I and III only
   The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. The Environmental Impact Statement is precisely a written compilation of the EIA's findings — baseline conditions, predicted impacts, alternatives and proposed mitig
10. Q73: Consider the following statements regarding impact prediction and assessment: I. Impacts on air, water, biota, noise, cultural, and socio-economic environment are normally assessed in an EIA. II. Cult
    Answer: B — I and III only
    The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. A proper EIA assesses impacts across the full range of components — air, water, biota, noise, cultural and socio-economic — not the physical environment alone. - Sta
11. Q74: Consider the following statements about rapid vs comprehensive EIA and GIS use: I. Rapid EIA studies usually cover shorter time-frames and less detailed field work than comprehensive EIA. II. Comprehe
    Answer: A — I and II only
    The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. Rapid EIA covers a shorter time frame — typically one season's baseline data excluding the monsoon — and involves less detailed field work than a comprehensive study.
12. Q75: Match List-I (EIA Stage/Element) with List-I (Main purpose/focus) and select the correct code: List-I List-II i. Screening a. Identifying impacts to study ii. Scoping b. Baseline data collection iii.
    Answer: A — i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
    The correct answer is i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d. Key Points - The four elements map to four distinct purposes, and the sequence is the EIA process itself: - i. Screening - c. Deciding if EIA is required. The threshold question, answered from p
13. Q76: Match List-I (Impact Type) with List-II (Example / key focus) and select the correct code: List-I i. Air-quality ii. Water-quantity iii. Noise iv. Socio-economic List-II a. Employment patterns b. Dust
    Answer: A — i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a. Key Points - Each impact type pairs with its characteristic manifestation: - i. Air-quality - b. Dust and emissions, from construction activity, haulage and process stacks. - ii. Water-quantity
14. Q77: Match List-I (Tool /Technology) with List-II (Use in EIA) and select the correct code: List-I List-II i. GIS a. Sound levels ii. Remote sensing b. Mapping/Overlaying iii. Noise-software c. Time-series
    Answer: A — i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c. Key Points - Each tool does one job in an EIA: - i. GIS - b. Mapping and overlaying, superimposing land use, hydrology and settlement layers to locate conflicts. - ii. Remote sensing - d. Acquir
15. Q78: Match List-I (EIA Approach) with List-II (Typical context) and select the correct code: List-I List-II i. Rapid EIA a. High-impact projects ii. Comprehensive b. Policy/Plan level iii. Sectoral c. Mode
    Answer: A — i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
    The correct answer is i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b. Key Points - Four levels of assessment, each suited to a different context: - i. Rapid EIA - c. Moderate-impact projects, where a single season's data supports a preliminary decision. - ii. Comp
16. Q79: Arrange the following steps in a typical EIA process in logical sequence (earliest first): L. Decision-making and clearance II. Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) preparation III. Scoping and baseli
    Answer: A — IV-III-II-I
    The correct answer is IV-III-II-I. Key Points - The EIA process runs in a fixed logical order: - IV. Screening and project identification — deciding whether an EIA is required at all. - III. Scoping and baseline study — defining what to ass
17. Q80: Arrange the following impact-assessment categories for an industrial EIA in the order of increasing complexity / scope (simplest first): I. Noise and vibration II. Air-quality impacts III. Cultural an
    Answer: A — I-II-IV-III
    The correct answer is I-II-IV-III. Key Points - Ranking the impact categories by how complex each is to assess, simplest first: - I. Noise and vibration — measured directly with a sound-level meter and modelled by straightforward distance a
18. Q81: The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is often called an "umbrella Act" because it:
    Answer: B — Provides a general framework and power to issue rules for various pollution
    The correct answer is Provides a general framework and power to issue rules, standards and notifications. Key Points - The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is called an umbrella Act because it supplies a broad enabling framework rather th
19. Q82: The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 derives its statutory basis from a direction issued after the:
    Answer: B — Stockholm Conference (1972)
    The correct answer is Stockholm Conference (1972). Key Points - The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted to implement the decisions taken at the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm, 1972, as its own pream
20. Q83: Under Section 5 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the Central Government can issue:
    Answer: B — Binding directions, including closure of industries and stoppage of services
    The correct answer is Binding directions, including closure of industries. Key Points - Section 5 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 empowers the Central Government to issue directions in writing to any person, officer or authority,
21. Q84: The Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, 2006 is issued under:
    Answer: C — Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
    The correct answer is Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Key Points - The EIA Notification, 2006 is a subordinate instrument issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which is precisely what makes that Act an umbrella statute —

Environmental Legislation in India — Solved Questions

1. Q85: Under the EIA Notification, 2006, Category A projects:
   Answer: B — Require environmental clearance at national level and are not screened by SEIAA
   The correct answer is Require environmental clearance at national level and are not screened by SEIAA. Key Points - Under the EIA Notification, 2006, Category A projects are those judged to have the greatest impact potential. They are appra
2. Q86: The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 envisages the establishment of:
   Answer: B — CPCB and State-Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs)
   The correct answer is CPCB and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs). Key Points - The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 created the institutional machinery of Indian pollution control: the Central Pollution Control Boa
3. Q87: Under the Water (P&CP) Act, 1974, setting of effluent and water-quality standards is a function of:
   Answer: B — Pollution control boards (CPCB/SPCBs)
   The correct answer is Pollution control boards (CPCB/SPCBs). Key Points - Setting effluent and water-quality standards is a statutory function of the pollution control boards under the Water Act, 1974 — the CPCB laying down national standar
4. Q88: The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 was enacted to give effect to the decisions of the:
   Answer: C — Stockholm Conference (1972)
   The correct answer is Stockholm Conference (1972). Key Points - The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 was enacted, as its preamble states, to implement the decisions of the Stockholm Conference of 1972 so far as they relat
5. Q89: Under the Air (P&CP) Act, 1981, the State Pollution Control Board (SPCB) is entrusted with:
   Answer: A — Regulating and monitoring air pollution in the State and granting consent to operate
   The correct answer is Regulating and monitoring air pollution in the State and granting consent to operate. Key Points - Under the Air Act, 1981, the State Pollution Control Board carries the operational responsibility within its State: it
6. Q90: For most industries, consent to establish and consent to operate (CTO) are required under:
   Answer: B — Both Water (P&CP) Act, 1974 and Air (P&CP) Act, 1981
   The correct answer is Both Water (P&CP) Act, 1974 and Air (P&CP) Act, 1981. Key Points - For most industries consent to establish (CTE) and consent to operate (CTO) are required under both statutes, because a typical plant discharge
7. Q91: Consider the following statements regarding the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986: I. It was passed to give effect to the decisions of the Stockholm Conference (1972). II. Section 5 empowers the Cent
   Answer: A — I and II only
   The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. The EPA 1986 was enacted to give effect to the decisions of the Stockholm Conference, 1972, using the Article 253 treaty-implementation power. - Statement II is corre
8. Q92: Consider the following statements regarding the EIA Notification, 2006: I. It categorizes projects into Category A (national level) and Category B (state level). II. Category B projects are appraised
   Answer: B — I and III only
   The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. The 2006 notification categorises projects into Category A, appraised at national level, and Category B, appraised at State level. - Statement II is incorrect, and i
9. Q93: Consider the following statements about the Water (P&CP) Act, 1974: I. CPCB and SPCBs have powers to set water quality and effluent standards under the Act. II. The Act does not deal with groundwa
   Answer: A — I and III only
   The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. The CPCB and SPCBs are empowered under the Water Act, 1974 to lay down water-quality and effluent standards. - Statement II is incorrect, and it is the error. The Ac
10. Q94: Consider the following statements related to the Air (P&CP) Act, 1981: I. The Act provides for establishment of CPCB and State-level air-pollution boards. II. Ambient air-quality monitoring and em
    Answer: A — I and II only
    The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. The Air Act, 1981 provides for the CPCB and State-level boards to exercise air-pollution functions — in practice entrusting them to the boards already constituted und
11. Q95: Match List-I (Act / Notification) with List-II (Key feature / purpose) and select the correct code: List-I i. EPA-1986 ii. EIA-2006 iii. Water Act-1974 iv. Air Act-1981 List-II a. Water standards b. A
    Answer: A — i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
    The correct answer is i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b. Key Points - Each instrument has one defining purpose: - i. EPA-1986 - c. Umbrella framework. A general enabling statute under which most rules and notifications are made. - ii. EIA-2006 - d. A/
12. Q96: Match List-I (Section / Power) with List-II (Enactment / Context) and select the correct code: List-I i. Section-5 directions ii. Category A/B classification iii. CTO iv. Ambient air monitoring List-I
    Answer: A — i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
    The correct answer is i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d. Key Points - Each power or requirement traces to one enactment: - i. Section-5 directions - a. EPA-1986. The power to issue binding directions, including closure. - ii. Category A/B classificati
13. Q97: Match List-I (Board / Authority) with List-II (Primary environmental domain) and select the correct code: List-I i. CPCB ii. SPCB iii. ENVIS iv. IAA List-II a. National EIA appraisal b. National water
    Answer: A — i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a. Key Points - Four institutions, four distinct mandates: - i. CPCB - b. National water and air control. Sets standards, coordinates State boards, runs national monitoring. - ii. SPCB - c. State w
14. Q98: Match List-I (Legal requirement) with List-II (Enactment) and select the correct code: List-I i. Environmental clearance ii. Effluent standards iii. Stack standards iv. General rule framework List-II
    Answer: A — i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a
    The correct answer is i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a. Key Points - Each legal requirement traces to its source instrument: - i. Environmental clearance - d. EIA-2006. Granted under the notification by MoEFCC or SEIAA. - ii. Effluent standards - b.
15. Q99: Arrange the following key stages related to project clearance and compliance in India in chronological order (earliest first): I. Grant of Environmental Clearance (EC) II. Grant of Consent to Establis
    Answer: B — I-II-III-IV
    The correct answer per the official JKSSB final key is I-II-III-IV. Key Points - The regulatory sequence for an industrial project in India runs: - I. Grant of Environmental Clearance (EC) — the project-level approval under the EIA Notifica
16. Q100: Arrange the following statutory Acts and instruments in chronological order of enactment (earliest first): I. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 II. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 19
    Answer: A — II-III-I-IV
    The correct answer is II-III-I-IV. Key Points - Ordering the four instruments by year of enactment: - II. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act - 1974 - III. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act - 1981 - I. Environment (P

Environmental Audit & Safety Audit — Solved Questions

1. Q101: An Environmental Audit in an industrial unit is primarily:
   Answer: B — A systematic and documented verification of compliance with environmental laws and EMS performance
   The correct answer is A systematic and documented verification of compliance with environmental laws and EMS performance. Key Points - An Environmental Audit is a systematic, documented and objective examination of how well an organisation
2. Q102: A Safety Audit in an industrial unit mainly aims to:
   Answer: B — Identify unsafe practices, hazards, and effectiveness of safety management systems
   The correct answer is Identify unsafe practices, hazards, and effectiveness of safety management systems. Key Points - A Safety Audit examines the workplace for unsafe conditions and unsafe acts, and assesses whether the safety management s
3. Q103: Under which legislation is an On-Site Emergency Plan (OSEP) typically mandated for hazardous-industry units in India?
   Answer: C — Factories Act, 1948 (as amended, e.g., Section 41-B)
   The correct answer is Factories Act, 1948 (as amended, e.g., Section 41-B). Key Points - The On-Site Emergency Plan is mandated for hazardous-industry units by the Factories Act, 1948, through Section 41-B, which was inserted by the 1987 am
4. Q104: The main objective of an On-Site Emergency Plan is to:
   Answer: A — Ensure orderly evacuation and control of an incident within the plant boundary
   The correct answer is Ensure orderly evacuation and control of an incident within the plant boundary. Key Points - The defining feature of an On-Site Emergency Plan is its boundary: it deals with an incident inside the factory premises, aim
5. Q105: An Off-site emergency plan focuses on:
   Answer: B — Coordination with local fire-services, police, hospitals and local authorities during a major accident
   The correct answer is Coordination with local fire-services, police, hospitals and local authorities during a major accident. Key Points - An Off-Site Emergency Plan addresses an accident whose effects extend beyond the factory boundary int
6. Q106: Which of the following is not a typical component of an Environmental Audit in an industry?
   Answer: B — Directly setting new pollution-control standards for the State
   The correct answer is Directly setting new pollution-control standards for the State. Key Points - An environmental audit checks compliance against existing standards; it does not create them. Standard-setting is a statutory function of the
7. Q107: In a safety audit, HAZOP (Hazard and Operability Study) is used to:
   Answer: B — Systematically identify hazards and operability problems in process-design
   The correct answer is Systematically identify hazards and operability problems in process-design. Key Points - HAZOP — Hazard and Operability Study — is a structured, team-based examination of a process design. The team works through the pl
8. Q108: A Disaster-Management Plan (DMP) in an industrial unit usually emphasizes:
   Answer: B — Prevention, preparedness, response, and recovery across multiple hazards
   The correct answer is Prevention, preparedness, response, and recovery across multiple hazards. Key Points - A Disaster Management Plan is built around the four phases of the disaster-management cycle — prevention/mitigation, preparedness,
9. Q109: For major accident hazard units, on-site and off-site emergency plans are typically required under:
   Answer: B — State-level disaster-management / pollution-control-board guidelines
   The correct answer is State-level disaster-management / pollution-control-board guidelines. Key Points - For Major Accident Hazard units, the requirement for on-site and off-site emergency plans flows from statutory rules administered at St
10. Q110: Periodic audits and drills of the on-site emergency plan are important mainly to:
    Answer: B — Validate and update procedures, roles, and equipment readiness
    The correct answer is Validate and update procedures, roles, and equipment readiness. Key Points - Periodic audits and drills exist to test whether the emergency plan actually works. They verify that procedures are practicable, that people
11. Q111: Consider the following statements about Environmental and Safety Audits: I. Environmental Audit verifies compliance with laws and effectiveness of an EMS. II. Safety Audit is primarily a one-time exer
    Answer: B — I and III only
    The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. An Environmental Audit verifies compliance with law and the effectiveness of the EMS. - Statement II is incorrect, and it is the error the question rests on. A Safet
12. Q112: Consider the following statements about On-Site Emergency Plan (OSEP): I. OSEP is required mainly for high-hazard industries (e.g., MHU units). II. OSEP is prepared only by the local fire-department,
    Answer: B — I and III only
    The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. An OSEP is required chiefly for high-hazard industries, notably Major Accident Hazard units holding hazardous chemicals above threshold quantities. - Statement II is
13. Q113: Consider the following statements about Off-site emergency and disaster management plans: I. Off-site emergency plan involves coordination between industries, fire-services, and district administratio
    Answer: B — I and III only
    The correct answer is I and III only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. An off-site plan rests on coordination between the industry, fire services and district administration — that multi-agency character is precisely what distinguishes
14. Q114: Consider the following statements about audits in relation to emergency plans: I. Environmental Audit can include review of emergency plans as part of EMS. II. Safety Audit may assess emergency-respon
    Answer: A — I and II only
    The correct answer is I and II only. Key Points - Statement I is correct. An Environmental Audit can review emergency plans as part of the EMS, since emergency preparedness is an explicit element of ISO 14001. - Statement II is correct. A S
15. Q115: Match List-I (Plan / Concept) with List-II (Main Focus) and select the correct code: List-I i. Env. Audit ii. Safety Audit iii. OSEP iv. Off-site Plan List-II a. multi-agency coordination b. EMS verif
    Answer: A — i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a. Key Points - Four instruments, each with a distinct focus: - i. Environmental Audit - b. EMS verification. Checking compliance and management-system performance. - ii. Safety Audit - c. Hazard i
16. Q116: Match List-I (Tool / Technique) with List-II (Use in Audits / Plans) and select the correct code: List-I i. HAZOP ii. MSDS iii. Drills iv. Incident-Controller List-II a. chemical info b. process-desig
    Answer: A — i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d. Key Points - Four tools, four functions: - i. HAZOP - b. Process-design hazards. A structured guide-word study of deviations in a process. - ii. MSDS - a. Chemical information. The safety data s
17. Q117: Match List-I (Legal / Institutional driver) with List-II (Mandate) and select the correct code: List-I i. Factories Act ii. PCB guidelines iii. ISO 14001 iv. District DMP List-II a. Internal EMS audit
    Answer: A — i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
    The correct answer is i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c. Key Points - Each driver imposes a different obligation: - i. Factories Act - b. OSEP mandate. Section 41-B requires the on-site emergency plan. - ii. PCB guidelines - d. Regulatory compliance.
18. Q118: Match List-I (Phase of disaster-management) with List-II (Typical activity) and select the correct code: List-I i. Prevention ii. Preparedness iii. Response iv. Recovery List-II a. Rehabilitation b. E
    Answer: A — i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
    The correct answer is i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a. Key Points - Each phase of the disaster-management cycle has its characteristic activity: - i. Prevention - d. Safer design. Eliminating or reducing the hazard at source, before anything happens
19. Q119: Arrange the following phases of an industrial disaster-management cycle in logical order (early to late): I. Recovery II. Response III. Preparedness IV. Prevention Choose the correct sequence:
    Answer: A — IV-III-II-I
    The correct answer is IV-III-II-I. Key Points - The industrial disaster-management cycle runs in this order, early to late: - IV. Prevention — reduce or eliminate the hazard by design and siting. - III. Preparedness — plan, train and drill
20. Q120: Arrange the key steps in the activation of an On-Site Emergency Plan (OSEP) in logical sequence (earliest first): I. Incident-controller assumes command II. Alarm is raised and personnel alerted III.
    Answer: A — II-I-IV-III
    The correct answer is II-I-IV-III. Key Points - Activating an on-site emergency plan follows a fixed operational sequence: - II. Alarm is raised and personnel alerted — the trigger; nothing else can begin until the emergency is declared. -

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